Month: October 2024

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

JAC Class 9th Geography Climate InText Questions and Answers 

Find Out (Page No. 27)

Question 1.
Why the houses in Rajasthan have thick walls and flat roofs?
Answer:
Rajasthan lies mostly in desert where the climate remains very hot. Due to lack of vegetation, here the sunrays fall directly on the earth. Also the winds blow very fast here. Therefore, the houses have thick walls to maintain the inner temperature of the houses and keep them cool for longer time. They have flat roofs to collect the rainwater because there is scarcity of water in Rajasthan.

Question 2.
Why is the houses in the Tarai region and in Goa & Mangalore have sloping roofs?
Answer:
The Tarai region, Goa and Mangalore are places receiving heavy rainfall throughout the year. Therefore, the houses in these regions have sloping roofs to allow the rainwater to flow down speedily. Non-accumulation of water allows sloping roofs being safe during rainy season.

Question 3.
Why houses in Assam are built on stilts?
Answer:
In Assam, the average rainfall is above 300 cm. Due to heavy rainfall throughout the year, the ground always remains wet. Stilts allow free flow of water on the ground and the houses are not flooded. Therefore, houses are built on stilts to avoid wetness and danger from poisonous reptiles living on the wet ground.

Question 4.
Why most of the World’s deserts are located in the western margins of continents in the sub-tropics ?
Answer:
Most of the world’s deserts are located in the western margins of continents in the sub-tropics because the prevailing winds in the tropics are tropical easterly winds. These winds become dry by the time they reach the western margins of the continents and so they bring no rainfall. Thus, the region becomes moisture-less which causes dry conditions leading to formation of deserts.

Activity (Page No. 38)

Question 1.
1. On the basis of the news items above, find out the names of places and the seasons described.
2. Compare the rainfall description of Chennai and Mumbai and explain the reasons for the difference.
3. Evaluate flood as a disaster with the help of a case study.
Answer:

1. Rainy season Mumbai & Chennai
   Winter Season Srinagar, Amritsar, Shimla and New Delhi.
2. Chennai receives winter rains while Mumbai monsoonal rains. In Chennai, rainfall is less than that in Mumbai.
   The main reason behind this difference is that both Mumbai and Chennai are situated in different monsoon regions.
3. Students are requested to perform the activity on themselves.

JAC Class 9th Geography Climate Textbook Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:
1. Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
(a) Silchar
(b) Mawsynram
(c) Cherrapunji
(d) Guwahati.
Answer:
(b) Mawsynram

2. The wind blowing in the Northern plains in summers is known as :
(a) Kal Baisakhi
(b) Loo
(c) Trade winds
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Loo

3. Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India?
(a) Cyclonic depression
(b) Retreating monsoon
(c) Western disturbances
(d) South-west monsoon
Answer:
(c) Western disturbances

4. Monsoon arrives in India as early in:
(a) May
(b) July
(c) June
(d) August
Answer:
(c) June

5. Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?
(a) warm days and warm nights
(b) warm days and cold nights
(c) cold days and cold nights
(d) cold days and warm nights
Answer:
(b) warm days and cold nights

Question 2.
Answer the following questions briefly :
1. What are the controls affecting the climate of India?
Answer:
There are six major controls affecting the climate of India. They are: latitude, altitude, pressure and wind system, distance from the sea, ocean currents and relief features.

2. Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?
Answer:
India has a monsoon type of climate because there is a seasonal reversal in the wind system of India. During 6 months, monsoon winds blow from sea to land, and during the next 6 months, they blow from land to sea. Monsoon winds prevails between 5° and 30° latitudes on both sides of the Equator. India lies in between these latitudes, thus, it is greatly influenced by monsoon winds.

3. Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?
Answer:
The Thar desert of Rajasthan in India experiences the highest diurnal range of
temperature. It is because in the Thar desert, the weather conditions drastically change from the day to the night. During the day, there is very high temperature, while during the night, the temperature falls down significantly.

4. Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast?
Answer:
South-west monsoon winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast.

5. What are Jet streams and how do they affect the climate of India?
Answer:
Jet streams are the narrow belt of high altitude (above 12,000 m) westerly winds in the
troposphere. Their speed varies from about 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h in winter.
In India, these jet streams blow from south of the Himalayas, throughout the year, except in summer. The western cyclonic disturbances experienced in the north and north-western parts of the country are brought in by this westerly flow.

6. Define monsoon. What do you understand by “break” in monsoon?
Answer:
Monsoon: The word monsoon is derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’, which literally means season. ‘Monsoon’ refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year. Break in Monsoon: Rains taking place only for a few days at a time is called “break in monsoon”. In brief, the intermission amid raining is termed as “break’ in monsoon. It is related to the movement of the monsoon.

7. Why is the monsoon considered a unifying bond?
Answer:
India is a vast country. Here variations are found not only in relief, climate and vegetation, but also in life. But the monsoon is a geographical factor that binds these variations of the country together and establishes unity. The arrival of the monsoon brings rains all over the country. Monsoon winds speed up the process of agriculture by providing water to us.

The entire Indian landscape, its wildlife and vegetation life, the entire agricultural program, the lifestyle of the people and their festivals, all revolve around the monsoon. Due to the monsoon, there is a rhythm of the cycle of seasons every years. This is the reason why the monsoon is considered a unifying bond.

Question 3.
Why does the rainfall decrease from the east to the west in Northern India?
Answer:
When the Bay of Bengal branch of south-west monsoon is obstructed by the eastern Himalayas, maximum amount of rainfall is received in West Bengal, Bihar etc. When these winds advance towards west, they go on shedding moisture. Therefore, the amount of rainfall decreases from the east to the west in Northern India.

Question 4.
Give reasons as to why:
1. Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian sub-continent?
Answer:
Reasons for the seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian sub-continent are the following:
(a) During winter, there is a high-pressure area over north of the Himalayas. Cold dry winds blow from this region to the low pressure area over the oceans to the south.

(b) In summer, a low-pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over north-western India. This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer.

2. The bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.
Answer:
In India, most of the rainfall is caused by south-west monsoon which prevails in India only between June to September. Therefore, bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated in these four months only.

3. The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
Answer:
The north-east monsoon winds starts blowing in October month from the land, i.e., north-eastern parts of India to the sea. These bear no water till their access to the Bay of Bengal. However, they get some moisture from the sea here and cause rain in the coast of Tamil Nadu.

4. The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
Answer:
The delta region of the Eastern coast of India is frequently struck by cyclones. This is because the cyclonic depressions that originate over the Andaman Sea are brought in by the sub-tropical easterly jet stream balancing over Peninsular India during the monsoon as well as during the October to November period. The depression moves along East to West direction thus hitting the Eastern coasts.

5. Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought- prone.
Answer:
This happens due to collision of rain bearing Arabian Sea branch of monsoon winds against the highly elevated Western Ghats and depletion of water there. Again, the Aravali hills, being not much elevated, the monsoon winds pass from there without causing rainfall.

Question 5.
Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.
Answer:
The regional variations in the climatic conditions of India can be understood in the following ways :
1. Temperature:
In summer, the temperature occasionally reaches 50°C in some parts of the Rajasthan’s desert area, whereas it may be around 20°C in Pahalgam in Jammu and Kashmir. On a winter night, temperature at Drass in Jammu and Kashmir may be as low as – 45°C, while Thiruvananthapuram, on the other hand, may have a temperature of 22°G.

2. Rainfall:
Most parts of the country receive rainfall from June to September, but some parts like Tamil Nadu coast get a large portion of rainfall during October and November. The annual precipitation also varies from over 400 cm in Meghalaya to less than 10 cm in Ladakh and Western Rajasthan.

3. Form of precipitation:
While precipitation is mostly in the form of snowfall in the upper parts of Himalayas, it rains over the rest of the country.

4. Direction of winds:
During summer, winds move from sea to land, while during winter, winds move from land to sea.

Question 6.
Discuss the mechanism of monsoon.
Answer:
The monsoons are experienced in the tropical areas roughly between 20°N and 20°S. To understand the mechanism of the monsoon, the following facts are important:

1. The differential heating and cooling of land and water creates low pressure on the landmass of India, while the seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
2. The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the Ganga plain (this is the equitorial trough normally positioned about 5° N of the equator. It is also known as the monsoon trough during the monsoon season.)
3. The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S over the Indian Ocean. The intensity and position of this high-pressure area affects the Indian monsoon.
4. The Tibetan plateau get intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level.
5. The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula during summer.

Question 7.
Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.
Answer:
Weather Conditions of the Cold Season: An account of weather conditions of the cold season is as followin :
1. Time period of the cold season:
The cold weather season begins from mid-November in Northern India and stays till February. December and January are the coldest months in the Northern part of India.

2. Temperature:
The temperature decreases from south to the north. The average temperature of Chennai, on the eastern coast, is between 24°-25°C, while in the northern plains, it ranges between 10°-15°C. Days are warm and nights are cold. Frost is common in the north and the highest slopes of the Himalayas experience snowfall.

3. Winds:
During this season, the north-east trade winds prevail over the country, it is a dry season.

4. Rainfall:
Some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds as here they blow from sea to land.

5. Air pressure:
In the northern part of the country, a feeble high-pressure region develops, with light winds moving outwards from this area.

6. Cyclonic disturbances:
A characteristic feature of the cold weather season over the northern plains is the inflow of cyclonic disturbances from the west and the north-west. These low-pressure systems originate over the Mediterranean Sea and Western Asia and move into India, along with the westerly flow. They cause the much-needed winter rains over the plains and snow fall in the mountains.

7. Characteristics of the Cold Season:
Clear sky, pleasant weather, low temperature and humidity, high range of temperature, cool and slow northern winds are the main characteristics of this season.

Question 8
Give the characteristics and effects of the monsoon rainfall in India.
Answer:
Characteristics of the Monsoon Rainfall: Several characteristic features of the monsoon rainfall are the following :

1. Most of the country gets rainfall from south-west monsoons.
2. The rainfall from the monsoon winds is variable and quite undependable.
3. Much of the rainfall is received in 3-4 months.
4. The distribution of rainfall is highly uneven.
5. Indian rainfall is controlled by orography, i.e., most of the rainfall is caused due to the obstruction of moisture bearing winds.

Effects of the Monsoon Rainfall: The effects of the monsoon rainfall are as hereunder.
1. South-west monsoon does not cause rain regularly. Its amount also varies from year to year.

2. After heavy rainfall, there is decrease in its quantity. Sometimes, long duration of rainy season passes even without rains.

3. Cyclones at the head of the Bay of Bengal control the effectiveness of monsoon winds. From June to September, the number of cyclones is about 8. Intense cyclones give strength to Monsoon winds and helps in causing heavy rainfall, their less intensity causes dry spells.

4. Monsoon trough of low pressure situated over the north plains also affects the distribution of rainfall. The axis of the trough close to the Himalayas causes heavy rains in the mountains and floods in the plains resulting in a great loss to man and material.

5. Success or failure of agricultural crops depends on the amount of rainfall. Thus, Indian agriculture still remains ‘A Gamble to Monsoon’, though, we have tapped irrigation potential to a great extent.

Question 9.
On an outline map of India, show the following:
1. Areas receiving rainfall over 400 cm.
2. Areas receiving less than 20 cm of rainfall.
3. The direction of the south-west monsoon over India.
Answer:

1. Find out which songs, dances, festivals and special food preparations are associated with certain seasons in your region. Do they have some commonality with other regions of India?
Answer:
Students, do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

2. Collect photographs of typical rural houses, and clothing of people from different regions of India. Examine whether they reflect any relationship with the climatic condition and relief of the area.
Answer:
Students, do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

Question 1.
In table-I, the average mean monthly temperatures and amounts of rainfall of 10 representative stations have been given. It is for you to study on your own and convert them into ‘temperature and rainfall’ graphs. A glance at these visual representations will help you to grasp instantly the similarities and differences between them. One such graph (Figure 1) is already prepared for you. See if you can arrive at some broad generalisations about our diverse climatic conditions. We hope you are in for a great joy of learning. Do the following activities.

Answer:
Temperature and Rainfall graph are as shown below:

Question 2.
Re-arrange the 10 stations in two different sequences:
1. According to their distance from the equator.
2. According to their altitude above mean sea-level.
Answer:
1. According to their distance from the equator:

1. Thiruvananthapuram	8°29′ N
2. Bangalore	12°58′ N
3. Chennai	13°4′ N
4. Mumbai	19° N
5. Nagpur	21°9′ N
6. Kolkata	22°34′ N
7. Shillong	24°34′ N
8. Jodhpur	26° 18′ N
9. Delhi	29° N
10. Leh	34° N

2. According to their altitude above mean sea-level:

1. Kolkata	6 m
2. Chennai	7 m
3. Mumbai	11 m
4. Thiruvananthapuram	61 m
5. Delhi	219 m
6. Jodhpur	224 m
7. Nagpur	312 m
8. Bangalore	909 m
9. Shillong	1461 m
10. Leh	3506 m

Question 3.
1. Name two rainiest stations.
2. Name two driest stations.
3. Two stations with most equable climate.
4. Two stations with most extreme climate.
5. Two stations most influenced by the Arabian Sea branch of south-west monsoon.
6. Two stations most influenced by the Bay of Bengal branch of south-west monsoons.
7. Two stations influenced by both branches of the south-west monsoons.
8. Two stations influenced by retreating and north-east monsoons.
9. Two stations receiving winter showers from the western disturbances.
10. The two hottest stations in the months of :
(a) February
(b) April
(c) May
(d) June
Answer:

1. Two rainiest stations:
   (a) Shillong,
   (b) Mumbai.
2. Two driest stations:
   (a) Leh,
   (b) Jodhpur.
3. Two stations with most equable climate:
   (a) Mumbai,
   (b) Thiruvananthapuram
4. Two stations with most extreme climate:
   (a) Leh,
   (b) Jodhpur.
5. Two stations most influenced by the Arabian sea branch of south-west monsoons:
   (a) Mumbai,
   (b) Thirvananthapuram.
6. Two stations most influenced by the Bay of Bengal Branch of south-west monsoons:
   (a) Shillong,
   (b) Kolkata.
7. Two stations influenced by both branches:
   (a) Nagpur,
   (b) Delhi.
8. Two stations influenced by retreating and north-east monsoons:
   (a) Chennai,
   (b) Thiruvananthapuram.
9. Two stations receiving winter showers from the western disturbances:
   (a) Delhi,
   (b) Leh.
10. The two hottest stations in the month of:
    (a) February: Thiruvananthapuram and Chennai.
    (b) April: Nagpur and Chennai.
    (c) May: Nagpur and Delhi/Jodhpur.
    (d) June: Jodhpur and Delhi.

Question 4.
Now find out:
1. Why are Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong rainier in June than in July?
2. Why is July rainier in Mumbai than in Thiruvananthapuram?
3. Why are south-west monsoons less rainy in Chennai?
4. Why is Shillong rainier than Kolkata?
5. Why is Kolkata rainier in July than in June unlike Shillong which is rainier in June than in July?
6. Why does Delhi receive more rain than Jodhpur?
Answer:
1. Thiruvananthapuram is located in Kerala in the southernmost part of India. By early June, monsoon enters India from the south. One of the branches of monsoon winds, i.e., Bay of Bengal branch hits the hills located around Shillong and showers heavy rainfall. As Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong come first in the way of monsoon winds, they are more rainier in June than in July.

2. In the month of July, the monsoon winds pass from Thiruvananthapuram and enter the interior parts of India, thus, July is less rainier in this city. On the other hand, in Mumbai, the monsoon winds rising from Arabian Sea continuously cause rainfall due to the presence of Western Ghats.

3. The Bay of Bengal branch of south-west monsoons causes heavy rains in the western parts of Western Ghats. Chennai lies in the extremely east. When the monsoon winds reach over there, they become almost dry. Chennai lies in rain-shadow area of south-west monsoon.

4. Shillong is situated on hills which trap the monsoon winds and force them to cause rainfall. But Kolkata is situated in plains where monsoon winds reach comparatively late and there are no such hills which could trap the monsoon winds.

5. South-west monsoon first strikes Shillong and then Kolkata. Thus, Shillong receives more rainfall in June itself and as these winds move on to Kolkata, they start causing rainfall over there in July.

6. Delhi creates barrier in the path of south-west (Bay of Bengal branch) monsoon while Jodhpur does not create any resistance in the path of south-west (Arbian Sea Branch) monsoon.

Question 5.
Now think why:
1. Thiruvananthapuram has equable climate?
2. Chennai has more rains only after the fury of monsoon is over in most parts of the country?
3. Jodhpur has a hot desert type of climate?
4. Leh has moderate precipitation almost throughout the year?
5. While in Delhi and Jodhpur most of the rain is confined to nearly three months, in Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong it is almost nine months of the year? In spite of these facts see carefully if there are strong evidences to conclude that the monsoons still provide a very strong framework lending overall climatic unity to the whole country.
Answer:
1. Thiruvananthapuram has an equable climate because it is closer to the sea and its climate is moderated by the sea. Being close to the Equator, it is also influenced by the equatorial type of climate where the annual range of temperature happens to be the least.

2. Over the most parts of India, rainfall occurs due to south-west monsoon winds. These winds start retreating in September to October months. At this time, north-east trade winds blow all over India. These winds receive vapour while moving over the Bay of Bengal which immediately carry to the Coromandel coast in Tamil Nadu. Thus, Chennai receives heavy rain during winter season.

3. Jodhpur falls in the rain shadow area and it is situated near to the Thar desert. This station has, therefore, extreme climate. There is also scarce of vegetation. Thus, it has a hot desert type of climate.

4. Leh is situated on the high altitude in Ladakh. Thus, we can see here the precipitation in the form of snow. The lowest temperature also freezes the water. Therefore, Leh has moderate precipitation almost throughout the year.

5. Delhi and Jodhpur are located in the interior parts of country where monsoon winds reach comparatively late. On the other hand, Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong are located on the sea coast where monsoon winds strike first and cause heavy rainfall.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Solutions

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 14 Statistics Ex 14.1 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 14 Statistics Exercise 14.1

Question 1.
A survey was conducted by a group of students as a part of their environment awareness programme, in which they collected the following data regarding the number of plants in 20 houses in a locality. Find the mean number of plants per house.

Which method did you use for finding the mean, and why?
Solution:

Question 2.
Consider the following distribution of daily wages of 50 workers of a factory:

Find the mean daily wages of the workers of the factory by using an appropriate method.
Solution:

Question 3.
The following distribution shows the daily pocket allowance of children of a locality. The mean pocket allowance is Rs. 18. Find the missing frequency f.

Solution:

752 + 20f = 792 + 18.1
20f – 18f = 792 – 752
2f = 40
f = \(\frac{40}{2}\) = 20.

Question 4.
Thirty women were examined in a hospital by a doctor and the number of heartbeats per minute were recorded and summarised as follows. Find the mean heart beats per minute for these women, choosing a suitable method.

Solution:

Question 5.
In a retail market, fruit vendors were selling mangoes kept in packing boxes. These boxes contained varying number of mangoes. The following was the distribution of mangoes according to the number of boxes:

Find the mean number of mangoes kept in a packing box. Which method of finding the mean did you choose?
Solution:

Question 6.
The table below shows the daily expenditure on food of 25 households in a locality.

Find the mean daily expenditure on food by a suitable method.
Solution:

Question 7.
To find out the concentration of SO₂ in the air (in parts per million, i.e., ppm), the data was collected for 30 localities in a certain city and is presented below:

Concentration of SO2 (in ppm)	Frequency
0.00 – 0.04	4
0.04 – 0.08	9
0.08 – 0.12	9
0.12 – 0.16	2
0.16 – 0.20	4
0.20 – 0.24	2

Find the mean concentration of SO₂ in the air.
Solution:

Mean concentration of SO₂ in air = 0.099 ppm

Question 8.
A class teacher has the following absentee record of 40 students of a class for the whole term. Find the mean number of days a student was absent.

Solution:


Mean number of days a student was absent is 12.48.

Question 9.
The following table gives the literacy rate (in percentage) of 35 cities. Find the mean literacy rate.

Solution:

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Who are the pastoral nomadic communities of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Raikas
(b) Gaddhi shepherds
(c) Gujjar Backarwals
(d) Bhotiyas.
Answer:
(c) Gujjar Backarwals

2. The Dhangar shepherds stayed in the central plateau of Maharasthra during the :
(a) monsoon
(b) winter
(c) autumn
(d) summer.
Answer:
(a) monsoon

3. When did the colonial government in India passed the Criminal Tribes Act?
(a) 1871
(b) In 1879
(c) In 1840
(d) In 1947
Answer:
(a) 1871

4. Where do the Massai cattle herders reside?
(a) West Africa
(b) East Africa
(c) South Africa
(d) North America
Answer:
(b) East Africa

5. Where is Samburu National Park located?
(a) Uganda
(b) Tanganyika
(c) Kenya
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Kenya

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who are nomadic pastoralists?
Answer:
Nomadic pastoralists are people who move from one place to another with their herds to earn a living.

Question 2.
What is a pasture?
Answer:
It is grass or other plants grown for feeding or grazing animals, as well as land used for grazing.

Question 3.
Write the most significant feature of nomadic pastoralists.
Answer:
The most significant feature of nomadic pastoralists is their cycle of seasonal movement.

Question 4.
List some pastoral communities of the Himalayas.
Answer:
Gujjar Bakarwals, Gaddi shepherds, Bhotiyas, Sherpas and Kinnauris.

Question 5.
Where did the Gujjar herders stay in winters and summers?
Answer:
The Gujjar herders, in winters, came down to the dry forests of the Bhabar, and in summers, they went up to the high meadows i.e., the Bugyals.

Question 6.
What is Bhabar?
Answer:
Bhabar is a dry forested area below the foothills of Garhwal and Kumaun.

Question 7.
Who are Bugyals?
Answer:
Bugyals are the vast meadows in the high mountains.

Question 8.
In which state Dhangars are found?
Answer:
Dhangars are an important pastoral community of Maharashtra.

Question 9.
Why are the Konkani peasants welcome by Dhangar shepherds?
Answer:

1. Dhangar flocks manure the fields.
2. The animals feed on the stubble of the Kharif crop.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Sanskrit Solutions Shemushi Chapter 1 शुचिपर्यावरणम् Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10th Sanskrit Solutions Shemushi Chapter 1 शुचिपर्यावरणम्

JAC Class 10th Sanskrit शुचिपर्यावरणम् Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न 1.
एकपदेन उत्तरं लिखत। (एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए।)
(क) अत्र जीवितं कीदृशं जातम्? (यहाँ जीवन कैसा हो गया है?)
(ख) अनिशं महानगरमध्ये किं प्रचलति? (दिन-रात महानगर में क्या चलता है?)
(ग) कुत्सितवस्तुमिश्रितं किमस्ति? (खराब वस्तु मिलावट वाला क्या है?)।
(घ) अहं कस्मै जीवनं कामये? (मैं किसके लिये जीवन की कामना करता हूँ?)
(ङ) केषां माला रमणीया? (किसकी माला सुन्दर है?)
उत्तरम् :
(क) दुर्वहम् (दूभर)।
(ख) कालायसचक्रम् (लोहे का पहिया)।
(ग) भक्ष्यम् (भोजन)।
(घ) मानवाय (मनुष्य के लिये)।
(ङ) हरिततरूणां ललितलतानाम् (हरे वृक्षों और सुन्दर बेलों की।)

प्रश्न 2.
अधोलिखितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतभाषया लिखत (निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए)
(क) कविः किमर्थं प्रकृतेः शरणम् इच्छति ?
(कवि किसलिए प्रकृति की शरण चाहता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
कवि महानगरस्य दुर्वहं जीवनं दृष्ट्वा तस्मात् भीत: शुद्धपर्यावरणाय प्रकृतेः शरणम् इच्छति।
(कवि महानगर के दुष्कर जीवन को देखकर उससे डरा हुआ शुद्ध पर्यावरण के लिए प्रकृति की शरण में जाना चाहता है।)।

(ख) कस्मात् कारणात् महानगरेषु संसरणं कठिनं वर्तते ?
(किस कारण से महानगरों में विचरण कठिन हो गया है ?)
उत्तरम् :
अहर्निशं लौहचक्रस्य सञ्चरणात् यानानां बाहुल्यात् च महानगरेषु संसरणं कठिनं वर्तते।
(दिन-रात लौहचक्र के घूमने से तथा वाहनों की बहुलता के कारण महानगरों में चलना कठिन है।)

(ग) अस्माकं पर्यावरणे किं किं दूषितम् अस्ति ?
(हमारे पर्यावरण में क्या क्या दूषित है ?)
उत्तरम् :
अस्माकं पर्यावरणे वायुमण्डलं, जलं, भक्ष्यं, धरातलं च दूषितम् अस्ति।
(हमारे पर्यावरण में वायुमण्डल, जल, खाद्य पदार्थ और पृथ्वी दूषित हैं।)

(घ) कविः कुत्र संचरणं कर्तुम् इच्छति ?
(कवि कहाँ विचरण (भ्रमण) करना चाहता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
कविः ग्रामान्ते एकान्ते कान्तारे सञ्चरणं कर्तुम् इच्छति।
(कवि गाँव के बाहर एकान्त वन में भ्रमण करना चाहता है।)

(ङ) स्वस्थजीवनाय कीदृशे वातावरणे भ्रमणीयम् ?
(स्वस्थ जीवन के लिए कैसे वातावरण में घूमना चाहिए ?)
उत्तरम् :
स्वस्थजीवनाय शुचि-वातावरणे (पर्यावरणे) भ्रमणीयम्।
(स्वस्थ जीवन के लिए शुद्ध वातावरण में घूमना चाहिए।)

(च) अन्तिमे पद्यांशे कवेः का कामना अस्ति ?
(अन्तिम पद्यांश में कवि की कामना क्या है ?)
उत्तरम् :
अन्तिमे पद्यांशे कवेः कामना अस्ति यत् निसर्गे पाषाणी सभ्यता समाविष्टा न स्यात्।।
(अन्तिम पद्यांश में कवि की कामना है कि प्रकृति में पाषाण युग की सभ्यता का समावेश न हो।)

प्रश्न 3.
सन्धिं/सन्धिविच्छेदं कुरुत –
(सन्धि/सन्धिविच्छेद कीजिए)
(क) प्रकृतिः + …………… = प्रकृतिरेव।
(ख) स्यात् + …….. + …………….. = स्यान्नैव।
(ग) …….. + अनन्ताः = ह्यनन्ताः।
(घ) बहिः + अन्तः + जगति = ……..।
(ङ) …….. + नगरात् = अस्मान्नगरात्।
(च) सम् + चरणम् = ……..।
(छ) धूमम् + मुञ्चति = ……..।
उत्तरम् :
(क) प्रकृतिः + एव = प्रकृतिरेव।
(ख) स्यात् + न + एव = स्यान्नैव।
(ग) हि + अनन्ताः = ह्यनन्ताः।
(घ) बहिः + अन्तः + जगति = बहिरन्तर्जगति।
(ङ) अस्मात् + नगरात् = अस्मान्नगरात्।
(च) सम् + चरणम् = सञ्चरणम्।
(छ) धूमम् + मुञ्चति = धूमं मुञ्चति।

प्रश्न 4.
अधोलिखितानाम् अव्ययानां सहायतया रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत –
(निम्नलिखित अव्ययों की सहायता से रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए)
भृशम्, यत्र, तत्र, अत्र, अपि, एव, सदा, बहिः
(क) इदानी वायुमण्डलं ………….. प्रदूषितमस्ति।
(ख) ………… जीवनं दुर्वहम् अस्ति।
(ग) प्राकृतिक वातावरणे क्षणं सञ्चरणम् …….. लाभदायकं भवति।
(घ) पर्यावरणस्य संरक्षणम् ………. प्रकृतेः आराधना।
(ङ) ………. समयस्य सदुपयोगः करणीयः।
(च) भूकम्पित-समये ………….. गमनमेव उचितं भवति।
(छ) ……………… हरीतिमा …………. शुचि पर्यावरणम्।
उत्तरम् :
(क) इदानी वायुमण्डलं भृशं प्रदूषितमस्ति। (अब वायुमण्डल अत्यधिक प्रदूषित है।)
(ख) अत्र जीवनं दुर्वहम् अस्ति। (यहाँ जीवन दूभर है।)
(ग) प्राकृतिकवातावरणे क्षणं सञ्चरणम् अपि लाभदायकं भवति। (प्राकृतिक वातावरण में क्षणभर घूमना भी लाभदायक होता है।)
(घ) पर्यावरणस्य संरक्षणम् एव प्रकृते: आराधना। (पर्यावरण का संरक्षण ही प्रकृति की आराधना है।)
(ङ) सदा समयस्य सदुपयोगः करणीयः। (सदा समय का सदुपयोग करना चाहिए।)
(च) भूकम्पित-समये बहिः गमनमेव उचितं भवति। (भूकम्प के समय में बाहर जाना ही उचित है।)
(छ) यत्र हरीतिमा तत्र शुचि पर्यावरणम्। (जहाँ हरियाली है वहाँ शुद्ध पर्यावरण है।)

प्रश्न 5.
(अ) अधोलिखितानां पदानां पर्यायपदं लिखत –
(निम्नलिखित शब्दों के पर्याय शब्द लिखिए)
(क) सलिलम्
(ख) आम्रम्
(ग) वनम्
(घ) शारीरम्
(ङ) कुटिलम्
(च) पाषाणम्।
उत्तरम् :
(क) सलिलम् = जलम्
(ख) आम्रम् = रसालम्
(ग) वनम् = काननम् (कान्तारम्)
(घ) शरीरम् = तनुः (देहम्)
(ङ) कुटिलम् = वक्रम्
(च) पाषाणाम् = प्रस्तरम्।

(आ) अधोलिखितापदानां विलोमपदानि पाठात् चित्वा लिखत।
(निम्नलिखित पदों के विलोम पद पाठ से चुनकर लिखिये।)
पद – विलोमपद
(क) सुकरम् – दुष्करम्
(ख) दूषितम् – शुचि
(ग) गृह्णन्ती – वितरन्ती
(घ) निर्मलम् – समलम्
(ङ) दानवाय – मानवाय
(च) सान्ताः – अनन्ताः

प्रश्न 6.
उदाहरणमनुसृत्य पाठत् चित्वा समस्तपदानि समासनाम च लिखत –
(उदाहरण के अनुसार पाठ से चुनकर समस्त पद तथा समास का नाम लिखिए)

उत्तरम् :
(ख) हरिततरूणाम् (कर्मधारय)
(ग) ललितलतानाम् (कर्मधारय)
(घ) नवमालिका (कर्मधारय)
(ङ) धृतसुखसन्देशम् (बहुव्रीहि)
(च) कज्जलमलिनम् (कर्मधारय)
(छ) दुर्दान्तदशनैः (कर्मधारय)।

प्रश्न 7.
रेखाङ्कितपदमाधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत –
(रेखांकित शब्द के आधार पर प्रश्न बनाइए)
(क) शकटीयानम् कज्जलमलिनं धूमं मुञ्चति।
(मोटरगाड़ी काजल की तरह मलिन धुआँ छोड़ती है।)
(ख) उद्याने पक्षिणां कलरवं चेतः प्रसादयति।
(उद्यान में पक्षियों का कलरव चित्त को प्रसन्न करता है।)
(ग) पाषाणीसभ्यतायां लतातरुगुल्माः प्रस्तरतले पिष्टाः सन्ति।
(पाषाणकालीन सभ्यता में बेल, वक्ष, झाडियाँ पत्थरों के नीचे पिसी हैं।)
(घ) महानगरेषु वाहनानाम् अनन्ताः पङ्क्तयः धावन्ति।
(महानगरों में वाहनों की असीम पंक्तियाँ दौड़ती हैं।)
(ङ) प्रकृत्याः सन्निधौ वास्तविकं सुखं विद्यते।
(प्रकृति के सामीप्य में वास्तविक सुख है।)
उत्तरम् :
(क) शकटीयानं कीदृशं धूमं मुञ्चति ?
(मोटरगाड़ी कैसा धुआँ छोड़ती है ?)
(ख) उद्याने केषां कलरवं चेतः प्रसादयति ?
(उद्यान में किनका कलरव चित्त को प्रसन्न करता है?)
(ग) पाषाणीसभ्यतायां के प्रस्तरतले पिष्टाः सन्ति ?
(पाषाणकालीन सभ्यता में कौन पत्थर के नीचे पिसे हैं?)
(घ) कुत्र वाहनानाम् अनन्ताः पङ्क्तयः धावन्ति ?
(कहाँ वाहनों की असीम पंक्तियाँ दौड़ती हैं ?)
(ङ) कस्याः सन्निधौ वास्तविकं सुखं विद्यते ?
(किसके सामीप्य में वास्तविक सुख है ?)

योग्यताविस्तार :

समास – समसनं समासः

समास का शाब्दिक अर्थ होता है – संक्षेप। दो या दो से अधिक शब्दों के मिलने से जो नया और संक्षिप्त रूप बनता है, वह समास कहलाता है। समास के मुख्यतः चार भेद हैं –

1. अव्ययीभाव
2. तत्पुरुष
3. बहुव्रीहि
4. द्वन्द्व

1. अव्ययीभाव – 

इस समास में पहला पद अव्यय होता है और वही प्रधान होता है और समस्तपद अव्यय बन जाता है।
यथा – निर्मक्षिकम्-मक्षिकाणाम् अभावः।
यहाँ प्रथमपद निर् है और द्वितीयपद मक्षिकम् है। यहाँ मक्षिका की प्रधानता न होकर मक्षिका का अभाव प्रधान है, अतः यहाँ अव्ययीभाव समास है। कुछ अन्य उदाहरण देखें –

1. उपग्रामम् – ग्रामस्य समीपे – (समीपता की प्रधानता)
2. निर्जनम् – जनानाम् अभावः – (अभाव की प्रधानता)
3. अनुरथम् – रथस्य पश्चात् – (पश्चात् की प्रधानता)
4. प्रतिगृहम् – गृहं गृहं प्रति – (प्रत्येक की प्रधानता)
5. यथाशक्ति – शक्तिम् अनतिक्रम्य – (सीमा की प्रधानता)
6. सचक्रम् – चक्रेण सहितम् – (सहित की प्रधानता)

2. तत्पुरुष –

‘प्रायेण उत्तरपदार्थप्रधानः तत्पुरुषः’ इस समास में प्रायः उत्तरपद की प्रधानता होती है और पूर्व पद उत्तरपद के विशेषण का कार्य करता है। समस्तपद में पूर्वपद की विभक्ति का लोप हो जाता है।
यथा – राजपुरुषः अर्थात् राजा का पुरुष। यहाँ राजा की प्रधानता न होकर पुरुष की प्रधानता है।

1. ग्रामगतः – ग्रामं गतः।
2. शरणागतः – शरणम् आगतः।
3. देशभक्तः, – देशस्य भक्तः।
4. सिंहभीतः – सिंहात् भीतः।
5. भयापनः – भयम् आपन्नः।
6. हरित्रातः – हरिणा त्रातः। तत्पुरुष समास के दो प्रमुख भेद हैं-कर्मधारय और द्विगु।

(ii) कर्मधारय – इस समास में एक पद विशेष्य तथा दूसरा पद पहले पद का विशेषण होता है। विशेषण विशेष्य भाव के अतिरिक्त उपमान उपमेय भाव भी कर्मधारय समास का लक्षण है।
यथा – पीताम्बरम् – पीतं च तत् अम्बरम्।
महापुरुषः – महान् च असौ पुरुषः।
कज्जलमलिनम् – कज्जलम् इव मलिनम्।
नीलकमलम् – नीलं च तत् कमलम्।
मीननयनम् – मीन इव नयनम्।
मुखकमलम् – कमलम् इव मुखम्।

(ii) द्विगु- ‘संख्यापूर्वो द्विगुः’ इस समास में पहला पद संख्यावाची होता है और समाहार (एकत्रीकरण या समूह) अर्थ की प्रधानता होती है।
यथा – त्रिभुजम् – त्रयाणां भुजानां समाहारः। इसमें पूर्वपद ‘त्रि’ संख्यावाची है।
पंचपात्रम् – पंचानां पात्राणां समाहारः।
पंचवटी – पंचानां वटानां समाहारः।
सप्तर्षिः . – सप्तानां ऋषीणां समाहारः।
चतुर्युगम् – चतुर्णा युगानां समाहारः।

3. बहुव्रीहि –

‘अन्यपदार्थप्रधानः बहुब्रीहिः’ इस समास में पूर्व तथा उत्तर पदों की प्रधानता न होकर किसी अन्य पद की प्रधानता होती है।

यथा –
पीताम्बरः – पीतम् अम्बरम् यस्य सः (विष्णुः)। यहाँ न तो पीतम् शब्द की प्रधानता है और न अम्बरम्
शब्द की अपितु पीताम्बरधारी किसी अन्य व्यक्ति (विष्णु) की प्रधानता है।
नीलकण्ठः – नीलः कण्ठः यस्य सः (शिवः)।
दशाननः – दश आननानि यस्य सः (रावण:)।
अनेककोटिसारः – अनेककोटिः सारः (धनम्) यस्य सः।
विगलितसमृद्धिम् – विगलिता समृद्धिः यस्य तम् (पुरुषम्)।
प्रक्षालितपादम् – प्रक्षालितौ पादौ यस्य तम् (जनम्)।

4. द्वन्द्व –

‘उभयपदार्थप्रधानः द्वन्द्वः’ इस समास में पूर्वपद और उत्तरपद दोनों की समान रूप से प्रधानता होती है। पदों के बीच में ‘च’ का प्रयोग विग्रह में होता है।
यथा –
रामलक्ष्मणौ – रामश्च लक्ष्मणश्च।
पितरौ – माता च पिता च।
धर्मार्थकाममोक्षाः – धर्मश्च, अर्थश्च, कामश्च, मोक्षश्च।
वसन्तग्रीष्मशिशिरा: – वसन्तश्च ग्रीष्मश्च शिशिरश्च।

भावविस्तार –

पर्यावरण-परिभाषा – ‘आवियते परितः लोकोऽनेनेति पर्यावरणम्’ [चूँकि इसके द्वारा लोक को ढका (घेरा या आच्छादित किया) जाता है अतः पर्यावरण कहलाता है।
पृथ्वी, जल, तेज, वायु और आकाश ये पाँच महाभूत प्रकृति के प्रमुख तत्त्व हैं। इन पाँच तत्त्वों से ही पर्यावरण की रचना होती है। जो चारों ओर से लोक को घेरता या आच्छादित करता (ढकता) है, वह पर्यावरण है।
शुद्ध और प्रदूषणरहित पर्यावरण हमें सब प्रकार के जीवन के सुख देता है। हमारे द्वारा सदैव ऐसे प्रयत्न किए जाने चाहिए जिससे जल, स्थल और आकाश निर्मल हों। पर्यावरण सम्बन्धी कुछ श्लोक नीचे लिखे हुए हैं –

यथा – पृथिवीं परितो व्याप्य तामाच्छाद्य स्थितं च यत्।
जगदाधाररूपेण, पर्यावरणमुच्यते।।

अनुवाद – जगत् के आधार के रूप में पृथ्वी के चारों ओर व्याप्त और उसको घेरकर जो स्थित है, पर्यावरण कहलाता है।

प्रदूषण के विषय में –

सृष्टौ स्थितौ विनाशे च नृविज्ञैर्बहुनाशकम्।
पञ्चतत्त्वविरुद्धं यत्साधितं तत्प्रदूषणम्।।

अनुवाद – सृष्टि की स्थिति और विनाश में बुद्धिमान् मनुष्यों द्वारा पंचतत्त्वों के विरुद्ध बहुत अधिक विनाशकारी जो साधा जाता है अर्थात् किया जाता है, वह प्रदूषण है।

वायुप्रदूषण के विषय में –

प्रक्षिप्तो वाहनधूमः कृष्णे बह्वपकारकः।
दुष्टैरसायनैर्युक्तो घातकः श्वासरुग्वहः।।

अनुवाद – वाहनों द्वारा फेंके गए (निकाले गए) काले धुएँ में घातक हानिकारक रसायनों से युक्त बहुत-से अपशिष्ट श्वास रोगों के वाहक होते हैं।

जल-प्रदूषण के विषय में –

यन्त्रशाला परित्यक्तैर्नगरे दूषितद्रवैः।
नदीनदौ समुदाश्च प्रक्षिप्तैर्दूषणं गताः।।

अनुवाद – कारखानों द्वारा छोड़े गए और नगरों के दूषित द्रवों (जलों) के नदी, नालों और समुद्रों में डाले जाने के द्वारा (फेंकने से) इनके जल दूषित किए जाते हैं।

प्रदूषण-निवारण एवं संरक्षण के लिए –

शोधनं रोपणं रक्षावर्धनं वायुवारिणः।
वनानां वन्यवस्तूनां भूमेः संरक्षणं वरम्।।

अनुवाद – वायु, जल की शुद्धि, वन्यवस्तुओं तथा भूमि के संरक्षण के लिए वनों का लगाना तथा रक्षापूर्वक उनकी वृद्धि करना श्रेष्ठ उपाय है।
ये पाँचों श्लोक पर्यावरण काव्य से संकलित हैं।
तत्सम-तद्भव शब्दों का अध्ययन

निम्नलिखित तत्सम और उनसे बने तद्भव शब्दों का परिचय करने योग्य है –

छन्द-परिचय – इस गीत में शुद्ध पर्यावरण स्थायी तत्त्व है। इसके अतिरिक्त सब स्थानों पर प्रत्येक पंक्ति में 26 मात्राएँ हैं। यह गीतिका छन्द का रूप है।

JAC Class 10th Sanskrit शुचिपर्यावरणम् Important Questions and Answers

शब्दार्थ चयनम् –

अधोलिखित वाक्येषु रेखांकित पदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थ चित्वा लिखत –

प्रश्न 1.
दुर्वहमत्र जीवितं जातं प्रकृतिरेव शरणम्।
(अ) जातम्
(ब) दुष्करम्
(स) कालायसचक्रम्
(द) दुर्दान्तैः
उत्तरम् :
(ब) दुष्करम्

प्रश्न 2.
मनः शोषयत् तनुः पेषयद् भ्रमति सदा वक्रम –
(अ) कुटिलम्
(ब) अमुना
(स) वक्रम्
(द) पेषयद
उत्तरम् :
(अ) कुटिलम्

प्रश्न 3.
कज्जलमलिनं धूमं मुञ्चति शतशकटीयानम् –
(अ) ध्वानम्
(ब) वाष्पयानमाला
(स) त्यजति
(द) संधावति
उत्तरम् :
(स) त्यजति

प्रश्न 4.
यानानां पङ्क्तयो ह्यनन्ताः, कठिनं संसरणम् –
(अ) यानानाम्
(ब) अनन्ताः
(स) शरणं
(द) संचलनम्
उत्तरम् :
(द) संचलनम्

प्रश्न 5.
कुत्सितवस्तुमिश्रितं भक्ष्यं समलं धरातलम्।
(अ) अशुद्धम्
(ब) भृशम्
(स) मिश्रितम्
(द) शुद्धीकरणम्
उत्तरम् :
(अ) अशुद्धम्

प्रश्न 6.
प्रपश्यामि ग्रामान्ते निर्झर-नदी-पयःपूरम् –
(अ) कान्तारे
(ब) ग्रामान्ते
(स) प्रपात
(द) नगरात
उत्तरम् :
(स) प्रपात

प्रश्न 7.
कुसुमावलिः समीरचालिता स्यान्मे वरणीया –
(अ) पुष्पाणां पंक्तिः
(ब) ललितलतानाम्
(स) कुसुमावलिः
(द) नवमालिका
उत्तरम् :
(अ) पुष्पाणां पंक्तिः

प्रश्न 8.
अयि चल बन्धो ! खगकुलकलरव गुञ्जितवनदेशम् –
(अ) जनेभ्यः
(ब) गुञ्जित
(स) कान्तार प्रदेश
(द) खगकलकलरव
उत्तरम् :
(स) कान्तार प्रदेश

प्रश्न 9.
प्रस्तरतले लतातरुगुल्मा नो भवन्तु पिष्टाः –
(अ) लतातरुगुल्माः
(ब) दमिता
(स) निसर्गे
(द) समाविष्टाः
उत्तरम् :
(ब) दमिता

प्रश्न 10.
पाषाणी सभ्यता निसर्गे स्यान्न समाविष्टा –
(अ) कामये
(ब) मानवाय
(स) पर्यावरणम्
(द) प्रकृती
उत्तरम् :
(स) पर्यावरणम्

II. संस्कृतमाध्यमेन प्रश्नोत्तराणि –

एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिए)

प्रश्न 1.
कालायसचक्रं किं शोषयति ?
(लौहचक्र किसका शोषण करता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
मनः (मन का)।

प्रश्न 2.
दुर्दान्तैः दशनैः केन जनग्रसनं न स्यात् ?
(किसके विकराल दाँतों द्वारा लोगों का विनाश न हो?)
उत्तरम् :
कालायसचक्रेण
(लौहचक्र द्वारा)।

प्रश्न 3.
धावन्ती वाष्पयानमाला किं वितरति ?
(दौड़ती रेलगाड़ियों की माला क्या वितरण करती है ?)
उत्तरम् :
ध्वानम्
(शोर)।

प्रश्न 4.
कज्जलमलिनं धूमं किं मुञ्चति ?
(काजल-सा काला धुआँ कौन त्यागती है ?)
उत्तरम् :
शतशकटीयानम्
(सैकड़ों मोटरगाड़ियाँ)।

प्रश्न 5.
‘अनन्ताः’ कस्य पदस्य विशेषणम् ?
(‘अनन्ताः’ किस शब्द का विशेषण है ?)
उत्तरम् :
पङ्क्तयः
(पंक्तियाँ)।

प्रश्न 6.
कुत्सितवस्तु मिश्रितं किम् ?
(गंदी वस्तुओं से मिश्रित क्या है ?)
उत्तरम् :
भक्ष्यम्
(खाद्य)।

प्रश्न 7.
बहिरन्तर्जगति किं बहुकरणीयम् ?
(बाह्य और आन्तरिक जगत में क्या बहुत करना है ?)
उत्तरम् :
शुद्धीकरणम्
(शुद्धीकरण)।

प्रश्न 8.
कविः कुतः बहुदूरं गन्तुम् इच्छति ?
(कवि कहाँ से बहुत दूर जाना चाहता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
नगरात्
(नगर से)।

प्रश्न 9.
‘माम् नगरात् बहुदूरं नय’ इति वाक्ये सर्वनामपदं लिखत।
(‘माम् नगरात् बहुदूरं नय’ इस वाक्य में सर्वनाम पद लिखिए।)
उत्तरम् :
माम् (मुझे)।

प्रश्न 10.
नवमालिका के मिलिता रुचिरं प्रतिभाति ?
(नवमल्लिका किससे मिली सुन्दर लगती है ?)
उत्तरम् :
रसालम् (आम से)।

प्रश्न 11.
कुसुमावलिः केन चालिता मे वरणीया?
(किसके द्वारा संचालित फूलों की पंक्ति मेरे द्वारा वरण करने योग्य
उत्तरम् :
समीरेण (हवा द्वारा)।

प्रश्न 12.
जनाः केन सम्भ्रमिता: ?
(लोग किससे भ्रमित हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
पुरकलरवेण (नगर के कोलाहल से)।

प्रश्न 13.
किं जीवितरसहरणम् ?
(जीवन के आनन्द रस का हरण करने वाला क्या है ?)
उत्तरम् :
चाकचिक्यजालम् (चकाचौंध करने वाला जगत्)।

प्रश्न 14.
का निसर्गे न समाविष्टा स्यात् ?
(प्रकृति में किसका समावेश न हो ?)
उत्तरम् :
पाषाणी सभ्यता (पाषाणकालीन सभ्यता)।

प्रश्न 15.
‘पाषाणी’ पदस्य विशेष्यं लिखत।
(‘पाषाणी’ पद का विशेष्य लिखिए।)
उत्तरम् :
सभ्यता।

प्रश्न 16.
‘मानवाय जीवनं कामये’ अत्र क्रियापदं किम् ?
(‘मानवाय जीवनं कामये’ यहाँ क्रियापद क्या है ?)
उत्तरम् :
कामये (चाहता हूँ)।

प्रश्न 17.
कुत्र दुर्वहम् जीवितम् ?
(जीना दूभर कहाँ है ?)
उत्तरम् :
महानगरमध्ये (महानगर के बीच में)।

प्रश्न 18.
अनिशं किं चलति?
(दिन-रात क्या चलता है?)
उत्तरम् :
कालायसचक्रम् (लोहे का पहिया)।

प्रश्न 19.
धूमं कीदृशम् अस्ति ?
(धुओँ कैसा है ?)
उत्तरम् :
कज्जलमलिनम् (काजल-सा काला)।

प्रश्न 20.
ध्वानं वितरन्ती का धावति ?
(शोर करती क्या दौड़ती है ?)
उत्तरम् :
वाष्पयानमाला (रेलगाड़ियों की माला)।

प्रश्न 21.
वायुमण्डलं कीदृशम् ?
(वायुमण्डल कैसा है?)
उत्तरम् :
दूषितम् (दूषित)।

प्रश्न 22.
धरातलं कीदृशम् अस्ति ?
(धरातल कैसा है ?)
उत्तरम् :
समलम् (मलिन)।

प्रश्न 23.
कविः निर्झर नदी-पयः पूरं कुत्र पश्यति ?
(कवि जल से भरे नदी-झरना कहाँ देखता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
ग्रामान्ते (गाँव की सीमा पर)।

प्रश्न 24.
कविः कीदृशे कान्तारे सञ्चरणम् इच्छति ?
(कवि कैसे वनप्रदेश में घूमना चाहता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
एकान्ते (एकान्त में)।

प्रश्न 25.
हरिततरूणां माला कीदृशी ?
(हरे वृक्षों की माला कैसी है?)
उत्तरम् :
रमणीया (सुन्दर)।

प्रश्न 26.
का समीरचालिता मे वरणीया स्यात् ?
(वायु से हिलाई गई मेरे वरण करने योग्य क्या हो ?)
उत्तरम् :
कुसुमावलिः (फूलों की पंक्ति)।

प्रश्न 27.
हरिततरूणां माला कीदृशी ?
(हरे वृक्षों की माला कैसी है?)
उत्तरम् :
रमणीया (सुन्दर)।

प्रश्न 28.
का समीरचालिता मे वरणीया स्यात् ?
(वायु से हिलाई गई मेरे वरण करने योग्य क्या हो ?)
उत्तरम् :
कुसुमावलिः (फूलों की पंक्ति)।

प्रश्न 29.
वनदेशं केन गुञ्जितम् ?
(वनप्रदेश किससे गुंजित है ?)
उत्तरम् :
खगकलरवेण (पक्षियों के कलरव से)।

प्रश्न 30.
अत्र केभ्यः सुख सन्देशम् ?
(यहाँ सुख का सन्देश किनके लिए है ?)
उत्तरम् :
सम्भ्रमितजनेभ्यः (भ्रमित लोगों के लिए)।

प्रश्न 31.
कविः कस्मै जीवनं कामयते ?
(कवि किसके जीवन की कामना करता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
मानवाय (मानव के)।

प्रश्न 32.
लतातरुगुल्माः कस्य तले न पिष्टाः भवन्तु ?
(बेलों और पेड़ों के समूह किसके नीचे नहीं पिसें ?)
उत्तरम् :
प्रस्तरतले (पत्थर के नीचे)।
पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत (पूरे वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)

प्रश्न 33.
कालायसचक्रं किं किं करोति. ?
(लौहचक्र क्या-क्या करता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
कालायसचक्रं मनः शोषयति तनुः च पेषयति।
(लौहचक्र मन का शोषण करता है और शरीर को पीसता है।)

प्रश्न 34.
नगरेषु किं किं प्रदूषितम् भवति ?
(नगरों में क्या-क्या प्रदूषित होता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
नगरेषु वायुमण्डलं, जलं, भोजनं धरातलं च दूषितं भवति।
(नगरों में वायुमण्डल, जल, भोजन और धरती दूषित होती है।)

प्रश्न 35.
ग्रामान्ते कविः किं पश्यति?
(गाँव की सीमा पर कवि क्या देखता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
ग्रामान्ते कविः निर्झर-नदी-पयः पूरं पश्यति।
(गाँव की सीमा पर कवि नदी, झरने जल से परिपूर्ण देखता है।)

प्रश्न 36.
केषां माला रमणीया ?
(किनकी माला सुन्दर है ?)
उत्तरम :
हरिततरूणां ललितलतानां माला रमणीया।
(हरे वृक्षों और सुन्दर बेलों की पंक्ति रमणीय है।)

प्रश्न 37.
अत्र जीवितं कीदृशं जातम् ?
(यहाँ जीवन कैसा हो गया है?)
उत्तरम् :
अत्र जीवितं दुर्वहं जातम्।
(यहाँ जीवन दूभर हो गया है।)

प्रश्न 38.
शतशकटीपान कि मुञ्चति ?
(सैकड़ों मोटरगाड़ियाँ क्या छोड़ती है ?)
उत्तरम् :
शतशकटीयानं कज्जलमलिनं धूम मुन्धति।
(सैकड़ों मोटरगाड़ियाँ काजल के समान काला धुआँ छोड़ती हैं।)

प्रश्न 39.
नगरेषुकीदर्श भक्ष्य मिलति ?
(नगरों में कैसा खाना मिलता है?)
उत्तरम् :
नगरेषु कत्सितवस्तु-निर्मितं भोजनं मिलति।
(नगरों में दूषित वस्तुओं से बना भोजन मिलता है।)

प्रश्न 40.
कविः कुत्र सञ्चरणम् इच्छति ?
(कवि कहाँ विचरण करना चाहता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
कवि: एकान्ते कान्तारे सञ्चरणम् इच्छति।
(कवि एकान्त वनप्रदेश में घूमना चाहता है।)

प्रश्न 41.
कीदृशी कुसुमावलिः कवये वरणीया स्यात् ?
(कैसी फूलों की पंक्ति कवि के लिए वरण करने योग्य है ?)
उत्तरम् :
समीरचालिता कुसुमावलिः कवये वरणीया स्यात्।
(वायु द्वारा हिलाई गई फूलों की पंक्ति कवि के लिए वरण करने योग्य है।)

प्रश्न 42.
कीदृशी कुसुमावलिः कवये वरणीया स्यात् ?
(कैसी फूलों की पंक्ति कवि के लिए वरण करने योग्य है ?)
उत्तरम् :
समीरचालिता कुसुमावलिः कवये वरणीया स्यात्।
(वायु द्वारा हिलाई गई फूलों की पंक्ति कवि के लिए वरण करने योग्य है।)

प्रश्न 43.
कविः कीदृशं देशं गन्तुम् इच्छति ?
(कवि कैसे देश को जाना चाहता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
कविः खगकुलकलरव गुञ्जित वनदेशं गन्तुम् इच्छति।
(कवि पक्षियों के कलरव से गुञ्जित वनप्रदेश को जाना चाहता है।)

प्रश्न 44.
प्रस्तरतले के न पिष्टाः भवन्तु ?
(पत्थरों के नीचे क्या नहीं कुचले?)।
उत्तरम् :
प्रस्तरतले लतातरुगुल्माः पिष्टाः न भवन्तु।
(पत्थरों के नीचे बेल, वृक्ष और झाड़ियाँ न कुचलें।)

प्रश्न 45.
‘शुचिपर्यावरणम्’ इत्यस्य पाठस्य भावबोधनं सरलसंस्कृतभाषया लिखत।
(‘शुचिपर्यावरणम्’ पाठ का भाव सरल संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए।)
उत्तरम् :
अद्य महानगरेषु यन्त्राणि चलानि। वाष्पयानानि शकटीयानानि चलन्ति। एते पर्यावरणं प्रदूषयन्ति। भोजनम् अपि कुत्सितवस्तु मिश्रितम् अस्ति। ध्वनिः अपि कौँ स्फोटयति। अतः अत्र जीवितं दुर्वहं जातम्। अधुना प्रकृतिः एव मात्र शरणम् अस्ति। कवि प्रकृतेः शरणं गन्तुम् इच्छति। सः मानवाय जीवनं कामयते।

(आज महानगरों में मशीनें चलती हैं। रेलगाड़ियाँ और मोटरगाड़ियाँ चलती हैं। ये सब पर्यावरण को प्रदूषित करती हैं। भोजन भी गन्दी वस्तुओं से मिश्रित है। ध्वनि भी कानों को फोड़ती है। अत: यह जीवन दूभर हो गया है। अब प्रकृति ही एकमात्र आश्रय है। कवि प्रकृति की शरण में जाना चाहता है। वह मानव के लिए जीवन की कामना करता है।)

III. अन्वय-लेखनम् –

अधोलिखितश्लोकस्यान्वयमाश्रित्य रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषातः समुचितपदानि चित्वा पूरयत।
(नीचे लिखे श्लोक के अन्वय के आधार पर रिक्तस्थानों की पूर्ति मंजूषा से उचित पद चुनकर कीजिए।)

1. महानगरमध्ये ……………………………………. जनग्रसनम्।।

मञ्जूषा – दशनैः, महानगरमध्ये, अनिशं, पेषयत्।

कालायसचक्रम् (i) ………………. (ii)……………….. चलत्, मनः शोषयत्, तनुः (iii) ……………. सदा वक्र भ्रमति, अमुना दुर्दान्तैः (iv) ……………. जनग्रसनम् एव स्यात्।
उत्तरम् :
(i) अनिशं
(i) महानगरमध्ये
(iii) पेषयत्
(iv) दशनैः।

2. कज्जलमलिनं ……………………………………. संसरणम्।।

मञ्जूषा – यानानाम्, वाष्पयानमाला, कज्जलमलिनम, संसरणम्।

शतशकटीयानं (i) ……………. धूमं मुञ्चति। ध्वानं वितरन्ती (ii) …………… संधावति (iii) …………. पतयः अनन्ताः हि (iv) …………… कठिनम्।
उत्तरम् :
(i) कज्जलमलिनम्
(ii) वाष्पयानमाला
(iii) यामामाम्
(iv) संसरणम्।

3. वायुमण्डल …………………………….. शुद्धीकरणम्।।

मञ्जूषा – कुत्सितबस्तु, निर्मलम्, पूषितम्, शुद्धीकरणम्।

वायुमण्डलं भृशं (i)……. हि जलं (ii) …….. न, भक्ष्यं (iii) …….. मिश्रितं, धरातलं, समलं, तु बहि-अन्तः जगति बहु (iv)…… करणीयं स्यात्।
उत्तरम् :
(i) दूषितम्
(ii) निर्मलम्
(iii) कुत्सितवस्तु
(iv) शुद्धीकरणम्।

4. कश्चित्कालं ……………………………………. सञ्चरणम्।।

मञ्जूषा – अस्मात्, कान्तारे, प्रपश्यामि, नय।

कश्चित् कालात् माम् (i) ……… नगरात् बहुदूरं (ii) …………..। ग्रामान्ते निर्झर-नदी-पयः पूरं (iii) ………….. एकान्ते (iv) …………….. क्षणमपि मे सञ्चरणं स्यात्।
उत्तरम् :
(i) अस्मात्
(ii) नय
(iii) प्रपश्यामि
(iv) कान्तारे।

5. हरिततरूणां …………………………. संगमनम्।

मञ्जूषा – नवमालिका, समीरचालिता, ललितलतानां, रुचिरं।

हरिततरूणां (i) ……… रमणीया माला, (ii) ……… कुसुमावलिः मे वरणीया स्यात्। (iii) ……… मिलिता रसालं (iv) ……… सङ्गमनम्।
उत्तरम् :
(i) ललितलतानां
(ii) समीरचालिता
(iii) नवमालिका
(iv) रुचिरं।

6. अयि चल …………………… कुर्याज्जीवितरसहरणम्।

मञ्जूषा – हरणम्, सम्भ्रमित, खगकुल, चाकचिक्यजालं।

अयि बन्धो ! (i) ……… कलरव गुञ्जित वनदेशं चल। पुर-कलरव (ii) ……… जनेभ्यः सुख सन्देशं धृत, (iii) ……… नो जीवित रस (iv) ……… कुर्यात्।
उत्तरम् :
(i) खगकुल
(ii) सम्भ्रमित
(iii) चाकचिक्यजालं
(iv) हरणम्।

7. प्रस्तरतले ……………………………… जीवन्मरणम्।

मञ्जूषा – निसर्गे, प्रस्तरतले, जीवन्, मानवाय।

लतातरुगुल्मा (i)……… पिष्टाः न भवन्तु। पाषाणीसभ्यता (ii)……… समाविष्टा न स्यात्। (iii)……… जीवनं कामये नो (iv)……… मरणम्।
उत्तरम् :
(i) प्रस्तरतले
(ii) निसर्गे
(iii) मानवाय
(iv) जीवन्।

IV. प्रश्ननिर्माणम –

अधोलिखित वाक्येषु स्थूलपदमाभृत्य प्रश्न निर्माणं कुरुत –

1. दुर्वहम् अत्र जीवितं जातम्। (यहाँ जीवन दूभर हो गया है।)
2. महानगरमध्ये चलदनिशं कालायसचक्रम्। (महानगर में दिन-रात लोहे का पहिया चलता है।)
3. कज्जलमलिनं धूमं मुञ्चति शतशकटीयानम्। (सैकड़ों मोटरगाड़ियाँ काजल-सा मलिन धुऔं त्यागती हैं।)
4. वाष्पयानमाला संधावति वितरन्ती ध्वानम्। (रेलगाड़ियों की पंक्ति शोर करती दौड़ रही है।)
5. वाष्पयानमाला ध्वानं वितरन्ती संधावति। (रेलगाड़ियों की पंक्ति शोर करती दौड़ रही है।)
6. यानानां पङ्क्तयो ह्यनन्ता। (वाहनों की पंक्तियाँ अनन्त हैं।)
7. वायुमण्डलं भृशं दूषितम्। (वायुमण्डल बहुत दूषित है।)।
8. बहिरन्तर्जगति तु बहु शुद्धीकरणं करणीयम्। (बहिर् और अन्तर्जगत में बहुत शुद्धीकरण करना चाहिए।)
9. ग्रामान्ते निर्झर-नदी-पयःपूरं प्रपश्यामि। (गाँव के अंत में जल से भरपूर झरने और नदी देखता हूँ।)
10. प्रकृत्याः सन्निधौ वास्तविकं सुखं विद्यते। (प्रकृति के सान्निध्य में असली सुख विद्यमान है।)

उत्तराणि :

1. कीदृशम् अत्र जीवितं जातम् ?
2. महानगरमध्ये किं चलदनिशम् ?
3. कीदृशं धूमं मुञ्चति शतशकटीयानम्?
4. का सन्धावति वितरन्ती ध्वानम् ?
5. वाष्पयानमाला किं वितरन्ती सन्धावति ?
6. केषां पङ्क्तयो ह्यनन्ताः ?
7. किं भृशं दूषितम्।
8. बहिरन्तर्जगति तु किं करणीयम् ?
9. ग्रामान्ते किं प्रपश्यामि ?
10. केषां सन्निधौ वास्तविक सुखं विद्यते ?

V. भावार्थ लेखनम् –

अधोलिखितपद्यानां संस्कृते भावार्थं लिखत –

1. दुर्वहमत्र जीवितं ……………………… स्यान्नैव जनग्रसनम् ॥

भावार्थ – अस्मिन् स्थाने जीवनमपि दुष्करमभवत्। अत प्राकृतिक स्थलानां शुद्ध पर्यावरणमेव (एकमात्र) आश्रयः। लौहचक्रम दिवारात्रम् महत्स नगरेष गतिमानस्ति। मनसः शोषणं कुर्वन् शरीरं च पिष्टीकर्वन चूर्णयन वा सदैव कटिलं (चक्रवत्) घूर्णति। अनेन विकरालै दन्तैः मानवानां भक्षणं (पीडनं) न भवेत्। अतः शुद्धं पर्यावरणमेव (प्राणिनाम्) आश्रयमस्ति।

2. कज्जलमलिनं धूमं ………………………. कठिनं संसरणम्।

भावार्थ – शतसंख्यकानि वाहनानि कज्जल सदृशं मलिनं धूमजालं वमन्ति त्यजन्ति वा ध्वनिं कुर्वन्ती लौहपथ गामिनीनां पंक्ति निरन्तरं धावति। वाहनानां पङ्क्तयः असीमिता: अन्तहीनाः वा पंक्तयः सन्ति अतः सञ्चलनमपि दुष्करं जातम् अतः शुद्ध वातावरणम् (इदानी) एकमात्रं आश्रयम् अस्ति।

3. वायुमण्डलं भृशं ………………………. बहु शुद्धीकरणम्।

भावार्थ – समीर मण्डलं प्रभूतं दोषपूर्णं (जातम्)। यतः न वारि शुद्धं न भोजनं (शुद्धम्) पदार्थाः दूषिताः मिश्रिताः च पृथ्वीतलमपि अशुद्धमस्ति। तर्हि आन्तरिके बाह्ये च जगति भृशं पवित्रीकरणं कर्त्तव्यम्। शुद्धं वातावरणमिदानीं एकमात्र आश्रयम् अस्ति।

4. कञ्चित् कालं नय ……………………… मे स्यात् सञ्चरणम्।

भावार्थ – किञ्चित्समयं माम् एतस्मात् पत्तनात् भृशं दूरं गमय, ग्रामस्य सीम्नि अहं जलपूर्ण प्रपातं सरितां चावलोकयामि, निर्जने वने क्षणमपि मम विचरणं भवेत् यतः शुद्धं पर्यावरणमेव एकमात्रं आश्रय।

5. हरिततरूणां ललितलतानां …………………. रुचिरं संगमनम्।

भावार्थ – हरितवर्ण वृक्षाणां, रम्य वल्लरीणां रम्या पङ्क्तिः पवनेन वेपिता पुष्पाणां पङ्क्तिः मह्यं वरणाय भवेत्। नूतना मल्लिका सहकारेण मिलित्वा सुन्दरं मेलनं प्राप्नोति। शुद्ध पर्यावरणमेवाद्य (मानव जीवनस्य) आश्रय।

6. अयि चल बन्धो ! …………………. नो कुर्याज्जीवितरसहरणम्।

भावार्थ – हे भ्रातः! पक्षिणां समवेत स्वरेण गुञ्जायमानं कान्तारप्रदेशं चल यत् नगरस्य ध्वानेन सम्यक् भ्रान्तेभ्यः मानवेभ्यः सुखस्य समाचारं धारयति। अप्राकृतं जीवनरस हर्तारं इदं जगत् जीवन सुखं न हरेत्। (अद्य मानवाय) शुद्ध वातावरणमेव मात्राश्रयः।

7. प्रस्तरतले लतातरुगुल्मा …………………………….. नो जीवन्मरणम्।

संस्कृत व्याख्याः – वल्लर्यः वृक्षाः कण्टस्तवा इत्यादयः प्राकृतिक सम्पदः शिलातले दमिता न भवन्तु। प्रकृतौ पाषाणकालीन सभ्यतायाः समावेशः न भवेत्। अहं मनुष्याय जीवनं इच्छामि न तु जीवनं मरणं च। शुद्ध वातावरणमेवाश्रय अस्ति।

शुचिपर्यावरणम् Summary and Translation in Hindi

पाठ-परिचय – निरन्तर बढते हए पर्यावरण-प्रदषण से आज सम्पूर्ण विश्व पीडित है। पथ्वी, जल, व तेज सभी तो प्रदूषित हो गए हैं। मानव मन को शान्ति कहाँ मिले। विश्वव्यापी इसी समस्या से अनुप्रेरित होकर आधुनिक संस्कृत-कवि हरिदत्त शर्मा ने यह कविता लिखी है। ‘शुचिपर्यावरणम्’ उनके ‘लसल्लतिका’ गीत-संग्रह में संकलित है। इसमें कवि महानगरों की यान्त्रिक बहुलता से बढ़ते प्रदूषण पर चिन्ता व्यक्त करते हुए कहता है कि यह लौहचक्र तन-मन का शोषक है, जिससे वायु-मण्डल और भूमण्डल दोनों मलिन हो रहे हैं। प्रस्तुत कविता के प्रथम तीन श्लोकों में कवि ने यान्त्रिक वृद्धि के कारण प्रदूषित पर्यावरण तथा वायुमण्डल प्रदूषण का वर्णन किया है, चौथे से सातवें श्लोकों में कवि शुद्ध जलवायु-युक्त हरे-भरे वृक्षों से घिरे पक्षियों की संगीत लहरी से गुंजित शुद्ध-पर्यावरण में जाने की अभिलाषा करता है।

मूलपाठः, अन्वयः,शब्दार्थाः, सप्रसंग हिन्दी-अनुवादः

1 दुर्वहमत्र जीवितं जातं प्रकृतिरेव शरणम्।
शुचि-पर्यावरणम्॥
महानगरमध्ये चलदनिशं कालायसचक्रम्।
मनः शोषयत् तनुः पेषयद् भ्रमति सदा वक्रम्॥
दुर्दान्तैर्दशनैरमुना स्यान्नैव जनग्रसनम् ॥ शुचि…. ॥1॥

अन्वयः – अत्र जीवितं दुर्वहं जातं, (अत:) प्रकृतिः, शुचि-पर्यावरणम् एव शरणम्। कालायसचक्रम् अनिशं महानगरमध्ये चलत्, मनः शोषयत्, तनुः पेषयत् सदा वक्रम् भ्रमति, अमुना दुर्दान्तैः दशनैः जनग्रसनम् एव स्यात्। शुचिपर्यावरणमेव शरणम्।

शब्दार्थाः – अत्र = अस्मिन् संसारे (यहाँ, इस संसार में), जीवितम् = जीवनम् (जीवन), दुर्वहम् = दुष्करम् (कठिन, दूभर), जातम् = भूतं, उत्पन्नम् (हो गया है), अतः प्रकृतिः = अतः प्राकृतिकस्थलम् (अतः प्रकृति), शुचि-पर्यावरणम् एव = शुद्ध-पर्यावरणम् एव (स्वच्छ, शुद्ध वातावरण ही), शरणम् = आश्रयः (आश्रय योग्य है) अर्थात् शुद्ध पर्यावरण की शरण में ही जाना चाहिए। कालायसचक्रम् = लौहचक्रम् (लोहे का पहिया), अनिशम् = अहर्निशम् (दिन-रात), महानगरमध्ये = विशाल नगरेषु, महत्सु नगरेषु (महानगरों में), चलत् = गतिमत्, प्रवृत्तमानम् (चलता हुआ), मनः शोषयत् = मनसः शोषणं कुर्वत् (मन का शोषण करता हुआ), तनुः = शरीरम् (शरीर को), पेषयद् = पिष्टीकुर्वत् (पीसता हुआ), सदा = सर्वदा, सदैव (हमेशा, सदैव), वक्रम् = कुटिलम् (टेढ़ा-मेढ़ा, वक्रगति से), भ्रमति = घूर्णति (घूमता है), अमुना = अनेन (इसके द्वारा), दुर्दान्तः = विकरालैः, भयङ्करैः (विकराल), दशनैः = दन्तैः (दाँतों से), जन-ग्रसनम् एव = मानवानां भक्षणम्, नीगीर्णनिम् एव (मानव का विनाश ही), स्यात् = भवेत् (होना चाहिए, होगा), अतः शुचि-पर्यावरणम् एव = शुद्धं वातावरणमेव (स्वच्छ जलवायु ही), शरणम् = आश्रयः (एकमात्र सहारा है।)

सन्दर्भ – प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गीतांश हमारी ‘शेमुषी’ पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘शुचि पर्यावरणम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह पाठ प्रो. हरिदत्त शर्मा-रचित ‘लसल्लतिका’ गीतिसंग्रह से सङ्कलित है। इस पाठ में कवि पर्यावरण प्रदूषण के आधार पर लिखता

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – इस संसार में जीवन दूभर हो गया है, अतः प्रकृति का शुद्ध-पर्यावरण ही (एकमात्र) सहारा है अर्थात् शुद्ध पर्यावरण की शरण में ही जाना चाहिए। (यह) लोहे का पहिया (यन्त्रजाल) दिन-रात महानगरों में चलता हुआ, मन का शोषण करता हुआ, शरीर को पीसता हुआ हमेशा टेढ़ा-मेढ़ा वक्रगति से घूमता है। इसके विकराल दाँतों द्वारा मानव का विनाश ही (किया जा रहा है) होगा। अतः शुद्ध पर्यावरण की शरण में ही जाना चाहिए।

2. कज्जलमलिनं धूमं मुञ्चति शतशकटीयानम्।
वाष्पयानमाला सन्धावति वितरन्ती ध्वानम् ॥
यानानां पङ्क्तयो ह्यनन्ताः, कठिनं संसरणम्। शुचि……॥2॥

अन्वयः – शतशकटीयानम् कज्जलमलिनं धूमं मुञ्चति, ध्वानं वितरन्ती वाष्पयानमाला संधावति, यानानां पङ्क्तयः अनन्ताः हि संसरणं कठिनम्। शुचिपर्यावरणं शरणम्।।

शब्दार्थाः – शतशकटीयानम् = शकटीयानानां शतम् (सैकड़ों मोटर-गाड़ियाँ), कज्जलमलिनं धूमम् = कज्जलेन मलिनम् वाष्पः (काजल-सा मलिन अर्थात् काला धुआँ), मुञ्चति = त्यजति, वमति (त्यागती, छोड़ती या उगलती हैं)। ध्वानम् = (शोर), वितरन्ती = ददाति (देती, करती हुई), वाष्पयानमाला = वाष्पयानानां, लौहपथगामिनीनां पङ्क्तिः (रेलगाड़ियों की पंक्ति), संधावति = निरन्तरं धावति (निरन्तर दौड़ रही हैं), यानानाम् = वाहनानाम् (वाहनों की), पङ्क्तयः = मालाः, परम्पराः (पङ्क्तियाँ), अनन्ताः = असीमिताः, अन्तहीनाः (असीमित हैं), हि = अतः (इसलिए), संसरणम् = गमनम्, सचलनम् (चलना), कठिनम् = दुष्करम् (दूभर हो गया है), शुचि पर्यावरण = शुद्धवातावरण (शुद्ध पर्यावरण), शरणं = आश्रयः (आश्रय है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गीतांश हमारी ‘शेमुषी’ पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘शुचि पर्यावरणम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह पाठ प्रो. हरिदत्त शर्मा रचित ‘लसल्लतिका’ गीति-संग्रह से संकलित है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – सैकड़ों मोटरगाड़ियाँ काजल-सा मलिन धुआँ अर्थात् काला-काला धुआँ छोड़ती हैं। शोर करती हुई रेलगाड़ियों की पंक्तिः निरन्तर दौड़ रही है। वाहनों की पंक्तियाँ असीमित (अन्त न होने वाली) हैं इसलिए (रास्ते में) चलना भी दूभर हो गया है। अतः शुद्ध पर्यावरण की शरण में चलना चाहिए।

3. वायुमण्डलं भृशं दूषितं न हि निर्मलं जलम्।
कुत्सितवस्तुमिश्रितं भक्ष्यं समलं धरातलम् ॥
करणीयं बहिरन्तर्जगति तु बहु शुद्धीकरणम्। शुचि……॥3॥

अन्वयः – वायुमण्डलं भृशं दूषितं हि जलं निर्मलं न, भक्ष्यं कुत्सित वस्तु-मिश्रितम्, धरातलम् समलम् तु बहिः अन्तः जगति बहु शुद्धीकरणं करणीयम्। शुचि-पर्यावरणं शरणम्।

शब्दार्थाः – वायुमण्डलम् = वातावरणम्, समीरमण्डलम् (वायुमण्डल), भृशम् = अत्यधिकं, बहुः, प्रभूतम् (अत्यधिक, अत्यन्त), दूषितम् = दोषपूर्णम्, अशुद्धं, दूषणमयम् जातम् (प्रदूषित, दूषित हो गया है), हि = यतः (क्योंकि), जलम् = तोयः, वारि, पानीयम् (पानी भी), निर्मलम् = शुद्धम्, मलहीनम् (शुद्ध, स्वच्छ), न = नहि (नहीं है), भक्ष्यम् = खाद्यम्, भोजनम् (खाने की वस्तुएँ), कुत्सितवस्तु = दूषित पदार्थ, गर्हित वस्तु (बुरी या दूषित वस्तु), मिश्रितम् = युक्तम् (युक्त, मिलावट वाला है), धरातलम् = पृथ्वीतलम्, भूतलम् (धरती), समलम् = मलयुक्तम्, अशुद्धम्, अपावनम् (मैली अर्थात् गन्दगी युक्त है), तु = तर्हिः, तदा (तो, अतएव), बहिः अन्तः जगति = बाह्ये आन्तरिके च जगति (बाह्य एवं आन्तरिक जगत् में), बहुः = भृशम्, प्रभूतम् (अत्यधिक, अनेक, बहुत), शुद्धीकरणम् = पवित्रीकरणम् (शुद्धीकरण), करणीयम् = कर्त्तव्यम्, कार्यम् (करना चाहिए), शुचि = शुद्धम् (शुद्ध, स्वच्छ), पर्यावरणम् = वातावरणम् (पर्यावरण ही), शरणम् = मात्र आश्रयम् जातम् (एकमात्र शरण रह गया है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गीतांश हमारी ‘शेमुषी’ पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘शुचिपर्यावरणम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह गीत प्रो. हरिदत्त शर्मा लिखित ‘लसल्लतिका’ गीति-संग्रह से संकलित है। इस गीतांश में कवि वाहनों के धुएँ से प्रदूषित पर्यावरण के विषय में कहता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – वायुमण्डल अत्यधिक दूषित हो गया है, क्योंकि पानी भी स्वच्छ नहीं है। खाने की वस्तुएँ भी दूषित पदार्थों से युक्त हैं। धरती मैली अर्थात् गन्दगीयुक्त है। अतएव बाह्य एवं आन्तरिक जगत् में अत्यधिक शुद्धीकरण करना चाहिए। शुद्ध पर्यावरण ही एकमात्र आश्रय है।

4. कञ्चित् कालं नय मामस्मान्नगराद् बहुदूरम्।
प्रपश्यामि ग्रामान्ते निर्झर-नदी-पयःपूरम् ॥
एकान्ते कान्तारे क्षणमपि मे स्यात् सञ्चरणम्। शुचि…… ॥4॥

अन्वयः – कञ्चित् कालम् माम् अस्मात् नगरात् बहुदूरं नय। (अहं) ग्रामान्ते पयः पूरं निर्झरं, नदी (च) प्रपश्यामि!, एकान्ते कान्तारे क्षणमपि मे सञ्चरणं स्यात्। शुचिपर्यावरणं शरणम्।

शब्दार्थाः – कञ्चित् कालम् = किञ्चित् समयम् (कुछ समय के लिए), माम् = मा, कविम् (मुझ कवि को), अस्मात् = एतस्मात् (इस), नगरात् = पुरात्, पत्तनात् (शहर से), बहुदूरम् = भृशंदूरम्, अत्यधिक दूरम् (बहुत दूर), नय गमय, प्रापय (ले चल), ग्रामान्ते = ग्रामस्य सीमायाम्, सीम्नि (गाँव की सीमा पर), निर्झरं – प्रपात, स्रोत (झरना), नदी सरिता (नदी), पयःपूरम् = जलेनपूर्णम् जलाशयम् (जलाशय को), प्रपश्यामि = अवलोकयामि, ईक्षे (देखता हूँ), एकान्ते = निर्जने (निर्जन, शान्त), कान्तारे = वने (जंगल में), क्षणमपि = क्षणमात्रम् (क्षणभर), मे = मम (मेरा), सञ्चरणम् = विचरण, भ्रमणम् (घूमना), स्यात् = भवेत् (होना चाहिए), अतः शुचि = शुद्धं (शुद्ध), पर्यावरणम् = वातावरणम् (पर्यावरण ही), शरणम् = आश्रयः (सहारा है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गीतांश हमारी ‘शेमुषी’ पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘शुचिपर्यावरणम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह पाठ प्रो. हरिदत्त शर्मा रचित ‘लसल्लतिका’ गीति-संग्रह से संकलित है। इस गीतांश में कवि पावन पर्यावरण का चित्रण करता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – कुछ समय के लिए मुझे इस शहर से बहुत दूर ले चलो। गाँव की सीमा पर (मैं) जल से पूर्ण झरने और नदी को देख रहा हूँ। (उस) निर्जन शान्त वन में मेरा एक क्षण भी घूमना हो जाए अर्थात् मैं वहाँ क्षणभर घूमना चाहता हूँ। अतः शुद्ध पर्यावरण ही एकमात्र आश्रय है।

5. हरिततरूणां ललितलतानां माला रमणीया।
कुसुमावलिः समीरचालिता स्यान्मे वरणीया ॥
नवमालिका रसालं मिलिता रुचिरं संगमनम्। शुचि…..॥5॥

अन्वयः – हरिततरूणां ललितलतानां रमणीया माला, समीरचालिता कुसुमावलिः मे वरणीया स्यात्। नवमालिका मिलिता रसालं रुचिरं सङ्गमनम्। शुचिपर्यावरणं शरणम्।

शब्दार्थाः – हरिततरूणाम् = हरिद्वर्णानां वृक्षाणाम् (हरे-भरे वृक्षों की), ललितलतानाम् = रम्याणां बल्लरीणाम् (सुन्दर बेलों की), रमणीया – रम्या, मनोहरा (सुन्दर), माला = पंक्तिः, श्रेणिः, हारः (माला, पंक्ति), समीर = पवनेन, वायुना (वायु द्वारा), चालिता = वेपिता, सञ्चालिता (हिलाई हुई), कुसुमावलिः = पुष्पाणां पंक्तिः (फूलों की पंक्ति), मे = मह्यम् (मेरे लिए), वरणीया = वरणाय, वरप्रदानाय (वरण करने योग्य, प्रसन्नता देने वाली), स्यात् = भवेत् (होनी चाहिए), नवमालिका = नूतना मल्लिका (नवमल्लिका), मिलिता रसालम् = आम्रवृक्षेण, सहकारेण मिलिता, बलयिता (आम के पेड़ से लिपटी हुई), रुचिरं = सुन्दरम् (सुन्दर), सङ्गमनम् = मिलनं प्राप्नोति (संगम प्राप्त कर रही है), शुचि = स्वच्छं, शुद्धं (स्वच्छ), पर्यावरणम् = वातावरणम् (जलवायु, पर्यावरण), शरणम् = आश्रयः (आश्रय है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गीतांश हमारी शेमुषी’ पाठ्य-पुस्तक के ‘शुचिपर्यावरणम्’ पाठ (गीत) से लिया गया है। यह पाठ प्रो. हरिदत्त शर्मा रचित ‘लसल्लतिका’ गीति-संग्रह से संकलित है। इस गीत में कवि प्रकृति की रमणीयता का वर्णन करता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – हरे-भरे वृक्षों और सुन्दर बेलों की पंक्ति (और) वायु द्वारा हिलाई जाती हुई फूलों की पंक्ति मेरे लिए वरण करने योग्य होनी चाहिए। नवमल्लिका आम के वृक्ष के साथ मिलकर सुन्दर संगम प्राप्त कर रही है। अतः स्वच्छ वातावरण ही एकमात्र आश्रय है।

6. अयि चल बन्धो ! खगकुलकलरव गुञ्जितवनदेशम्।
पुर-कलरव सम्भ्रमितजनेभ्यो धृतसुखसन्देशम् ॥
चाकचिक्यजालं नो कुर्याज्जीवितरसहरणम्। शुचि……॥6॥

अन्वयः – अयि बन्धो ! खगकुल कलरव गुञ्जित वनदेशं चल। पुर-कलरव सम्भ्रमित जनेभ्यः सुख सन्देशं धृत, चाकचिक्यजालं नो जीवित रस हरणम् कुर्यात्। शुचि पर्यावरणं शरणम्।

शब्दार्थाः – अयि बन्धो ! = हे भ्रातः ! (हे भाई !), खगकुलकलरव = पक्षिणां सामूहिक ध्वनिः, ध्वानेन (पक्षियों की सामूहिक ध्वनि से), गुञ्जित = गुञ्जायमानम् (गूंजते हुए), वनदेशम् चल = कान्तार प्रदेशं चल (वनप्रदेश को चलो), पुर-कलरव = नगरस्य ध्वानेन (नगर के शोरगुल से), सम्भ्रमित = सम्यक् भ्रमित, भयभीत (भ्रमित हुए या भयभीत), जनेभ्यः = मानवेभ्यः (लोगों के लिए), धृतसुखसन्देशम् = (सुख का सन्देश धारण किया हुआ है), चाकचिक्यजालम् = कृत्रिमं प्रभावपूर्ण जगत् (बनावटी आकर्षण पैदा करने वाला, चकाचौंध करने वाला जगत्), जीवित रस हरणम् = जीवनस्य सुखस्यापहरणम् (जीवन के सुखरूपी रस का हरण), नो = (नहीं), कुर्यात् = कुर्वीत (करना चाहिए), शुचि = शुद्धम् (शुद्ध), पर्यावरणम् = वातावरणम् (पर्यावरण ही), शरणम् = आश्रयः (आश्रय है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गीतांश हमारी ‘शेमुषी’ पाठ्य-पुस्तक के ‘शुचिपर्यावरणम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह गीत प्रो. हरिदत्त शर्मा द्वारा ‘लसल्लतिका’ गीति-संग्रह से संकलित है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – हे भाई ! पक्षियों की सामूहिक ध्वनि से गूंजते हुए वनप्रदेश की ओर चलो। (जो) नगर के शोरगुल से भयभीत लोगों के लिए सुख का सन्देश धारण किया हुआ है अर्थात् नगर के शोरगुल से थके हुए लोगों के लिए यहाँ सुख मिलता हैं। चकाचौंध करने वाला यह जगत् (कहीं) जीवन के सुख का अपहरण न कर ले। अतः शुद्ध पर्यावरण ही एकमात्र शरण (आश्रय) है।

7. प्रस्तरतले लतातरुगुल्मा नो भवन्तु पिष्टाः।
पाषाणी सभ्यता निसर्गे स्यान्न समाविष्टा ॥
मानवाय जीवनं कामये नो जीवन्मरणम्। शुचि…..॥7॥

अन्वयः – लतातरुगुल्मा प्रस्तरतले पिष्टाः न भवन्तु। पाषाणीसभ्यता निसर्गे समाविष्टा न स्यात्। मानवाय जीवनं कामये नो जीवन् मरणम्। शुचिपर्यावरण शरणम्।

शब्दार्थाः – लतातरुगल्माः = लताः च तरवः च गल्माः च (बेल, वक्ष और झाडियाँ), प्रस्तरतले = शिलातले (पत्थरों के नीचे), पिष्टाः = प्रविष्टाः, दमिताः (दबी हुई), निसर्गे = प्रकृतौ (प्रकृति में), पाषाणी सभ्यता = पाषाणकालीन सभ्यता (पाषाण काल की सभ्यता), समाविष्टाः = समावेशः, पेषणम् (समावेश, पिसना-कुचलना), न स्यात् = न भवेत् (नहीं होना चाहिए), जीवनम् = जीवितं (जीवन की), कामये = कामनां करोमि (कामना करता हूँ)। नो = अस्माकम् (हमारी), जीवन मरणम् = जीवत् मरणम् च (जीते-मरते), मानवाय = मनुष्याय (मानव के लिए), शुचि = शुद्धम् (शुद्ध), पर्यावरणम् = वातावरणम् (पर्यावरण ही), शरणम् = आश्रयः (आश्रय है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गीतांश हमारी शेमुषी’ पाठ्य-पुस्तक के ‘शुचिपर्यावरणम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह पाठ प्रो. हरिदत्त शर्मा द्वारा रचित ‘लसल्लतिका’ गीति-संग्रह से संकलित है। इस पाठ में कवि भारतीय संस्कृति संरक्षण के आधार पर कहता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – लता, वृक्ष और झाड़ियाँ पत्थरों के तल पर नष्ट नहीं होनी चाहिए। अर्थात् पाषाणकालीन सभ्यता प्रकृति में समाविष्ट नहीं होनी चाहिए। मैं मानव के जीवन की कामना करता हूँ, जीवन के नष्ट होने की नहीं। अतः शुद्ध पर्यावरण की शरण में जाना चाहिए।

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Science Solutions Chapter 6 Life Processes Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Science Solutions Chapter 6 Life Processes

Jharkhand Board Class 10 Science Life Processes Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system of ……………….
A. nutrition
B. respiration
C. excretion
D. transportation
Answer:
excretion

Question 2.
The xylem in plants are responsible for ……………….
A. transport of water
B. transport of food
C. transport of amino acids
D. transport of oxygen Answer: transport of water

Question 3.
The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires ……………….
A. carbon dioxide and water
B. chlorophyll
C. sunlight
D. all of the given
Answer:
all of the given

Question 4.
The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in ……………….
A. cytoplasm
B. mitochondria
C. chloroplast
D. nucleus
Answer:
mitochondria

Question 5.
How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?
Answer:
Large fat globules break into small fine droplets by the effect of bile salts of bile juice. This is called emulsification of fats.

Pancreatic lipase acts on emulsified fats to break it and finally intestinal lipase digests fats into fatty acids and glycerol. This process take place in small intestine.

Question 6.
What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food?
Answer:
Saliva contains salivary amylase (ptyalin) which digests starch into sugar.

Question 7.
What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are its by-products?
Answer:
The necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition are:

• Presence of chlorophyll
• Absorption light energy
• Splitting of water molecules
• Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.

Oxygen is the by-product.

Question 8.
What are the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? Name some organisms that use the anaerobic mode of respiration.
Answer:

Aerobic respiration	Anaerobic respiration
1. O2 is used in this process.	1. O2 is not used in this process.
2. At the end of this process CO2 and H2O are produced.	2. At the end of this process in medium of plant origin Ethanol and CO2 are produced and in medium of animal origin only lactic acid is produced and no CO2.
3. In aerobic respiration complete oxidation of glucose molecules occurs, in which one mole of glucose on oxidation releases much greater energy.	3. In anaerobic respiration glucose molecules are incompletely oxidized, so one mole of glucose releases less energy along with the organic by products.
4. There are two phases in aerobic respiration, the first phase occurs in the cytoplasm and does not utilize O2. The second phase occurs in the mitochondria and utilizes O2.	4. There is only one phase in anaerobic respiration. It occurs in the cytoplasm. It occurs entirely in the absence of O2.

Question 9.
How are the alveoli designed to maximise the exchange of gases?
Answer:
The alveoli are located at the terminal ends of bronchioles. They are balloon-like structures provides large surface area for exchange of gases with an extensive network of blood vessels.

Question 10.
What would be the consequences of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies?
Answer:
A deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies leads to a disease called anaemia. Due to this, cells of our body do not get sufficient oxygen for cellular respiration, which may lead to release less energy. Weakness, fatigue, tiredness, etc. conditions may arise.

Question 11.
Describe double circulation of blood in human beings. Why is it necessary?
Answer:
Blood passes through the heart twice during each cycle in human beings. This is called double circulation.

[Deoxygenated blood from different organs is drained and finally through vena cava it is poured in right atrium. Prom here this blood is transported to lungs via right ventricle. In lungs, blood become oxygenated and is again transported to left atrium. From here it transports in left ventricle and then by aorta to different body parts.]

It is necessary because it allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to the body cells, which fulfill the high energy need of body.

Question 12.
What are the differences between the transport of materials in xylem and phloem?
Answer:

In xylem	In phloem
1. Water and minerals are transported.	1. Food especially carbohydrate, sucrose is translocated.
2. Transpiration pull becomes the major driving force for transport in xylem.	2. Osmotic pressure is responsible for translocation in phloem.
3. Generally ATP is not used for transport of material in xylem.	3. Phloem tissue uses ATP for translocation of food materials.
4. Vessels and tracheids are involved in transport.	4. Sieve tube and companion cells are involved in translocation.

Question 13.
Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs to their structure and functioning.
Answer:

Alveoli	Nephrons
1. It is a structural and functional unit of lung.	1. It is a structural and functional unit of kidney.
2. Alveoli are balloon-like structures at the terminal region of bronchioles.	2. Nephrons are long-coiled tube-like structures having Bowman’s capsule at the tip.
3. The alveoli provide a surface for exchange of gases.	3. Filtration of blood for removing of nitrogenous wastes take place in nephron units.
4. The wall of the alveoli contain an extensive network of blood vessels.	4. A cluster of blood capillaries associated with Bowman’s capsule called glomerulus and tubular part of nephron is surrounded by network of blood capillaries.

Jharkhand Board Class 10 Science Life Processes InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen requirement of multicellular organisms like humans?
Answer:
In multicellular organisms like human, all the cells are not in direct contact with the s surrounding environment. The body structure is more complex and the body size is also large. Therefore, simple diffusion will not be sufficient to s send oxygen to every cell. It has been estimated that a period of 3 years would be needed to carry a molecule of O₂ from our lungs to reach our toes through diffusion.

So, diffusion is insufficient to meet the oxygen requirement of multicellular organisms like humans.

Question 2.
What criteria do we use to decide whether something is alive?
Answer:
Movement, growth, breathing, cell-structure, etc. are the criteria we use to decide whether something is alive.

Question 3.
What are outside raw materials used for by an organisms?
Answer:

Name of outside raw materials	Used for
1. CO2, H2O	Photosynthesis by plants
2. Carbon based food source, O2	Respiration by aerobic organisms

Question 4.
What processes would you consider essential for maintaining life?
Answer:
The processes essential for maintaining life are nutrition, respiration, transport, excretion, etc.

Question 5.
What are the differences between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition?
Answer:

Autotrophic Nutrition	Heterotrophic Nutrition
1. It occurs in green plants and some bacteria.	1. It occurs in animals and fungi.
2. In such mode of nutrition. food is synthesised from inorganic components, i.e., CO2 and H2O.	2. In such mode of nutrition food is consumed from other organisms.
3. Photosynthesis is important process for autotrophic nutrition.	3. Food digestion is important for such nutrition.

Question 6.
Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis?
Answer:
Raw materials required for photosynthesis :

• CO₂ : Plants get it from atmosphere.
• H₂O : Plants root absorbed it from soil.
• Energy : Plants get it directly from sun.

Question 7.
What is the role of the acid in our stomach?
OR
What are the functions of the acid in our stomach?
Answer:
Role or Functions of the acid:

• Acid destroys the bacteria and other microorganisms that enter the stomach, along with the food.
• It converts the inactive enzyme pepsinogen into active enzyme pepsin.
• It provides acidic medium required for the action of pepsin. Pepsin can digest proteins present in food only in acidic medium.
• Insoluble mineral salts get dissolved in acid.

Question 8.
What is the function of digestive enzymes?
Answer:
Digestive enzymes hydrolyse / digest complex component (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins) of food into simple, soluble and absorbable form of nutrients.

Question 9.
How is the small intestine designed to absorb digested food?
Answer:
Small intestine is long tubular structure. The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger like projection called villi, which increase the surface area for absorption.

Question 10.
What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with regard to obtaining oxygen for respiration?
Answer:
The amount of dissolved oxygen is fairly low in aquatic environment as compared to the amount of oxygen in the air. So, terrestrial organisms fulfil their oxygen demand with low breathing rate as compared to aquatic organisms.

Question 11.
What are the different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms?
Answer:
There are three different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms.

Question 12.
How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings?
Answer:
In human beings, the respiratory pigment haemoglobin has high affinity for oxygen, so it is mostly transported by haemoglobin. Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen and hence it is mostly transported in dissolved form in our blood.

Question 13.
How are the lungs designed in human beings to maximise the area for exchange of gases?
Answer:
The respiratory passage in the lungs, divides into smaller and smaller tubes which finally terminate in balloon – like structures alveoli. The alveoli present in lungs provide the maximum area for exchange of gases in human beings.

Question 14.
What are the components of the transport system in human beings? What are the functions of these components?
Answer:

The components of the transport system in human	Functions
1. Blood Plasma Red blood corpuscles White blood corpuscles Platelets	Acts as fluid transport medium of various material. Transport of food, CO2, salts and nitrogenous wastes. Transport of O2. Fight with invading pathogens. Help in clotting mechanism during injury.
2. Heart	It acts as a blood pumping organ.
3. Blood vessels Arteries Veins Capillaries	Carry blood away from the heart. Carry blood from different organs and bring it back to the heart. Exchange of material between the blood and surrounding cells.
4. Lymph	Carries digested and absorbed fat from intestine and drain excess fluid from intercellular spaces back into the blood.

Question 15.
Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?
Answer:
It is necessary to separate oxygenated s and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds because it allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to the body and this is useful in their high energy needs for to maintain constant body temperature.

Question 16.
What are the components of the i transport system in highly organised plants?
Answer:
Xylem tissue (vessels and tracheids) and phloem tissue (sieve tube and companion cell) are the components of the transport system in highly organised plants.

Question 17.
How are water and minerals transported in plants?
Answer:
Water conducting channels : Xylem consists of vessels and tracheids, which form continuous water conducting channel.

Absorption of water by the roots : The root cells actively take up ions from soil. This creates a difference in the concentration of these ions between the root and the soil. Water, therefore moves into the root from the soil to eliminate this difference.

Column of water : To eliminate the concentration difference between the soil and the root, the steady movement of water into root creates column of water.

Conduction of water by root pressure : Due to absorption of water by root cells, a pressure is generated to push water in xylem element.

This pressure is insufficient to move water over the heights of plants. So, plants use another strategy to move water in xylem upwards to the highest points of the plant body.

Conduction of water by transpiration pull : The loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the plant is known as transpiration.

The water which is lost through the stomata is replaced by water from the xylem vessels in the leaf. Evaporation of water molecules from the cells of a leaf creates a sunction which pulls water from the xylem cells of roots.

During the day when the stomata are open, the transpiration pull becomes the major driving force in the movement of water in the xylem.

At night effect of root pressure is necessary for the upward flow of water.

Thus, transpiration helps in absorption and upward movement of water and minerals dissolved in it from roots to the leaves.

Question 18.
How is food transported in plants?
Answer:
The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis is called translocation.

• Translocation occurs in the part of the vascular tissue known as phloem.
• Besides, the products of photosynthesis, the phloem transports amino acids and other substances. These substances are especially delivered to roots, fruits, seeds and to growing organs where it is stored.
• The translocation of food and other substances takes place in the sieve tubes with the help of adjacent companion cells both in upward and downward directions.
• The translocation in phloem is achieved by utilising energy.
• Sucrose (Sugar / Carbohydrate) is transferred into phloem tissue using energy from ATP. This increases the osmotic pressure of the tissue causing water to move into it.
• This pressure moves the material in the phloem to tissues having less pressure. The phloem thus moves material according to the plant’s need.

Example: In the spring, sugar stored in root or stem tissue is transported to the buds which need energy to grow.

Question 19.
Describe the structure and functioning of nephrons.
Answer:
Nephron is a basic filtration unit in the kidneys.

• Each kidney has large numbers of nephrons packed closely together.
• Nephron is a long-coiled tubular structure which begins with a cup-shaped end. called Bowman’s capsule and it ends in collecting tubule.
• A cluster of very thin-walled blood capillaries seen in the Bowman’s capsule is called glomerulus.
  

The purpose of making urine is to filter out waste products from blood.

• Nitrogenous wastes such as urea, uric acid, etc. are removed from blood in the kidneys.
• Urine is produced by filtration units i.e., nephrons.
• Cup-shaped Bowman’s capsule collects the filtrate.
• Some substances in the initial filtrate, such as glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount of water are selectively reabsorbed as the urine flows along the coiled tube.
• The amount of water reabsorbed depends on the amount of water present in the body and amount of dissolved waste which is to be excreted.
• Thus, urine is formed in both kidneys. [In a normal healthy adult, the initial filtrate in the kidneys is about 180 L daily. However, the s volume of excreted urine is only a litre or two per day. The remaining filtrate is reabsorbed ; in the kidney tubules.]

Question 20.
What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
Answer:
Unlike animals, the plants do not possess any special organs or system for excretion. However, the plants excrete their wastes in different ways:

• O₂ produced during photosynthesis by the green plants is set free directly in the atmosphere.
• Plants remove surplus water by the process of transpiration through the stomata.
• Sometimes plants store certain wastes in the cells of their leaves which are ultimately shed off.
• Certain plants store wastes in the cellular vacuoles of their cells.
• Other waste products such as resin and gum are stored especially in old xylem.
• Plants excrete some waste substances into the soil around them.

Question 21.
How is the amount of urine produced regulated?
Answer:
The amount of urine formed depends on how much excess water there is in the body, and on how much of dissolved waste there is to be excreted. More water and dissolved wastes in the body will produce more urine. On the other hand, less water and less dissolved wastes will produced less urine.

Activity 6.1 [T. B. Pg. 96]

To demonstrate that chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.

Materials : Potted plant (money plant or croton), beaker, water bath, alcohol, iodine.

Procedure :

• Take a potted plant of money plant or croton with variegated leaves.
• Keep the potted plant in complete darkness for three days.
• After three days expose the plant to bright sunlight for about 6 hours.
• Pluck one such leaf of this plant which is green in certain parts and white in the other remaining parts.
• Mark the green areas in it and trace them on a papersheet.
• Boil this plucked leaf in a beaker full of alcohol and kept in boiling water bath for some time, till it becomes colourless.
• Wash and clean this colourless leaf with water and dip it, for a few minutes, in dil. iodine solution.
• Observe the colour of the leaf and compare this with tracing of the leaf done in the beginning.
  

Questions:

Question 1.
What happens when the plant is kept in s a dark for 2-3 days?
Answer:
All the starch gets used up when the plant is kept in a dark for 2-3 days.

Question 2.
What happens to the colour of the leaf when keep in boiling alcohol?
Answer:
When the leaf is kept in boiling alcohol, it gets decolourised.

Question 3.
What is the colour of the alcohol solution when leaf is taken out from it?
Answer:
The colour of the alcohol solution is green when leaf is taken out from it.

Question 4.
State the use of iodine solution.
Answer:
Iodine solution is used to know the presence of starch.

Question 5.
What can you conclude about the presence of starch in various areas of the leaf?
Answer:
We conclude that the presence of starch is detected with iodine solution in only such areas where chlorophyll present.

Question 6.
What will you infer from this activity?
Answer:
This activity explains that chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis and surplus glucose stored in form of starch as internal reserve energy.

Activity 6.2 [T. B. Pg. 97]

To demonstrate that carbon dioxide (CO₂) necessary for photosynthesis

Materials : Potted plants, Bell-jar, watch glass, KOH (potassium hydroxide), alcohol, iodine solution.

Procedure:

• Take two potted plants. Place them in dark for three days. This will de-starch them.
• After three days place each of the pots on a smooth glass plate.
• Label one pot as A and the other as B.
• Keep a small watch glass or petri dish containing pellets of potassium hydroxide (KOH) on the glass plate near the pot A.
• Cover both the potted plants under two separate glass bell-jars.
• Apply a thick coat of vaseline on the bottom of the bell-jar close to the glass plate in order to make both the jars air-tight.
• Expose both these plants to sunlight for about 2 to 3 hours.
• Thereafter pluck one leaf each from the plants A and B and examine these leaves separately for the presence of starch therein.
  

Questions :

Question 1.
Which gas is absorbed by KOH from the air in the bell-jar?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is absorbed by KOH from the air in the bell-jar.

Question 2.
Which potted plant (A or B) shows the presence of starch in its leaf?
Answer:
B potted plant shows the presence of starch in its leaf.

Question 3.
Why is starch not formed in the leaf of the plant kept under the bell-jar with KOH kept along with it?
Answer:
Starch is not formed in the leaf of the plant kept under the bell-jar with KOH kept along with it because KOH absorbs COa from air. So, CO₂ is not available for the photosynthesis and thus starch is not formed.

Question 4.
Write your inference based on your observation and study.
Answer:
The potted plant B showed normal photosynthesis in presence of CO₂. This shows that CO₂ is necessary for photosynthesis.

Question 5.
In order to prevent the increase of which gas in the atmosphere, the conservation of plant organisms (trees) are important?
Answer:
To prevent the increase of CO₂ gas in the atmosphere, the conservation of plant organisms (trees) are important.

Question 6.
Do both the leaves show the presence of same amount of starch?
Answer:
No.

Activity 6.3 [T. B. Pg. 99]

To check the effect of saliva on starch. Materials : Two test tubes, starch solution, iodine.

Procedure:

• Take 1 mL starch solution in two test tubes (A and B).
• Add 1 mL saliva to test tube A and leave both test tubes undisturbed for 20 – 30 minutes.
• Now add a few drops of dilute iodine solution to the test tubes.
  

Questions:

Question 1.
In which test tube do you observe a colour change?
Answer:
In test tube B colour change is observed.

Question 2.
What does this indicate about the presence or absence of starch in the two test tubes?
Answer:
Test tube B solution showed colour change means there is presence of starch. While in test tube A colour is not changed that means starch is absent.

Question 3.
What is the difference in colour of solution, A and B after adding iodine solution?
Answer:
Colour of solution A is yellow and colour of solution B is blue or black after adding iodine solution.

Question 4.
The colour of solution in tube A does not change to blue or black. Why?
Answer:
The colour of solution in test tube A does not change blue or black because starch is hydrolysed by the effect of enzymes present in saliva.

Question 5.
Which component of food is digested (partially) when the food is chewed in the mouth?
Answer:
Starch (Carbohydrate) is partially digested when the food is chewed in the mouth.

Question 6.
Why does the bread or chapati tastes sweet when chewed for a longer time?
Answer:
When bread or chapati chewed for a longer time, starch is converted to simple sugar by salivary amylase. The sugar formed produces sweet taste in mouth.

Question 7.
State which of the following edible substances in our food are the source of starch: Potato, Lettuce leaf. Wheat, Maize, Sweet pea. Groundnut, Ghee.
Answer
Potato, Wheat, Maize, etc. are the sources of starch in our food.

Activity 6.4 [T. B. Pg. 101]

To demonstrate that CO₂ is exhaled by us during breathing.

Materials : Two test tubes, Rubber tube, Pichkari, Lime water.

Procedure :

• Take two clean glass test tubes. Label one of the tubes as (a) and the other as (b).
• In each test tube add about 10 mL of freshly prepared lime water (Ca(OH)₂ solution).
• Use a syringe or pichkari to pass air through some fresh lime water taken in test tube (a).
• Blow air through tube in a lime water taken in test tube (b).
• Note how long it takes for this lime water to turn milk in each test tube.
  

Questions :

Question 1.
What change is observed in test tube (a) and test tube (b)? Why?
Answer:
Lime water turns milky in test tube (a) and test tube (b). Because of presence of CO₂ the colour of lime water is changed.

Question 2.
In which tube does the change occur more rapidly? Why?
Answer:
In test tube (b), the change occurs more rapidly because the air that we expell contain more CO₂.

Question 3.
What does this activity tell us about the amount of carbon dioxide in the air that we breathe out?
Answer:
This activity tells us that the amount of carbon dioxide is more in the air that we breathe out.

Question 4.
What you conclude from this activity?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is produced in the process of respiration.

Activity 6.5 [T. B. Pg. 101]

To demonstrate that CO₂ is produced during fermentation.

Materials : Test tube. Bent glass tube, Fruit juice, Yeast powder. Lime water. One holed cork.

Procedure :

• Take some fruit juice or sugar solution and add some yeast to this mixture.
• Take this mixture in a test tube fitted with one holed cork.
• Fit the cork with a bent glass tube.
• Dip the free end of the glass tube into a test tube containing freshly prepared lime water.
  

Questions :

Question 1.
What change is observed in the colour of Ca(OH)₂ solution?
Answer:
The colour of Ca(OH)₂ solution turns milky.

Question 2.
How much time does it take for the change of colour?
Answer:
It takes long time for the change of colour of lime water.

Question 3.
Which product of fermentation is responsible for bringing about the change in colour of lime water?
Answer:
CO₂ is a product of fermentation is responsible for bringing about the change in colour of lime water.

Question 4.
What does this activity tell us about the products of fermentation?
Answer:
This activity tells us about the products of fermentation which are CO₂ and ethanol.

Activity 6.6 [T. B. Pg. 103]

To compare the breathing rate of fish and human.

Materials : An aquarium

Procedure:

• Observe moving fish in an aquarium.
• Count the number of times the fish opens and closes its mouth in a minute.
• Count the number of times you breathe in and out in a minute.
• Compare the breathing count of fish with yours.

Questions :

Question 1.
What is an operculum?
Answer:
An operculum is folded covering of gill slits in some fishes.

Question 2.
By which organ do fish respire?
Answer:
Fish respires with gills.

Question 3.
Are the timing of the opening and closing of the mouth and gill-slits in fish coordinated in some manner?
Answer:
Yes, in fish when mouth opens, gill-slits close and vice versa.

Question 4.
How do fish respire?
Answer:
Fishes take in water through their mouths and force it over the gills where the dissolved oxygen is taken up by blood capillaries by diffusion and CO₂ is released in water. Such water is discarded through gill slits.

Question 5.
What is an average breathing rate per minute in experimental fish?
Answer:
An average breathing rate 66-78 per minute in experimental fish.

Question 6.
What is an average breathing rate per minute in human beings?
Answer:
An average breathing rate 12-16 per minute in human beings.

Question 7.
Why in aquatic animal the breathing rate is much faster than that seen in terrestrial animals?
Answer:
Since the amount of dissolved oxygen is fairly low in water as compared to the amount of oxygen in the air, the rate of breathing in aquatic animal like fish is much faster than that seen in terrestrial animals.

Activity 6.7 [T. B. Pg. 105]

To know the haemoglobin content in human beings and in animals like buffalo, cow, etc.

• Visit a health centre in your locality and find out the normal range of haemoglobin content in human beings.
• Visit a veterinary in your locality. Find out the normal range of haemoglobin content in an animal like buffalo, cow, etc.
• Compare the difference seen in male and female human beings and animals.

Questions :

Question 1.
What is the normal range of haemoglobin content in human beings?
Answer:
The normal range of haemoglobin content 12-18 g/ decilitre.

Question 2.
Is it the same for children and adult?
Answer:
No, in children (3 month to 12 years) haemoglobin content 11.0 ± 1.5 g / decilitre.

Question 3.
Is there any difference in the haemoglobin levels for men and women?
Answer:
Yes, Men ⇒ 13-18 g / decilitre
Women ⇒ 12-16 g / dl

Question 4.
Is the haemoglobin content different in calves, male and female animals?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 5.
What is the normal range of haemoglobin content in cow and buffalo?
Answer:
Cow-10 to 15 g /decilitre
Buffalo -12.5 to 14.5 g / decilitre

Activity 6.8 [T. B. Pg. 109]

To demonstrate the physiological process of transpiration in plant.

Materials : A pot with growing plant, a pot with similar size with same amount of soil. a stick, plastic sheet.

Procedure:

• Take two small pots of approximately the same size and having the same amount of soil.
• One pot labelled as (a) with a plant.
• Place a stick of the same height in other pot labelled as (b).
• Cover the soil in both pots with a plastic sheet.
• Cover both pots, with plastic sheets and place them in bright sunlight for half an hour.

Questions :

Question 1.
Why the soil in both pots is covered with a plastic sheet?
Answer:
The soil in both pots is covered with a plastic sheet to prevent evaporation and loss of moisture.

Question 2.
What do you observe after half an hour?
Answer:
After half an hour, small water droplets are observed on the inner surface of a plastic sheet of pot (a).

Question 3.
What do you conclude from your observation?
Answer:
From our observation, we concluded that there is a water loss from aerial part of a plant in the form of vapour. This process is called transpiration.

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Which of the following terms is being used to denote the species pf animals of a particular region or period?
(a) Fauna
(b) Animals
(c) Flora
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Fauna

2. Which type of forests are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of the Western Ghats and the island groups of Lakshadweep and Andaman-Nicobar?
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Tropical deciduous forests
(c) Tropical evergreen forests
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(c) Tropical evergreen forests

3. Which type of forest is also known as monsoon forests?
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Tropical deciduous forests
(c) Tropical evergreen forests
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Tropical deciduous forests

4. Red panda is a rare animal found in:
(a) Montane forests
(b) Tropical evergreen forests
(c) Mangrove forests
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) Montane forests

5. How many biosphere reserves have been set up by the government of India?
(a) Ten
(b) Twelve
(c) Five
(d) Fourteen.
Answer:
(d) Fourteen.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the three forms of natural vegetation?
Answer:

1. Forests,
2. Grasses,
3. Bushes.

Question 2.
How many countries of the world having mega bio-diversity?
Answer:
12 countries.

Question 3.
What place does India hold in the world in plant diversity?
Answer:
Tenth.

Question 4.
What place does India hold in Asia in plant diversity?
Fourth.

Question 5.
Distinguish between indigenous species and exotic species.
Answer:
The natural vegetation, which are purely Indian, are known as endemic or indigenous species, but those which have come from outside India are termed as exotic plants.

Question 6.
How does land affect the natural vegetation?
Answer:
Land affects the natural vegetation directly and indirectly. The fertile plain level is generally devoted to agriculture. The undulating and rough terrains are areas where grassland and woodlands develop and give shelter to a variety of wild life.

Question 7.
What affects the variation in duration of sunlight?
Answer:
The variation in duration of sunlight at different places is due to differences in latitude, altitude, season and duration of the day. Due to longer duration of sunlight, trees grow faster in summer.

Question 8.
How does precipitation affect the vegetation?
Answer:
In India, almost the entire rainfall is received by the advancing south-west monsoon (June to September) and retreating north-east monsoons. Areas of heavy rainfall have denser vegetation as compared to other areas of less rainfall.

Question 9.
Which type of forests found in areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall?
Answer:
Tropical evergreen forests.

Question 10.
Name the commercially important trees of tropical evergreen forests.
Ebony, Mahogany, Rosewood, Rubber and Cinchona.

Question 11.
Which are the most widespread forests of India?
OR
Which forests are also called monsoon forests?
Answer:
Tropical deciduous forests.

Question 12.
How are the tropical deciduous forests divided on the basis of availability of water?
Answer:

1. Moist deciduous forests,
2. Dry deciduous forests.

Question 13.
Write any two finding areas of moist deciduous forests.

1. Jharkhand,
2. West Odisha.

Question 14.
Which are the important trees of dry deciduous forests?
Answer:
Teak, Sal, Peepal and Neem.

Question 15.
Name the common animals of tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
Lion, tiger, pig, deer, elephant, lizard, snake and tortoise.

Question 16.
In what amount of rainfall the thorn forests are found?
Answer:
Less than 70 cm of rainfall.

Question 17.
In which areas of India, the scrubs are found?
Answer:
In the north-western part of the country including semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.

Question 18.
What are the main plant species of the thorny forests?
Answer:
Acacias, palms, euphorbias and cacti.

Question 19.
State any two characteristics of the thorny trees and scrubs.

1. The stems are succulent to conserve water,
2. Leaves are mostly thick and small to minimize evaporation.

Question 20.
What type of trees are found between the height of 1500 metres and 3000 metres?
Answer:
Coniferous trees.

Question 21.
Give any four examples of coniferous trees.
Answer:
Pine, deodar, silver fir and spruce.

Question 22.
Name the common animals found in the montane forests.
Answer:
The common animals found in these forests are-Kashmir stag, spotted deer, wild sheep, jack rabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak, snow leopard, squirrels, shaggy horn wild ibex, bear and rare red panda, sheep and goats with thick hair.

Question 23.
By which nomadic tribes, the Alpine grasslands are used?
Answer:
The Gujjars and the Bakarwals.

Question 24.
Where does the mangrove vegetation found in India?
Answer:
Mangrove forests are found in the deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari and the Kaveri.

Question 25.
Name the most famous tree of mangrove forests.
Answer:
Sundari trees.

Question 26.
Name the famous animal of mangrove forests.
Answer:
Royal Bengal Tiger.

Question 27.
In which state is Gir forest located?
Answer:
Gir forest is located in Gujarat state of India.

Question 28.
How many plants have been described in Ayurveda?
Answer:
About 2000 plants.

Question 29.
How many medicinal plants have named by the World Conservation Union’s Red List?
Answer:
The World Conservation Union’s Red List has named 352 medicinal plants, of which 52 are critically threatened and 49 are endangered.

Question 30.
Which medicinal plant is used to treat blood pressure?
Answer:
Sarpagandha.

Question 31.
Where are the one-horned rhinoceros found in India?
Answer:
In swampy and marshy lands of Assam and West Bengal.

Question 32.
In which place of India wild asses are found?
Answer:
Arid areas of Rann of Kachchh.

Question 33.
Name the only country in the world that has both tigers and lion.
Answer:
India.

Question 34.
When was the Wildlife Protection Act of India implemented?
Answer:
In 1972.

Question 35.
Name any four biosphere reserves in India where wildlife is protected.
Answer:

1. Nilgiri,
2. Nanda Devi,
3. Gulf of Mannar,
4. Sunderban.

Question 36.
In which season, the Siberian crane comes in India?
Answer:
During the winter season.

Question 37.
Name any two National parks.
Answer:

1. Ranthambore National Park,
2. Kanha National Park.

Question 38.
Write the names of any two wildlife sanctuaries.
Answer:

1. Sariska and
2. Chandra Prabha.

Question 39.
How do the human beings influence the ecology of a region?
Answer:
Human beings utilise the vegetation and wildlife. The greed of man leads to exploitation of these resources. They insensibly cut the trees and kill the animals, creating ecological imbalance. As a result, some of the plants and animals have reached the verge of extinction.

Question 40.
Write any three developmental projects introduced by government to protect the endangered species of India.

1. Project Tiger,
2. Project Rhino,
3. Project Great Indian Bustard.

Question 41.
How many national parks and wildlife sanctuaries have been set up to conserve our natural heritage?
Answer:
104 National Parks and 543 Wildlife Sanctuaries.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a notes on bio-diversity in India.
Answer:
India is rich in biodiversity. It is one of the twelve mega bio-diverse countries of the world. It has 47,000 species of plants including 15000 flowering plants. India also has many species of non-flowering plants. Besides its floral diversity, India also has about 90,000 species of animals. India also has rich variety of fishes in its fresh and marine water.

Question 2.
How does the land have an impact on flora and fauna?
Answer:
Land affects the natural vegetation directly and indirectly. The nature of the land i.e., plain, hilly or a plateau, determines the kind of vegetation which will grow in it. Fertile lands are used for growing crops, vegetables and fruits.
Undulating and rough surfaces generally develop either into grasslands and woodlands (forests) and give shelter to a variety of wildlife.

Question 3.
How does the soil have an impact on flora and fauna? Explain with examples.
Answer:
The soils also vary from place to place. Different types of soils provide different types of vegetation. For example, deltaic or alluvial soil at a river delta near the sea will sustain mangrove forests, while slopes of hills have conical trees. The sandy soils of the desert support cactus and thorny bushes.

Question 4.
How does the temperature have an impact on flora and fauna?
Answer:
The character and extent of vegetation are mainly determined by temperature along- with humidity in the air. As the climate gets colder, either by increase in altitude (above 915 metres) or by moving away from the equator, the vegetation will change from tropical to sub-tropical, temperate and then alpine. For example, on the slope of the Himalayas and hills of the Peninsula, the fall in temperature affects the type of vegetation and its growth.

Question 5.
Explain the uses of forests.
Answer:
The uses of forests are as follows:

1. Forests are renewable resources and play a major role in enhancing the quality of environment.
2. They modify the local climate, control soil erosion, regulate stream flow and support a variety of industries.
3. They provide livelihood for many communities and offer panoramic and scenic view for recreation.
4. They control the force of winds and temperature and cause rainfall.
5. They provide humus to the soil and natural habitat to the wildlife.

Question 6.
Distinguish between moist deciduous and dry deciduous forests.
Answer:
Differences between moist deciduous and dry deciduous forests are as follows:

Moist deciduous forests	Dry deciduous forests
1. These types of forests are found in areas with annual rainfall of 100 to 200 cm.	1. This types of forests are found in areas with annual rainfall of 70 to 100 cm.
2. Teak, bamboo, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, aijun and mulberry trees are prominent in these forests.	2. Teak, sal, neem and peepal trees are prominent in these forests.
3. These forests have not been cleared much.	3. Large areas of these forests have been cleared to cultivative and grazing.

Question 7.
What are the differences between thorn forests and mangrove forests?
Answer:
Differences between thorn forests and mangrove forests are as follows:

Thom forests	Mangrove forests
1. These types of forests are found in areas with annual rainfall less than 70 cm.	1. These types of forests are found in the delta regions of rivers and are not depen¬dent on amount of rainfall.
2. These types of forests are mainly found in most of Rajasthan, Gujarat and in some areas of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana.	2. These types of forests are mainly found in the coastal delta regions.
3. Babool, kikar, palm, cactus, acacia trees and bushes are found here.	3. Sundari, palm, coconut, keora and agar trees are found here.

Question 8.
Why is it necessary to conserve our natural resources of forests and wildlife?
Answer:
The natural resources are a common heritage which we have inherited from our forefathers, and in turn, we will pass them over to our future generations. Conservation does not mean that we should not use the natural resources, but it means that we should use them wisely. All the plants and animals in a given area are so closely interlinked and interdependent, that they cannot survive without each other.

The large-scale poaching (killing) of wild animals, residing in the forests by man is a serious threat to the survival of many animal and bird species. This also disturbs the food chains in which these animals occur, resulting in undesirable consequences for the whole ecosystem. Thus to avoid these consequences, special efforts of their conservation are required.

Question 9.
What are the major objectives to set up the Biosphere Reserves in India?
Answer:
9 Biosphere Reserves have been set up in India to protect flora and fauna. The major objectives of these Biosphere Reserves are:

1. To conserve and maintain diversity and integrity of the natural heritage in its full form, i.e., physical environment, the flora and the fauna.
2. To provide facilities for education, awareness and training. The major goal of setting up such reserves is to preserve the genetic diversity in crucial natural ecosystems.

Question 10.
What are the names of bio-reserves regions in India?
Answer:
The following are the bio-reserves regions in India: Sundarbans, Simplipal, Gulf of Mannar, Dihang-Dibang, Nilgiri, Dibru-Saikhoula, Nanda Devi, Agasthyamalai, Nokrek, Kangchen- dzonga, Great Nicobar, Pachmarhi, Manas, Achanakmar- ‘ Amarkantak, Kachchh, Cold Desert, Seshachalam Hill, Panna.

III. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The distribution of flora and fauna is mainly determined by the climate in India. Justify this statement by giving relevant facts.
Answer:
This is true that the distribution of flora and fauna is mainly determined by the climate. Climatic factors like temperature, photoperiod and precipitation highly affect the climate of a region in India. The given points state how climatic factors affect climate and determines distribution of flora and fauna.
1. Temperature:
The character and extent of vegetation and distribution of fauna is mainly determined by temperature alongwith humidity in the air, precipitation and soil. On the slopes of the Himalayan mountains and the hills of the peninsula above the height of 915 m, the fall in the temperature affects the types of vegetation, its growth, and changes it from tropical to sub-tropical, temperate and alpine vegetation. Along with this, they affect the distribution of wildlife too.

2. Photoperiod (Sunlight):
The variation in duration of sunlight at different places is due to differences in altitude, latitudes, season and duration of the day.
Due to longer duration of sunlight, trees grow faster in summers.

3. Precipitation:
In India, almost the entire rainfall is brought in by the advancing south-west monsoon (June to September) and retreating north-east monsoon. Area of heavy rainfall have more dense vegetation and fauna as compared to other areas of less rainfall.

Question 2.
Explain the important characteristics of tropical evergreen forests.
Answer:
The main characteristics of tropical evergreen or tropical rain forests are:

1. These forests are found in areas with an annual rainfall of about 200 cm.
2. These forests grow in the areas of high temperature and high rainfall.
3. In these forests, trees grow very vigorously, reaching height of 60 m and above.
4. These forests yield hardwood trees.
5. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves. As such, these forests appear green all the year round.
6. Rainy parts of Western Ghats, Assam, West Bengal, island groups of the Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Odisha have these type of forests.
7. Ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber, cinchona and shisham are some of the commercially-important trees.

Question 3.
Explain the important features of the thorn forests.
Answer:
The important features of the thorn forests are:

1. The areas having rainfall less then 70 cm support this type of vegetation.
2. Due to lack of moisture, the trees growing here have very small leaves and they bear thorns.
3. The common species found here include babool, kikar and palm in the areas of moderate rainfall. In areas of more scanty rainfall, they consist of scrubs, shrubs and thorny bushes.
4. The main features of thorny forests are that the trees are scattered and have long plant roots penetrating deep into the soil and spreading in a radial pattern to get water. Leaves are mostly thick and small to minimize loss of water,
5. Rajasthan, Gujarat, parts of Punjab, Haryana and dry parts of Madhya Pradesh and the Deccan plateau alongwith the rain-shadow area have this type of vegetation.

Question 4.
Describe the principal features of the montane forests.
Answer:
The principal features of the montane forests are as follows:

1. In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to the corresponding change in the natural vegetation. As such there is a succession of natural vegetation belts in the same order as we see from the tropical to the tundra region.
2. The wet temperate type of forests are found between a height of 1,000 and 2,000 metres. Evergreen broad-leaf trees such as oaks and chestnuts predominate.
3. Between, 1,500 and 3,000 metres, temperate forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar, are found. These forests cover mostly the southern slope of the Himalayas and places having high altitude in southern and north-east India.
4. At high altitudes, generally more than 3,600 metres above sea level, temperate forests and grasslands give way to Alpine vegetation. Silver fir, junipers, pines and birches are the common trees of these forests.
5. They get progressively stunted as they approach the snow-line. Ultimately, through shrubs and scrubs, they merge into the Alpine grasslands. At higher altitudes, mosses and lichens form part of the tundra vegetation.
6. The common animals found in these forests are the Kashmir stag, spotted deer, wild sheep, jack rabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak, snow leopard, squirrels, shaggy horn wild ibex, bear and rare red panda, sheep and goats with thick hair.

Question 5.
Write the important characteristics of mangrove forests.
Answer:
The important characteristics of mangrove forests are:

1. These forests occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influences and as such are also known as deltaic or tidal forest.
2. White littoral forests occur at several places along the coast. Swamp forests are
   confined to the deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. ‘
3. The most peculiar feature of these forests is that they can survive and grow both in fresh as well as salt water.
4. In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, the most important tree is the Sundari tree, after which Sunderban has been named. Palm, coconut, keora and agar also grow in some parts of the delta.
5. Royal Bengal Tiger is the prominent animal in these forests. Turtles, crocodiles, gharials and snakes are also found in these forests.

Question 6.
Write a note on the commonly-used plants in India.
Answer:
India is known for its herbs and spices from ancient times. Some 2,000 plants have been described in Ayurveda. The commonly-used plants in India are :

1. Sarpagandha: It is found only in India and is used to treat blood pressure.
2. Jamun: The juice from its ripe fruit is used to prepare vinegar which is carminative and diuretic and has digestive properties. The powder of the seeds is used for controlling diabetes.
3. Aijun: The fresh juice of leaves is a cure for earache. It is also used to regulate blood pressure.
4. Babool: Leaves are used as a cure for eye sores. Its gum is used as a tonic.
5. Neem: It has high antibiotic and anti-bacterial properties.
6. Tulsi: It is used to cure cough and cold.
7. Kachnar: It is used to cure asthma and ulcers. The buds and roots are good for curing digestive problems.

Question 7.
Write a detailed note on wildlife in India.
Answer:
India has a varied fauna due to great diversity of the relief and climate. There are approximately 90,000 different species of fauna. The fresh water and marine species of fish amount to 2,546. It constitutes 12 per cent of the world’s total fish stock. India is a home to about 2,000 mammals species of birds, which account for around 13 per cent of the world’s total species of birds. India has about 5 to 8 per cent of the world’s amphibians, reptiles and mammals.

The elephants are the most magestic animals among the mammals. As they prefer hot wet forests, so they are found in the dense rainy forests of Assam in the north-east and in Kerala and Karnataka in the south. Camels are found mainly in hot and arid Thar Desert of Rajasthan. Wild asses dominate the arid areas of Rann of Kachchh One-homed rhinoceros also fall in the category of mammals.

They live in swampy and marshy land of Assam and West Bengal. The other animals included in the category of mammals are the Indian bison, Indian buffalo, nilgai (blue bull), chausingha (four-homed antelope), black buck, gazel and deer.

1. Animals of prey:
Among the animals of prey, Indian lion and tiger are remarkable. Lion’s natural habitat is confined to the Gir forests of Saurashtra in Gujarat. The famous Bengal tiger has its natural habitat in the Sunderban in the tidal forests occupying the edge of the Ganga delta. The other animals belonging to cat family are leopards, clouded leopards and snow leopards.

2. Animals of the Himalayan Regions:
Snow leopards, sheep, mountain goats, the ibex, the shrew bear and the red panda are the important animals of the Himalayas. Ladakh’s freezing high altitudes are home to yak, the shaggy horned wild ox, the Tibetan antelope, the bharal (blue sheep), wild sheep and the kiang (Tibetan wild ass). .

3. Monkeys:
Indian forests are homes of several species of monkeys. The most famous is the langur.

4. Birds:
India has a rich variety of beautiful and colourful birds. They include pheasants, geese, ducks, mynahs, parakeets, pigeons, cranes, hombills and sun birds. Most bird species inhabit forests, but some have their natural habitats in swamps and wet lands.

5. Water animals:
In the rivers, lakes and coastal areas, turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found.

Question 8.
What steps have been taken by the government of India to protect the flora and fauna of the country ?
Answer:
Flora and fauna are essential for the survival of human beings and to maintain the ecological balance. Due to excessive exploitation of the plants and animal resources by human beings some of them are on the verge of extinction and some have already become extinct.

To stop the indiscriminate destruction of flora and fauna, the following steps have been taken by the government of India :
1. Eighteen biosphere reserves have been establish in the country to protect flora and fauna. Four out of these, the Sundarbans in the West Bengal, Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, the Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu, the Nilgiris (Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu) have been included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves.

2. Financial and technical assistance is provided to various botanical gardens by the government since 1992.

3. 104 National Parks, 543 Wildlife Sanctuaries and Zoological Gardens have been established to take care of this natural heritage.

Question 1.
For identification only:
Vegetation Type: Tropical Evergreen Forests, Tropical Deciduous Forests, Thorn Forests, Montane Forests and Mangrove Forests.
Answer:

Question 2.
For Locating and Labelling:
1. National Parks: Corbett, Kaziranga, Ranthambore, Shivpuri, Kanha, Simlipal and Manas.
2. Wildlife Sanctuaries: Sariska, Mudumalai, Rajaji, Dachigam.
3. National Parks: Tadoba, Sanjay Gandhi, Keloadeo, Rajgir, Bendipur, Guindy.
Answer:

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Circles Ex 10.1 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Circles Exercise 10.1

Question 1.
How many tangents can a circle have?
Solution :
A circle can have infinite number of tangents.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) A tangent to a circle intersects it in ________ point (s).
(ii) A line intersecting a circle in two points is called a _______.
(iii) A circle can have _________ parallel tangents at the most.
(iv) The common point of a tangent to a circle and the circle is called ________.
Solution :
(i) one,
(ii) sccant,
(iii) two,
(iv) point of contact.

Question 3.
A tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5 cm meets a line through the centre O at a point Q so that OQ = 12 cm. Length PQ is:

(A) 12 cm
(B) 13 cm
(C) 8.5 cm
(D) \(\sqrt{119}\) cm.
Solution :
PQ² = OQ² – OP² (Using Pythagoras theorem)
= (12)² – (5)²
= 144 – 25
= 119.
PQ = \(\sqrt{119}\) cm.

Question 4.
Draw a circle and two lines parallel to a given line such that one is a tangent and the other, a secant to the circle.
Solution :
AB is the given line. CD is the secant and PQ is the tangent to the circle at point R.

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 14 Statistics Ex 14.4 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 14 Statistics Exercise 14.4

Question 1.
The following distribution gives the daily income of 50 workers of a factory:

Convert the distribution above to a less than type cumulative frequency distribution, and draw its ogive.
Solution:

Question 2.
During the medical check-up of 35 students of a class, their weights were recorded as follows:

Weight (in kg)	No. of students
Less than 38	0
Less than 40	3
Less than 42	5
Less than 44	9
Less than 46	14
Less than 48	28
Less than 50	32
Less than 52	35

Draw a less than type ogive for the given data. Hence obtain the median weight from the graph and verify the result by using the formula.
Solution:

Weight (in kg)	Frequency	Cumulative frequency
36 – 38	0	0
38 – 40	3	3
40 – 42	2	5
42 – 44	4	9
44 – 46	5	14 = cf
46 – 48	14 = f	28
48 – 50	4	32
50 – 52	3	35
	n = 35

\(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}=\frac{35}{2}=17.5\)
Plot the points (38, 0) (40, 3) (42, 5) (44, 9) (46, 14) (48, 28) (50, 32) (52, 35)
Median = l + \(\left[\frac{\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}-\mathrm{cf}}{\mathrm{f}}\right]\) × h
= 46 + \(\left[\frac{17.5-14}{14}\right]\) × 2
= 46 + \(\frac{3.5 \times 2}{14}\)
= 46 + 0.5= 46.5.

Question 3.
The following table gives production yield per hectare of wheat of 100 farms of a village:

Change the distribution to a more than type distribution, and draw its ogive.
Solution:

Production yield (in kg/hec)	Number of farms	c.f.
More than 50	2	100
More than 55	8	98
More than 60	12	90
More than 65	24	78
More than 70	38	54
More than 75	16	16

∴ Co-ordinate points are (50, 100), (55, 98), (60, 90), (65, 78), (70, 54) and (75, 16).

JAC Board Class 9th Science Important Questions Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are examples of …………….
(a) micronutrients
(b) macronutrients
(c) fertilizers
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(b) macronutrients

Question 2.
Cyprinus and Parthenium are types of …………….
(a) diseases
(b) pesticides
(c) weeds
(d) pathogens
Answer:
(c) weeds

Question 3.
Using fertilisers in farming is an example of …………… .
(a) no cost production
(b) low – cost production
(c) high – cost production
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) high – cost production

Question 4.
What is the other name for Apis cerana indica?
(a) Indian cow
(b) Indian buffalo
(c) Indian honeybee
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Indian honeybee

Question 5.
The management and production of fish is called …………… .
(a) pisciculture
(b) apiculture
(c) sericulture
(d) aquaculture
Answer:
(a) pisciculture

Question 6.
Pasturage is related to …………… .
(a) cattle
(b) fishery
(c) apiculture
(d) sericulture
Answer:
(c) apiculture

Question 7.
What is the process of growing two or more crops in a definite pattern called?
(a) Crop rotation
(b) Intercropping
(c) Mixed cropping
(d) Organic cropping
Answer:
(b) Intercropping

Question 8.
The kharif season extends from …………… .
(a) November to April
(b) June to October
(c) March to November
(d) December to March
Answer:
(b) June to October

Question 9.
For mixed cropping, which of the following combinations of crops is not suitable?
(a) Wheat + maize
(b) Wheat + gram
(c) Wheat + mustard
(d) Groundnut + sunflower
Answer:
(a) Wheat + maize

Question 10.
Catla, Rohu and Mrigals constitute …………… .
(a) marine fishes
(b) brackish water fishes
(c) fresh water fishes
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) fresh water fishes

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 11.
Madhu visited a dairy farm with her friends. There they saw the various kinds of cattle kept in sheds, food given to them and so on. What are the main components of feed provided to the cattle?
(a) Roughage
(b) Concentrates
(c) Water
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 12.
Find out the correct sentences.
(i) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants.
(ii) Cross between two varieties is called interspecific hybridisation.
(iii) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives genetically modified crop.
(iv) Cross between plants of two species is called intervarietal hybridisation.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i) and (iii)

Question 13.
The characteristic which is not chosen for selective breeding in dairy animals is
(a) lactation period
(b) resistance to diseases
(c) good shelter
(d) nutritional requirement
Answer:
(c) good shelter

Assertion Reason Questions

Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions and the Reasons have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both the statements are false.
1. Assertion: Organic matter is important for crop production.
Reason: Organic matter provides major essential nutrients to the plant.
Answer:
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

2. Assertion: Manure is better than fertilisers in maintaining soil fertility.
Reason: Manure improves soil structure and increases the water holding capacity of soil.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: It is better to grow soyabean with maize in the same field.
Reason: Root nodules of soyabean plants have nitrogen fixing bacteria which enrich the soil with nitrogen.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

4. Assertion: Mixed cropping is a good practice in agriculture.
Reason: By mixed cropping, number of weeds in the field can be reduced.
Answer:
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

5. Assertion: Grains to be stored should have low moisture level.
Reason: Low moisture level in grains inhibits the growth of bacteria and fungi.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State one demerit with composite fish culture system.
Answer:
Many fishes breed only during monsoon so hormonal stimulation has to be given. Also, good quality fish seeds are not available.

Question 2.
State one importance of photoperiod in agriculture.
Answer:
Photoperiod in agriculture provides adequate light for flowering.

Question 3.
Name two micronutrients and two macronutrients which plants take from the soil.
Answer:
(a) Macronutrients are: calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg)
(b) Micronutrients are: boron (B), chloride (Cl)

Question 4.
How does catla differ from mrigal?
Answer:
Catla belongs to genus Catla while mrigal belongs to genus Cirrhinus. Catla is a surface feeder and native to the Northern waters of India while mrigal is a bottom – feeder and native to the Ganges and Brahm putra rivers of India.

Question 5.
Name the two vitamins which are added in the poultry feed.
Answer:
Vitamins A and K.

Question 6.
From where do plants acquire the following nutrients?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
Answer:
(a) Soil (b) Water

Question 7.
Which nutrients are supplied by cereals and pulses?
Answer:
Carbohydrates and proteins are supplied by cereals and pulses, respectively.

Question 8.
Name any two weeds of crop field.
Answer:
Xanthium (chota dhatura), Parthenium (gajar ghas), Cyperinus rotundus (motha).

Question 9.
Define animal husbandry.
Answer:
Animal husbandry is the practice of management and care of farm animals by humans for profit.

Question 10.
Mention two exam pies of crop combinations that are grown in mixed cropping.
Answer:
Some combinations of mixed cropping are:
(a) Wheat and mustard
(b) Maize and urad (pulse)
(c) Groundnut and sunflower

Question 11.
(a) Name an exotic variety of honeybee grown in India.
(b) What is the rearing of fish on a large scale called?
Answer:
(a) Apis cerana indica
(b) Pisciculture

Question 12.
Name two exotic cattle breeds with long lactation periods?
Answer:
The period of milk production after the birth of a calf is called lactation period. Jersey and Brown Swiss are two exotic cattle breeds having long lactation periods.

Question 13.
Between broiler and layer, which one matures earlier?
Answer:
Broilers have fast growth rate.

Question 14.
State the difference between compost and vermicompost.
Answer:

Compost	Vermicompost
The compost is obtained by decomposition of organic waste like animal excreta, plant waste, etc., naturally due to decomposition by bacteria.	To fasten the process of decomposition redworms are added to the organic matter to obtain compost.

Question 15.
Name two varieties of food required for milch animals.
Answer:
(a) Food to keep animals healthy,
(b) Food to increase lactation.

Question 16.
Define apiculture.
Answer:
Keeping bee for obtaining honey commercially is called apiculture.

Question 17.
Define hybridisation.
Answer:
Hybridisation refers to crossing between genetically dissimilar plants to obtain better variety of crops.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 18.
A farmer wants to use a crop variety that can give a good yield. What should he do to select the variety to get the desired result?
Answer:
A good crop yield can be obtained by selecting varieties having useful characteristics such as disease resistance, response to fertilizers and high yields.

Question 19.
A bee – keeper tries to collect a good yield of honey from his apiaries. However, he is unable to collect adequate honey. Suggest him a way to produce more honey.
Answer:
The bee – keeper should maintain his apiaries in between the fields of flowering plants or pasturage. This will allow bees to collect plenty of nectar and pollen from the variety of flowers. Also, the taste of honey depends on the variety of flowers available to the bees.

Question 20.
A dairy farmer wants to maintain a good and clean shelter for his dairy animals. How can he do this so that his animals stay healthy and produce clean milk?
Answer:
The shelter for dairy animals should have following features.

1. It should be well – ventilated to allow fresh air to enter.
2. It should have leakage – proof roof to protect them from rain, heat and cold.
3. The floor of cattle shed should be sloping for easy cleaning and keeping it dry.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between a mullet and a prawn.
Answer:
Mullet is a type of fish while prawn is a crustacean. Both live in water and serve as a food supplements worldwide. Prawn belongs to the phylum arthropoda, whereas mullet belongs to the group of pisces. So one can use their characteristic features to distinguish between the two.

Question 2.
What are genetically modified (GM) crops?
Answer:
GM (Genetically Modified) crops are the crops in which a gene from some other organism, like another plant or a microorganism, is inserted to get desired characteristics such as disease resistance, response to fertilisers, product quality and high yields. For example, varieties of cotton, maize, papaya, soyabean, sugar beet, squash, etc., have been modified genetically.

Question 3.
Give the technical terms for milk -producing females and farm labour animals.
Answer:
Milk – producing females are called milch animals (dairy animals), while the ones used for farm labour are called draught animals.

Question 4.
Mention the preventive and control measures used before the grains are stored.
Answer:
Cleaning of the produce before storage, proper drying of the produce first in sunlight and then in shade, and fumigation using chemicals that can kill pests.

Question 5.
What is the effect of deficiency of nutrients?
Answer:
Deficiency of nutrients affects physiological processes in plants including reproduction, growth, susceptibility to diseases, yield, etc. General health of the plants depends on the nutrients.

Question 6.
In what way does manure help in soil fertility?
Answer:
Manure helps in enriching the soil with mainly organic matter and small quantities of nutrients. The bulk of organic matter in the form of manure helps in increasing water holding capacity in sandy soil. In clayey soil, the large quantities of organic matter help in drainage and avoiding waterlogging.

Question 7.
Give two advantages of using chemical fertilisers over manure.
Answer:
Two advantages of using chemical fertilisers over manure are as follows:

1. Chemical fertilisers are ‘nutrient specific’ and can provide specific elements like nitrogen, phosphorus or potassium to the soil in any desired quantity. Manure is, however, not nutrient specific.
2. Chemical fertilisers, being soluble in water, are readily absorbed by the crops. This is not so in the case of manures.

Question 8.
What is green revolution?
Answer:
Bumper production of cereals (grains) using high-yielding varieties (HYV), higher dose of fertiliser and better modes of irrigation is known as green revolution.

Question 9.
What are pesticides? Give four methods of pest control.
Answer:
Pesticides are the chemicals used to control weeds, insects, rodents, fungi and diseases of plants. They include weedicides, insecticides and fungicides. Some methods of pest control are:

1. Use of resistant varieties
2. Optimum time of sowing the seeds
3. Follow crop rotation and cropping pattern
4. Deep ploughing of the field in summers to destroy undesirable weeds and pathogens.

Question 10.
Define organic farming.
Answer:
It is the farming in which no chemical fertilisers, pesticides or herbicides are used. It uses all organic matter for the growth of plants like manure, neem leaves as pesticides during grain storage, etc.

Question 11:
What desirable traits are focused to develop hybrids by cross-breeding indigenous and exotic breeds of fowl?
Answer:
Desirable traits are focused to develop hybrids by cross-breeding indigenous and exotic breeds of fowl:

1. Number and quality of chicks
2. Dwarf broiler parent for commercial chick production as they require less space and food.
3. Summer adaptation capacity a tolerance to high temperature
4. Low maintenance requirements
5. Reduction in the size of the layer with ability to utilise more fibrous and cheaper diets which are formulated using agricultural by – products.

Question 12.
What decides the quality and quantity of honey production in an apiary?
Answer:
The quality and quantity of honey production in an apiary:

1. For quality of honey: The pasturage, i.e., the kind of flowers available to the bees for nectar and pollen collection will determine the taste of the honey.
2. For quantity of honey: Variety of bee used for the collection of honey. For example, A. mellifera is used to increase yield of honey.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 13.
What would happen if poultry birds are larger in size and have no summer adaptation capacity? In order to get small-sized poultry birds having summer adaptability, what method will be employed?
Answer:
The maintenance of optimum temperature is required for better egg production in poultry farming. The large size of birds with no adaptability to high temperature may cause decline in egg production. To obtain small-size birds with high – temperature adaptability during summer season, cross – breeding of poultry birds for desired characteristics can be done. Small size is also needed for better housing and less feed.

Question 14.
Figure below shows the two crop fields (plots A and B) that have been treated by manures and chemical fertilisers respectively, keeping other environmental factors same. Observe the graph and answer the following questions:
(a) Why does plot B show sudden increase and then gradual decrease in yield?
(b) Why is the highest peak in plot A graph slightly delayed?
(c) What is the reason for the different pattern of the two graphs?

Answer:
(a) The addition of chemical fertilisers initially leads to rise in crop yield because of the release of the NPK (nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium) and some other nutrients in high quantity. The gradual decline in yield, as shown in plot B, is due to the continuous use of these fertilisers, which cause killing of useful microbes in the soil and alter the chemical composition of soil.

(b) Manures supply nutrients to the soil slowly, as these contain organic matter in high amount. Therefore, manures enrich the soil with nutrients slowly and continuously for a long time. This is the reason that the highest peak in plot A is delayed but maintained for longer period.

(c) In case of plot A, it indicates that the use of manure remains beneficial for longer duration in terms of crop yield and remains high even when the quantity of manure is increased. In case of plot B, chemical fertilisers when used for longer period cause various problems. The loss of soil fertility occurs due to killing of useful microbes in the soil that reduces decomposition of organic matter.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two fresh initiatives taken to save water and increase the water availability for agriculture.
Answer:
Two new irrigation systems have been developed to save water and increase the availability of water to the crops.
These are:
1. Drip irrigation system: Here, water is supplied to the roots of the plants directly in a drop wise manner. This prevents unnecessaiy wastage of water.

2. Sprinkler system: Here, water is sprinkled over the crops like it happens in rain. So, water is distributed uniformly and absorbed by the soil in a better way.

Question 2.
What are the factors for which variety improvement of crop is done?
Answer:
The factors for which variety improvement of crop is done are as follows:

1. Higher yield: To increase productivity of the crop per acre.
2. Improved quality: The quality of crop products varies from crop to crop, e.g., protein quality is important in pulses, oil quality in oilseeds, longer shelf life in fruits and vegetables.
3. Biotic and abiotic resistance: Biotic factors are the diseases, insects and nematodes while abiotic factors are drought, salinity, water logging, heat, cold and frost which affect the crop productivity. Varieties resistant to these factors can increase the crop production.
4. Change in maturity duration: Shorter maturity period of crop reduces the cost of crop production and makes the variety economical. Uniform maturity makes the harvesting process easy and reduces losses during harvesting.
5. Wider adaptability: It allows the crops to be grown under different climatic conditions in different areas.
6. Desirable agronomic characteristics: It increases productivity, (e) g., tallness and profuse branching are desirable characters for fodder crops; while dwarfness is desired in cereals, so that less nutrients are consumed by these crops.

Question 3.
Define manure. What are its three different types?
Answer:
Manure contains large quantities of organic matter and also supplies small quantities of nutrients to the soil. It is prepared by the decomposition of animal excreta and plant waste. It helps in enriching the soil with nutrients and organic matter and increasing soil fertility. On the basis of the kind of biological waste used to make manure, it can be classified into three types:

1. Compost
2. Vermicompost
3. Green manure

1. Compost: It can be farm waste material such as livestock excreta (cow dung, etc.), vegetable waste, animal refuse, domestic waste, sewage, straw, eradicated weeds, etc. These materials are decomposed in pits and this process of decomposition is called composting.

2. Vermicompost: The compost which is made by the decomposition of plant and animal refuse with the help of redworms is called vermicompost.

3. Green manure: Prior to the sowing of the crop seeds, some plants like sun hemp or guar are grown and then mulched by ploughing them into the soil. These green plants thus turn into green manure which helps in enriching the soil in nitrogen and phosphorus.

Question 4.
What are fertilisers? Excessive use of fertilisers is not advisable. Explain.
Answer:
Fertilisers are commercially produced plant nutrients. Fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium to the crops. They are used to ensure good vegetative growth (leaves, branches and flowers), giving rise to healthy plants. Fertilisers are an important factor in the higher yields of high – cost farming.
Excessive use of fertilisers is not advisable as:

1. It leads to soil and water pollution.
2. It can destroy the fertility of soil.

As the soil is not replenished, microorganisms in the soil are harmed by fertilisers.

Question 5.
How does intercropping differ from mixed cropping?
Or
What are the different cropping systems?
Answer:
It includes different ways of growing crops so as to get the maximum benefit. These different ways include the following:
1. Mixed cropping: Mixed cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land, e.g., wheat + gram, or wheat + mustard, or groundnut + sunflower. This reduces disease risk and gives some insurance against failure of one of the crops.

2. Intercropping: It involves growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite proportion or pattern. A few rows of one crop alternate with a few rows of the other crop, e.g., soyabean + maize, or finger millet (bajra) + cowpea (lobia). The crops are selected such that their nutrient requirements are different. This ensures maximum utilisation of the nutrients supplied and also prevents pests and diseases from spreading to all the plants belonging to one crop in a field. This way, both the crops can give better yield.

3. Crop rotation: The growing of different crops on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession is known as crop rotation. Depending upon the duration, crop rotation is done for different crop combinations. The availability of moisture and irrigation facilities decide the choice of the crop to be cultivated after one harvest. If crop rotation is done properly, two or three crops can be grown in a year with good harvest.

Question 6.
Explain the various methods of irrigation in India.
Answer:
Proper irrigation is very important for the success of crops. Different kinds of irrigation systems include wells, canals, rivers and tanks.

1. Wells: These are of two types, viz., dug wells and tube wells. In a dug well, water is collected from water bearing strata Tube wells can tap water from the deeper strat(a) From these wells, water is lifted by pumps for irrigation.
2. Canal system: Water from the main river or reservoir is carried by canal into the field which is divided into branch canals having further distributaries to irrigate the field.
3. River lift system: In areas where canal flow is insufficient or irregular due to inadequate reservoir release,
   the lift system is more rational. Water is directly drawn from the rivers for supplementing irrigation in areas close to rivers,
4. Tanks: These are small storage reservoirs which intercept and store the run-off of smaller catchment areas.

Question 7.
Describe the different types of fisheries.
Answer:
The different types of fisheries are marine fisheries, mariculture, inland fisheries, aquaculture and capture fishing.

1. Marine fisheries: They are caught using fishing nets. Large schools of fishes are located by satellites. Some are farmed in sea water.
2. Mariculture: They are cultured in seawater. This culture of fisheries is called mariculture.
3. Inland fisheries: The fisheries in fresh water resources like canals, ponds, reservoirs and rivers are called inland fisheries.
4. Aquaculture: Culture of fish done in different water bodies is called aquaculture.
5. Capture fishing: It is the method of obtaining fishes from natural resources, both marine and fresh water.

Question 8.
List six facilities that must be provided to cattle to ensure their good health and production of clean milk.
Answer:
Following facilities must be provided to cattle:

1. Regular brushing to remove dirt and loosen hair.
2. Well – ventilated roofed sheds for shelter that can protect them from rain, heat and cold.
3. The floor of the cattle shed needs to be sloping so as to keep them dry and to facilitate cleaning and spraying of disinfectants at regular intervals.
4. A balanced diet should be given which contains:
   • roughage which provides high amount of fibre, and
   • concentrate that provides high levels of proteins and other nutrients.
5. Certain food additives containing micronutrients that promote the health and milk output of dairy animals.
6. Vaccinations of farm animals, at proper time, against major viral and bacterial diseases.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 9.
Meena belongs to an agricultural family. She attended a seminar of agricultural practices organised by her school. By listening to the research work of scientists, she learned that spraying pesticides on crops is very harmful for the environment. Next day, she saw the stored tanks of pesticides at her home and told her parents not to use these in excessive quantity.
1. Why are pesticides used in crop fields?
2. What are the various types of pesticides used by the farmers?
3. How can Meena convince her parents to stop using pesticides in large quantities?
4. What alternatives could Meena suggest to her parents instead of using pesticides?
Answer:

1. The pesticides are used in fields to protect the plants from disease – causing organisms, i.e., bacteria, fungi, viruses, nematodes and mycoplasmas.
2. Depending on the type of organisms, they destroy, pesticides can be of the following types.
   • Herbicides (for weeds)
   • Insecticides (for insects)
   • Fungicides (for fungi)
   • Bactericides (for bacteria)
3. Meena can tell her parents that regular and excessive use of pesticides contaminates water and soil, causing pollution in the environment. The pesticides affect the quality of food and leave residues on food items which may affect the health of consumers.
4. She could suggest the use of biological control methods or use of disease-resistant varieties of crops.

Activity 1
Visit a weed – infested field in the month of July or August and make a list of the weeds and insect pests in the field.

Observations:

1. Do it yourself.
2. Weeds are unwanted plants in the cultivated field, e.g., Xanthium (chota dhatura), Parthenium (gajar ghas) and Cyperinus rotundus (motha). They compete for food, space and light.
3. Some insect pests of crop fields include aphids, blister beetles, common stalk borer, com borer, flour beetle, etc.

Activity 2
Visit a local poultry farm. Observe the types of breeds and note the type of ration, housing and lighting facilities given to them. Identify the layers and broilers.

Observations:

1. Do it yourself and note down:
   • types of breeds of poultry: Aseel, white Leghorn, Rhode Island Red.
   • types of ration, housing and lighting facilities given to them.
2. Identify the layers, for example, White leghorn, Rhode Island Red, and broilers, for example, Plymouth Rock or Aseel or any other.

Value Based Questions

Question 1.
A group of eco – club students made a compost pit in the school, they collected all the biodegradable waste from the school canteen and used it to prepare the compost.
1. Name two wastes that can be used for the compost and two wastes obtained from canteen which cannot be used for the compost making?
2. What is the other important component required for making the compost?
3. What values of eco – club students are reflected in this act?
Answer:
The compost:

1. Two wastes used for compost are vegetable peels and fruit peels. Two waste materials that cannot be used as compost are polythene bags and plastic items.
2. Bacteria and fungi present in soil are the other important component for making compost.
3. Eco – club students reflect the value of group work and responsible citizens.

Question 2.
Large number of Bhetki fish died and got crushed in the turbines of hydroelectric power stations while
they migrated from river to sea The environmentalist gave power plant the solution of this problem. Now all Bhetki fish is removed with the help of a special technique and hence do not enter the turbines to crush and die.
1. Suggest two different varieties of fish.
2. What value of environmentalist is reflected in the above case?
Answer:
The turbines to crush and die:

1. Two varieties of fish are bony and cartilaginous.
2. Environmentalist showed the value of concern and caring individuals.

JAC Class 9 Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Science Important Questions Chapter 14 Natural Resources

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Most of the water on the earth’s surface is found in
(a) lakes
(b) rivers
(c) oceans and seas
(d) underground
Answer:
(c) oceans and seas

Question 2.
Ozone hole was first observed over
(a) Antarctica
(b) Australia
(c) Arctic ocean
(d) America
Answer:
(a) Antarctica

Question 3.
Nitrogen fixing bacteria cannot fix N2 in the presence of
(a) CO₂
(b) N₂
(c) O₂
(d) light
Answer:
(c) O₂

Question 4.
Which of the following compounds is not degraded by any biological process?
(a) CFC_s
(b) CH₄
(c) Glucose
(d) Nitrites
Answer:
(a) CFC_s

Question 5.
Nitrogen – fixing bacteria are found in the roots of
(a) wheat
(b) maize
(c) pulses
(d) sugarcane
Answer:
(c) pulses

Question 6.
Venus and Mars have no life because
(a) they have no atmosphere
(b) their atmosphere has only oxygen
(c) their atmosphere has 95% – 97% carbon dioxide
(d) their atmosphere has 95% – 97% oxygen
Answer:
(c) their atmosphere has 95%-97% carbon dioxide

Question 7.
Which one of the following organisms are very sensitive to the levels of contaminants like sulphur dioxide in air?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Algae
(d) Lichens
Answer:
(d) Lichens

Question 8.
Burning of fossil fuels adds
(a) CO₂, SO₂, NO₂ gases in air
(b) C, SO₂, N₂ gases in air
(c) O₂, SO₃, NO₃ gases in air
(d) H₂O, CO₂ NO₂, gases in air
Answer:
(a) CO₂, SO₂, NO₂ gases in air

Question 9.
Nitrogen fixation can be done by
(a) Industries
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Lightening
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 10.
On moon the temperature ranges from – 190°C to 110°C. This is due to
(a) absence of water bodies
(b) presence of water bodies
(c) absence of biogeochemical cycles
(d) absence of atmosphere
Answer:
(d) absence of atmosphere

Question 11.
Depletion of ozone molecules in the stratosphere is due to
(a) chlorine compounds
(b) fluorine compounds
(c) halogen compounds
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) halogen compounds

Question 12.
The life supporting zone of the earth is
(a) lithosphere
(b) hydrosphere
(c) atmosphere
(d) biosphere
Answer:
(d) biosphere

Question 13.
The organism which helps in the formation of soil is
(a) bacterium
(b) moss
(c) lichen
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question 14.
The outermost crust of the earth is called
(a) atmosphere
(b) exosphere
(c) lithosphere
(d) hydrosphere
Answer:
(c) lithosphere

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 15.
The atmosphere of the earth is heated by radiations which are mainly
(a) radiated by the sun
(b) re – radiated by land
(c) re – radiated by water
(d) re – radiated by land and water
Answer:
(c) re – radiated by water

Question 16.
The term “water pollution” can be defined in several ways. Which of the following statements does not give the correct definition?
(a) The addition of undersirable substances to water bodies
(b) The removal of desirable substances from water bodies
(c) A change in pressure of the water bodies
(d) A change in temperature of the water bodies
Answer:
(c) A change in pressure of the water bodies

Question 17.
When we breathe in air, nitrogen also goes inside along with oxygen. What is the fate of this nitrogen?
(a) It moves along with oxygen into the cells.
(b) It comes out with the CO₂ during exhalation.
(c) It is absorbed only by the nasal cells.
(d) Nitrogen concentration is already more in the cells so it is not at all absorbed.
Answer:
(b) It comes out with the CO₂ during exhalation.

Assertion Reason Questions

Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions and the Reasons have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both the statements are false.
1. Assertion: Plants cannot utilise
nitrogen directly from the atmosphere. Reason: Plants can only use nitrates and nitrites.
Answer:
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. Assertion: Water vapour is not a greenhouse gas.
Reason: Water vapour does not contribute in global warming.
Answer:
(D) Both the statements are false.

3. Assertion: The moon has very cold and very hot temperature variations.
Reason: Moon does not possess the atmosphere.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

4. Assertion: It is easier to fly a kite near a sea shore.
Reason: There is a regular unidirectional wind from sea to land.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

5. Assertion: Legumes revive the soil fertility.
Reason: Microbes in the root nodules of legumes fix atmospheric nitrogen.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is biosphere?
Answer:
The life – supporting zone of earth where atmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere interact and make life is known as biosphere.

Question 2.
What are the biotic and abiotic components of biosphere?
Answer:
Abiotic or physical components of biosphere consist of geographical conditions such as the temperature, rainfall, soil, seasons and the climate, while biotic components include animals, plants, fungi and bacteria.

Question 3.
What percentage of oxygen and nitrogen is present in the air?
Answer:
About 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen is present in the air.

Question 4.
Name the air pollutants released by the industries.
Answer:
Industrial air pollutants are sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, hydrogen sulphide, fumes of acids, dust, particles of unbumt carbon, lead, asbestos and even cement.

Question 5.
What are the two factors that cause changes in our atmosphere?
Answer:
(a) Heating of air, and
(b) formation of water vapour.

Question 6.
State any two harmful effects of air pollution.
Answer:
Two harmful effects of air pollution are:
(a) Respiratory problems
(b) Global warming

Question 7.
What is soil?
Answer:
Soil is a mixture of small particles of rocks of different sizes, humus and microscopic life.

Question 8.
State the major source of minerals in the soil.
Answer:
The mineral nutrients present in a particular soil depend on the rocks it was formed from. This means that the major source of minerals in a soil is their parent rocks.

Question 9.
What is top soil?
Answer:
The topmost layer of the soil that contains humus and living organisms in addition to the soil particles is called top soil.

Question 10.
Name two chemicals that are depleting ozone layer.
Answer:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC_s) and halogenated ozone depleting substance (ODS).

Question 11.
Name two greenhouse gases.
Answer:
Methane and carbon dioxide.

Question 12.
Define nitrification.
Answer:
The biological conversion of ammonia into nitrites and then oxidation of nitrites to nitrates is called nitrification.

Question 13.
Name a nitrogen fixing bacterium.
Answer:
Rhizobium

Question 14.
Define humus.
Answer:
The fertile dark substance present in the topmost layer of the soil which contains dead remains of plants and animal wastes, like excreta, that adds nutrients to the soil is called humus.

Question 15.
What is denitrification?
Answer:
Conversion of nitrates into free nitrogen is called denitrification.

Question 16.
How does carbon exist in all life forms?
Answer:
Carbon is present in all life forms in the form of proteins, carbohydrates, fats, nucleic acids and vitamins.

Question 17.
Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer:
Proteins and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).

Question 18.
Name the two gases given out by the burning of fossil fuels, which dissolve in rain to form acid rain.
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and oxides of nitrogen.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 19.
A person is burning a huge amount of waste in an open are(a) Which gas is being utilised for burning process and which gas is released into the atmosphere?
Answer:
The process of burning or combustion utilises oxygen and produces carbon dioxide. Thus, oxygen gas is being utilised in the process, and carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere.

Question 20.
A huge amount of plant and animal waste is being dumped in a lake. What will be the condition of lake after some time?
Answer:
When organic waste (plant and animal residue) is dumped into a water body, the biological oxygen demand of the water increases. This is because the decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms needs more oxygen in water. As a result, there arises oxygen deficiency in water, which leads to the death of other aquatic organisms.

Question 21.
Some industries release hot water or very cold water into water sources directly. Why should this be stopped?
Answer:
When excessive hot water or cold water is released into water bodies, it may affect some aquatic organisms. This is because these organisms live in a certain range of temperature and any change in this range (due to the release of excessive hot water or cold water) may cause threat to their survival.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The atmosphere acts as a blanket. How?
Answer:
The blanket of atmosphere, which is covering the earth, keeps the average temperature of the earth fairly steady during the day and even during the course of the whole year. The atmosphere prevents the sudden increase in temperature during the daylight hours. And during the night, it slows down the escape of heat into outer space.

Question 2.
What are the consequences of global warming?
Answer:
(a) An increase in temperature of earth even by 1°C may lead to the melting of ice on the poles.
(b) The melting of ice will result in rise of sea level.
(c) Due to rise in sea level, many coastal cities will be flooded or submerged.
(d) Increase in temperature of earth results in change in weather and may cause excessive raining or drought or extreme hot or cold weather conditions.

Question 3.
Name the various organisms involved in nitrogen cycle.
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen fixing bacteria, e.g., Rhizobium, Azotobacter.
(b) Bacteria which convert complex nitrogenous organic compounds (proteins) into ammonia, e.g., Clostridium, Proteus.
(c) Nitrifying bacteria which convert ammonia into nitrates, e.g., Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.
(d) Denitrifying bacteria, e.g., Pseudomonas.

Question 4.
What does the presence of smog in an area indicate?
Answer:
The presence of smog in an area indicates the high percentage of smoke released in the air by combustion of fossil fuels in industries, thermal power plants or automobiles. It is an indicator of air pollution.

Question 5.
Write three ways to prevent soil pollution.
Answer:
(a) By judicious use of fertilizers and pesticides.
(b) By proper management of disposal of household waste.
(c) By practising intensive cropping and terrace farming.

Question 6.
How is greenhouse effect related to global warming?
Answer:
Higher concentration of greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, etc., in the atmosphere causes absorption of reflected heat and avoids their escape into the space. This phenomenon is called greenhouse effect. This leads to rise in the temperature of earth’s atmosphere throughout the world causing global warming. This global warming caused by greenhouse gases like CO₂, CH₄, etc., leads to the melting of glacier and polar ice. This would cause rise in the level of sea and other climate changes. Hence, we can say that global warming is a consequence of greenhouse effect.

Question 7.
What is air pollution? How is it caused? Write its two harmful effects.
Answer:
The contamination of air with unwanted gases, particles like dust, etc, which makes it unfit for inhalation is called air pollution.

• Causes:
  1. (a) Burning of fossil fuels releases SO₂, CO₂ and NO₂ gases.
  2. (b) Burning of fuels releases unbumt carbon particles and smoke.
  3. (c) Smoke from industries and vehicles.
• Harmful effects:
  1. (a) It causes respiratory problems.
  2. (b) It causes allergies, asthma, cancer and heart diseases.

Question 8.
What is acid rain? Write its harmful effects.
Answer:
The gases released due to combustion of fossil fuels are SO₂, NO₂ and CO₂. These gases remain suspended in the air. When it rains, the rainwater mixes with these gases to form sulphuric acid, nitrous acid, carbonic acid and comes down on the surface of the earth in the form of acid rain.

(a) It corrodes statues, monuments of marble, buildings, etc.
(b) It makes the soil acidic.
(c) It damages crops and plantations.

Question 9.
What is water pollution? Give its causes and harmful effects.
Answer:
When water is contaminated with unwanted substances and chemicals which make it unfit for use and cause diseases, it is called water pollution.

• Causes:
  1. (a) Sewage from towns, cities is dumped in the water.
  2. (b) Fertilizers, pesticides, insecticides get washed away into the waterbodies from farmlands.
  3. (c) Effluent from industries.
• Harmful effects:
  1. (a) Polluted water, when consumed, causes many diseases which are water – borne, like cholera, typhoid, etc.
  2. (b) Mercury in salts dumped by industries causes a brain disorder called Minamata disease.
  3. (c) Many life – forms which are susceptible to temperature changes die.

Question 10.
What is the difference between fog and smog? Give two harmful effects of smog.
Answer:
The water vapour present in air when condenses due to very low temperature is called fog. The smoke released in the air, due to burning of fuels, mixes with the fog and forms smog. Harmful effects of smog: It decreases the visibility and causes adverse effect on aeroplane landing, railways and road transport.

Question 11.
State in brief the role of photosynthesis and respiration in carbon-cycle in nature.
Answer:
Photosynthesis is performed by green plants in the presence of sunlight and it converts carbon dioxide into carbohydrates that are utilised by other living organisms through food chain. Oxygen is replenished in nature only through the process of photosynthesis. Oxygen enters the living world through the process of respiration, i.e., it oxidises the food material (glucose molecules) and produces energy and carbon dioxide.

Question 12.
Explain the importance of ozone to mankind.
Answer:
Ozone covers the earth’s atmosphere. It is present in stratosphere. It does not allow the harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the sun to enter our earth. These ultraviolet radiations cause ionizing effect and can cause cancer and genetic disorder in any life form. The ozone is getting depleted at the South Pole near Antarctica The ozone depletion is due to the halogens like CFC_s (Chlorofluorocarbons) released in the air. Chlorine and fluorine react with the ozone and split it, thereby leading to the formation of a big hole called ozone hole.

Question 13.
How are winds caused and what decides the breeze to be gentle, strong wind or a terrible storm?
Answer:
Movement of air, terrible storm and rains, all these phenomena are the result of changes that take place in our atmosphere due to the heating of air and the formation of water vapour. Water vapour is formed due to the heating of water bodies and the activities of living organisms. The atmosphere can be heated from below by the radiation that is reflected back or re-radiated by the land or water bodies. On being heated, convection currents are set up in the air. This causes wind. The pressure gradient or the pressure difference determines the speed and intensity of wind. Larger the gradient, more is the wind speed.

Question 14.
Why is step farming common in hills?
Answer:
At hills, the rainwater flows with a very high speed which provides very less time to absorb rainwater into the soil. So, the fields contain wide steps which slow down the speed of fast flowing water. Therefore, farming fields get more chances to absorb rainwater, i.e, more water can seep into the soil for better farming. Besides this, step farming also reduces soil erosion.

Question 15.
Write the harmful effects of ozone layer depletion.
Answer:
Harmful effects of ozone layer depletion are as follows:

1. Due to depletion of ozone layer, more ultraviolet (UV) radiation will reach the earth. UV radiation causes skin cancer, damage to eyes and immune system.
2. UV radiation kills microorganisms, such as bacteria, even useful ones.
3. Ozone layer depletion may lead to variation in rainfall, ecological disturbances and dwindling of good food supply.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 16.
Rashmi visited her village during summer vacations and found that there is severe shortage of water for villagers and animals.
1. Give reason of water shortage in villages.
2. Why some areas of earth suffer from the problem of water scarcity?
3. What ways can Rashmi suggest to villagers to solve the problem of water shortage?
Answer:

1. The lack of public water supply in villages is the most prominent reason of water scarcity in villages. Villagers depend on natural sources of water which often dry up due to excessive heat during summer.
2. The water scarcity occurs due to uneven distribution of freshwater on the earth.
3. Rainwater harvesting is an effective way to solve the problem of water scarcity in villages as well as in cities. The rainwater can be stored in underground tanks, check dams and recharges the groundwater. This groundwater can be drawn for use at the time of shortage of water.

Question 17.
A farmer followed the practice of sowing cereal crops regularly in his field for several seasons. After sometime, he found decline in cereal production.
(a) What may be the reason for less cereal production in farmer’s field?
(b) How the farmer can increase production in his field?
Answer:
(a) Sowing a same crop regularly in the field for several seasons makes the soil deficient of certain essential nutrients.
Thus, the fertility of soil declines after sometime and the crop production becomes less.

(b) The farmer can grow leguminous crops after cereal crop. The nitrogen fixing bacteria that live in root nodules of legume crops help in replenishment of lost nitrogen in the soil by fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the carbon – cycle in nature.

Answer:
All living things are made of carbon. Carbon is also a part of the oceans, air, and even rocks. Because the earth is a dynamic place, carbon does not stay still. Carbon – cycle is the series of processes by which carbon compounds are interconverted in the environment, involving the incorporation of carbon dioxide into living tissues by photosynthesis and its return to the atmosphere through respiration, the decay of dead organisms and the burning of fossil fuels.

If we see from the beginning, CO₂ in the atmosphere is taken by the plants which use it to make glucose, water and oxygen. Also, direct CO₂ from air forms carbonates in water which later turns into limestone. Then, these plants are eaten us and other animals, i.e., we indirectly use COus and other animals, i.e., we indirectly use CO₂ present in the plants. Also, we respire CO₂ back in atmosphere.

Then, organic compounds (plants / animals) form coal and petroleum, or we can say fossil fuel. And also, animal body present in the plants. Also, we respire CO₂ back in atmosphere. Then, organic compounds (plants / animals) form coal and petroleum, or we can say fossil fuel. And also, animal body forms inorganic carbonates or shells. But nowadays, we bum fossil fuels too much (and also cut the trees) which is harmful. As a result, we are not getting rid of excess CO₂ from our atmosphere.

Question 2.
Why is replenishment of forests necessary?
Answer:
Forests need to be replenished because of the following reasons:

1. Rainfall: During transpiration, trees give out enormous amount of water vapour. This water vapour helps in the formation of clouds. So, if trees are cut and not replenished, the rainfall in the area will reduce.
2. Natural rate of tree growth: Forests cannot be re – grown in a few days or months as trees take many years to grow fully. Thus, it becomes necessary to replenish the forests periodically.
3. Soil erosion: If a large number of trees are cut, the soil becomes naked. The topsoil, which is rich in organic matter will be washed away by water or carried away by wind. Trees help in binding the soil.
4. Carbon dioxide – oxygen balance: Forests have a very large number of trees which give out 02 and take in C02 by photosynthesis. In this way, they help in maintaining the carbon dioxide-oxygen balance in the atmosphere.
5. Timber and fuel: Forests are the best suppliers of timber for furniture and fuel. So, for their constant supply, forests need to be replenished.

Question 3.
Draw a labelled diagram to show nitrogen cyclele in nature.
Answer:
Nitrogen exists as free nitrogen in the atmosphere. In air, N₂ is about 78%. This free nitrogen is fixed into compounds of ammonia and nitrates. Most of the organisms cannot utilise molecular nitrogen. Fixation of Nitrogen:
Fixation of free nitrogen into compounds takes place by the following means:
1. Certain blue green algae and bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen.

2. Nitrogen – fixing bacteria found in the root nodules of legumes such as grams, beans, pulses, etc., fix atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen containing compounds.

3. Lightning also helps in the formation of nitrogen containing compounds. Nitrogen containing fertilisers produced artificially in factories are the fixed form of nitrogen. Plants take up compounds containing nitrogen from the soil. From plants nitrogen passes into food web Decay of dead plants and animals and excreta like urine, faeces, cause return of nitrogen compounds to the soil. Denitrifying bacteria and fire cause liberation of free nitrogen in the atmosphere.

Importance of Nitrogen – cycle: Nitrogen is an important constituent of tissues, proteins, enzymes, nucleic acids and amino acids. Atmosphere contains about 78 per cent nitrogen but plants and animals cannot use nitrogen in this form. Plants take nitrogen in the form of nitrates, the usable form. From plants, nitrogen travels to animals through food. If nitrogen in the form of proteins, amino acids, enzymes, etc., remains locked up in the bodies of organisms, there will be shortage of usable form of nitrogen. Therefore, circulation of nitrogen in nature is very essential.

Question 4.
Explain the oxygen – cycle in nature.
Answer:
Oxygen is an important component of everyday life. We cannot survive without oxygen. It comprises about 21% of atmospheric air. It is a component of several biological molecules such as carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids and fats. Like carbon dioxide, oxygen too is cycled through the process of photosynthesis and respiration. Oxygen is also utilised during combustion or burning.

Oxygen – cycle: Oxygen from the atmosphere is used up in three processes, viz., combustion, respiration and in the formation of oxides of nitrogen.

1. Animals take in oxygen through the process of respiration. They release CO₂ into the atmosphere.
2. Carbon dioxide, released by animals, is used by plants in the process of photosynthesis.
3. Plants release oxygen into the atmosphere as a by-product of photosynthesis.
4. Fuels need oxygen for combustion, so they take oxygen and release CO₂ into the atmosphere as a by-product along with other gases.
5. CO₂ is released into the air in the process of decaying of dead animals and plants.
6. This CO₂ is taken up by plants for the process of photosynthesis and O₂ is released and this process continues.

Question 5.
Describe water – cycle.
Answer:
Water is one of the most important physical components which is essential for survival of life on the earth. The water from the water bodies on evaporation moves up. As the vapours rise up in the atmosphere they become cooler and condense to form clouds which fall down as rain. Rainwater then passes through rivers and gets collected again in the ocean. The circulation of water in this manner is known as water – cycle. The cycle is also performed by living beings like absorption and transpiration of water by plants and drinking by animals. Animals lose water during respiration and perspiration. They lose water through excretion also.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 6.
There are several sources like respiration by living organisms, combustion, burning of fossil fuels and forest fires which contribute immensely in the carbon dioxide levels of atmosphere. Despite all these activities, the air contains only a mere fraction of carbon dioxide in it. How does it happen?
Answer:
The level of carbon dioxide does not increase in atmosphere because atmospheric carbon dioxide is fixed continuously in different components by the following ways.

• The plants ‘fix’ or capture the carbon dioxide and convert it into glucose through the process known as photosynthesis.
• Animals get their carbon directly by eating plants or indirectly by eating herbivores. Many marine animals use carbonates dissolved in seawater to make their shells.
• The fossil fuels are also the storehouse of carbon. These are the deposits of organic materials formed from decayed plants and animals deep inside the earth. By exposure to heat and pressure in the earth’s crust over hundreds of millions of years, these dead decaying organisms changed into fossil fuels, such as coal and petroleum.
• The water rich in carbon dioxide accumulates at the bottom of water bodies and forms limestone or carbonated rocks. It involves a series of chemical reactions that remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and deposits it in the form of rocks.

Activity 1

• Take the following:
  1. (i) a beaker full of water
  2. (ii) a beaker full of soil/sand and
  3. (iii) a closed bottle containing a thermometer.
• Measure the temperature of all these in shade.
• Now, keep them in bright sunlight for three hours and measure the temperature of all three vessels.

Observations:

• The temperature of air is less in shade than the temperature of sand or water.
• The temperature of water does not rise quickly whereas sand gets heated up easily.
• The temperature of air in the closed bottle is more than the temperature of air in open. This is because heat received from the sun has no outlet to reflect back the heat radiation. The glass does not allow to escape reflected heat radiations to go out.

Activity 2

• Place a candle in a beaker or wide mouthed bottle and light it. Light an incense stick and take it to the mouth of the beaker as shown in the figure.
• Now, keep the incense stick near the edge of the mouth, a little above the candle, and in other regions. Record your observations.

Observations:

• When the incense stick is kept near the edge of the mouth, the smoke flows inwards towards the flame. The hot air around the candle rises up and cold air from the surroundings rushes in to fill the space. This air rushing inside the beaker brings smoke towards the flame.
• The smoke rises up along with hot rising air when incense stick is kept a little above the candle.
• In other places, the smoke from the incense stick rises up and then diffuses in the air.

Activity 3
Take two identical trays and fill them with soil. Plant mustard or green gram or paddy in one of the trays and water both the trays regularly for a few days, till the first tray is covered with plant growth. Now, tilt both the trays and fix them in that position. Make sure that both the trays are tilted at the same angle. Pour equal amount of water gently on both trays such that the water flows out of the trays.

1. Study the amount of soil that is carried out of the trays by the water.
2. Now pour equal amounts of water on both the trays from a height. Pour three or four times the amount that you poured earlier.
3. Study the amount of soil that is carried out of the trays now. Record your observations.

Observations:

• The tray without vegetation loses more soil and holds more water than the tray that has plants.
• On pouring water on both the trays from a height, more soil flows along with water in the tray without vegetation.
• Less amount of soil is washed out earlier than that washed out when water was poured from a height.

Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Sudha saw a child sleeping in a car parked, with closed doors and glasses rolled up, in an open area on a sunny day near the market. She immediately raised an alarm and with the help of police she got the window rolled down.
1. Why was it not safe to keep the doors with window glasses rolled up for a child inside the car?
2. Name two gases that can lead to the above effect.
3. What value of Sudha is reflected in the above act?
Answer:

1. It was not safe for the child in the car with locked doors and windows rolled up because the sunlight would result in the greenhouse effect in the car. This would increase the temperature in the car and also result in the increase in CO₂ level which would lead to suffocation.
2. Carbon dioxide gas and methane gas can lead to greenhouse effect.
3. Sudha reflects the value of an aware citizen and responsible behaviour.

Question 2.
After doing a project on “save water”, Sumit realised the problem of shortage of drinking water on the earth. Sumit started checking the misuse of water in his vicinity.
1. What is the percentage of drinking water available on the earth?
2. Give any two practices that one should follow to save water.
3. What value of Sumit is reflected in this act?
Answer:

1. 1% of drinking water is available on the earth.
2. To save water:
   • Do not use shower to take bath every day, instead use a bucket of water.
   • Mop the floor instead of washing.
   • Sumit showed the value of responsible behaviour and participating citizen.
3. A project on “save water”, Sumit realised the problem of shortage of drinking water on the earth.

JAC Class 9 Science Important Questions

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.1 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Exercise 13.1

Unless stated otherwise, take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\)

Question 1.
Two cubes each of volume 64 cm³ are joined end to end. Find the surface area of the resulting cuboid.
Solution:
Volume of the cube = a³ = 64 cm³
Side of the cube \(\sqrt[3]{64}\) = a = 4 cm.

Surface area of the cuboid = 2(lb + bh + lh)
= 2[(8 × 4) + (4 × 4) + (8 × 4)]
= 2[32 + 16 + 32]
= 2 × 80
= 160 cm².

Question 2.
A vessel is in the form of a hollow hemisphere mounted by a hollow cylinder. The diameter of the hemisphere is 14 cm and the total height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the inner surface area of the vessel.
Solution:

π = \(\frac{22}{7}\), radius of the hemisphere = 7 cm,
height of the hemisphere = 7 cm,
height of the cylinder, h = 13 – 7 = 6 cm.
Inner area of the vessel = Inner area of the hemisphere vessel + Inner area of the cylinder
= 2πr² + 2πrh
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 7 + 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 6
= 2 × 22 × 7+2 × 22 × 6
= 2 × 22(7 + 6)
= 44 × 13 = 572 cm².

Question 3.
A toy is in the form of a cone of radius 3.5 cm mounted on a hemisphere of same radius. The total height of the toy is 15.5 cm. Find the total surface area of the toy.
Solution:

π = \(\frac{22}{7}\), r = 3.5, l = ?
Total surface area of the toy = C.S.A. of the cone + C.S.A. of the hemisphere
= πrl + 2πr²
lv = r² + h²
= (3.5)² + (12)²
= 12.25 + 144
= 156.25
l = \(\sqrt{156.25}\)
= 12.5 cm.

h = Ax – Ox
= 15.5 – 3.5
= 12 cm.

Surface area of the toy = πrl + 2πr²
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3.5 × 12.5 + 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3.5 × 3.5
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3.5[12.5 + 2 × 3.5]
= 22 × 0.5[12.5 + 7]
= 11[12.5 + 7]
= 11 × 19.5 = 214.5 cm².

Question 4.
A cubical block of side 7 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. What is the greatest diameter the hemisphere can have? Find the surface area of the solid.
Solution:

Greatest diameter = 7 cm.
Surface area of the block = T.S.A. of the cube – Base area of the hemisphere + C.S.A. of the hemisphere
= 6 × 72 – πr² + 2πr²
= 6 × 49 + πr²
= 6 × 49 + \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3.5 × 3.5
= 294 + 11 × 3.5
= 294 + 38.5
= 332.5 cm².

Question 5.
A hemispherical depression is cut out from one face of a cubical wooden block such that the diameter l of the hemisphere is equal to the edge of the cube. Determine the surface area of the remaining solid.
Solution:

Surface area of the remaining solid = Surface area of the cube + Surface area of the hemisphere
= 6l² + 2πr²
= 6l² + 2π\(\left(\frac{l}{2}\right)^2\)
= 6l² + 2π\(\frac{l^2}{4}=\frac{l^2}{4}\)(24 + 2π) sq. units.

Question 6.
A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispheres stuck to each of its ends. The length of the entire capsule is 14 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 5 mm. Find its surface area.
Solution:

Height of the cylindrical portion = 14 – 2.5 – 2.5 = 9m = h
r = 2.5 m.
Surface area of the capsule = Surface area of the cylindrical portion + Areas of the hemispherical regions
= 2πrh + 2πr² + 2πr²
= 2πr(h + r + r)
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2.5 (9 + 2.5 + 2.5)
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2.5 (9 + 5)
=2× \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2.5 × 14
= 44 × 5
= 220 mm².

Question 7.
A tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the height and diameter of the cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 4 m respectively, and the slant height of the top is 2.8 m, find the area of the canvas used for making the tent. Also, find the cost of the canvas of the tent at the rate of Rs. 500 per m². (Note that the base of the tent will not be covered with canvas.)
Solution:
r = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2m, h = 2.1, l = 2.8

Area of the canvas used = C.S.A. of the cylindrical portion + C.S.A. of the conical region
= 2πrh + πrl
= πr(2h + l)
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2(2 × 2.1 + 2.8)
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2(4.2 + 2.8)
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2 × 7
= 44 m².
Cost of the canvas = Area × Rate
= 44 × 500
= Rs. 22000.

Question 8.
From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4 cm and diameter 1.4 cm, a conical cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid to the nearest cm².
Solution:
Height of conical part = Height of cylindrical part h = 2.4 cm.
Diameter of cylindrical part = 1.4 cm, so, the radius of cylindrical part r = 0.7 cm

Slant height of cylindrical part l = \(\sqrt{r^2+h^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{(0.7)^2+(2.4)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{0.49+5.76}\)
= \(\sqrt{6.25}\)
= 2.5
The total surface area of the remaining solid = CSA of cylindrical part + CSA of conical part + Area of base of cylinder
= 2πrh + πrl + πr²
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 0.7 × 2.4 + \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 0.7 × 2.5 + \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 0.7 × 0.7
= 4.4 × 2.4 + 2.2 × 2.5 + 2.2 × 0.7
= 10.56 + 5.50 + 1.56
= 17.60 cm².

Question 9.
A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each end of a solid cylinder, as shown in the figure. If the height of the cylinder is 10 cm, and its base is of radius 3.5 cm, find the total surface area of the article.
Solution:

Total surface area of the article = C.S.A. of the cylinder + Surface area of the hemisphere at the top + Surface area of the hemisphere at the bottom
= 2πrh + 2πr² + 2πr²
= 2πr(h + r + r)
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3.5 (10 + 3.5 + 3.5)
= 2 × 22 × 0.5 × 17
= 22 × l × 17
= 374 cm².