Class 9

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Notes Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur

→ Introduction

• The story of village Palampur is a narrative story based on a research study by Gilbert Etiena of a village in Bulandshahar district (Uttar Pradesh).
• The purjpsse of the story of village Palampur, an imaginative village, is to introduce some basic concepts relating to production like-farming, small scale manufacturing, dairy, transport etc.
• These production activities need various types of resources such as; natural resources, man-made resources, man-power, money etc.
• Farming is the main activity in Palampur.
• Palampur is well-connected with neighbouring villages and towns. An all weather road and many kinds of transport are visible on this road like, bullock carts, motorcycles, jeeps, tractors and trucks etc.
• Palampur has about 450 families belonging to several different castes.
• The dalits comprise one-third of the population of the village. Their houses are made of mud and straw.
• Palampur has a fairly well-developed system of roads, transport, electricity, irrigation, school and health centre.
• In villages across India, farming is the main production activity. The other production
• activities are small-scale manufacturing, transport, shop-keeping etc.

→ Organisation of Production

• The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we need.
• The factors of production are land, labour, physical capital and human capital.
• Land is the first requirement for produciton and the second is labour.
• Physical capital includes tools, machines, buildings, i.e., fixed capital and raw materials and money in hand, i.e., working capital.
• Knowledge and enterprise come under human capital. It is required to put together all the above inputs to produce the output.

→ Land is fixecT

• 75% per cent people of Palampur are dependent on farming for their livelihood.
• There has been no expansion in land area under cultivation in Palampur since 1960.
• The standard unit of measuring land is hectare, though in the villages it is measured in local units as bigha, guintha etc.

→ Ways to grow more from the same land

• In Palampur, all land is cultivated. No land is left idle.
• During the rainy season, farmers of Palampur grow jowar, bajra, potato, wheat and
  sugarcane.
• During the winter season, fields are sown with wheat. From the produced wheat, farmers keep enough wheat for their family’s consumption and sell the rest of the wheat in the market at Raiganj.
• A part of land is also devoted to sugarcane production, which is harvested once every year.
• Farmers in Palampur are able to grow three different crops in a year due to a well- developed system of irrigation.
• The first few tubewells were installed by the government in Palampur.
• Of the total cultivated area in the country, a little less than 40 per cent is irrigated even today. In the remaining area, farming is largely dependent on rainfall.
• To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is called multiple cropping.
• Multiple cropping is the most common way of increasing production on a given piece of land.
• The Green Revolution in the late 1960s introduced the Indian farmer to cultivation of wheat and rice using high yielding varieties of seeds.
• Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try out the
  modern farming methods in India. .
• In Palampur, with the use of HYV seeds, the yield of wheat went up to 3200 kg per hectare as compared to 1300 kg per hectare with the traditional seeds.
• Farmer now had greater amounts of surplus wheat to sell in the markets.

→ Sustenance of land

• Modern farming methods have overused the natural resources base.
• The Green Revolution is associated with the loss of soil fertility in many areas due to increased use of chemical fertilizers.
• Chemical fertilizers kill the bacteria and micro organisms on the soil and reduce its fertility.
• About one-third population of Palampur is landless while most of them are dalits.

→ Availability of labour

• Farming requires a great deal of hard work.
• Small farmers along with their families cultivate their own fields. Medium and large farmers hire farm labourers to work on their fields.
• Farm labourers come either from landless families or families cultivating small plots of land.
• These labourers can be paid in cash or in objects like crops; sometimes they get meals also.
• Wages vary widely from region to region, from crop to crop and from one farm activity toanotfe
• There is also a wide variation in the duration of employment.

→ Capital needed in farming.

• As modern farming methods require a great deal of capital, the farmer needs more money for it.
• Mostly, small farmers have to borrow money ffom large farmers or the village money lenders or traders to arrange modern farming methods.
• The rate of interest on such loans is»very high. They are put to great distress to repay the loan.

→ Sale of surplus farm products

• The large and medium farmers of Palampur retain a part of the produced grain for their own use and sell the surplus in the market.
• The farmers earn a good amount of money through this sale.
• They use this money to purchase inputs for the next farming season, purchase capital equipment or even give loans to small farmers.

→ Non-Farm Activities in Palampur

• Only 25 per cent of the people working in Palampur are engaged in activities other than agriculture.
• There is a variety of non-agricultural activities in the village, e.g., dairy farming, manufacturing activities, shop keeping, transportation, computer education, jaggery production, etc.

→ Manufacturing: It is the process of making products, or goods from raw materials by the use of manual labour or machinery.

→ Resources: Commodities or services used to produce goods and services.

→ Bogeys: A kind of transport made of wood and drawn by buffaloes.

→ Dalits: People belonging to lower castet are known as Dalits or SCs.

→ Irrigation: The artificial application of water to land to assist in the production of crops by tubewells, canals and tanks, etc. .

→ Kharif: The autumn crop sown at the begining of summer rains.

→ Rabi: The spring crop sown in winter.

→ Multiple Cropping: To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the same year is known as multiple cropping.

→ Yield: An amount of crop produced in a given piece of land during a single season.

→ Green Revolution: It is a revolution in the field of agriculture in the late 1960s. It introduced the Indian farmers to the moden methods of farming to increase agricultural production.

→ HYV seeds: High yielding varities of seeds which promise to produce much greater amounts of grain than traditional seeds.

→ Chemical Fertilisers: It is a substance applied to soils or directly to plants to provide ^ nutrients, optimum for their growth and development.

→ Surplus: An amount of something left over when requirements have been met. It is an excess of production or supply.

→ Production activity: The creation of value or wealth by producing goodg and services,

→ Moneylender: A person who lends money which has to be paid back .at a high rate of interest.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Notes

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Notes Civics Chapter 5 Democratic Rights

→ Introduction

• A democratic government has to be periodically elected by the people in a free and fair manner.
• A democracy must be based on institutions that follow certain rules and porcedures.
• These elements are necessary but not sufficient for a democracy.
• Elections and institutions need to be combined with a third element-enjoyment of rights to make a government democratic.
• When the socially recognised claims (rights) are written into law in democracy they are called democratic rights.
• This chapter deals with democratic rights and their significance.

→ Life without rights

• The importance of rights can be judged by the one whose life has absence of rights.
• The following three examples state what it means to live in the absence of rights:

→ Prison in Goantanamo Bay

• About 600 people were secretly picked up by the United States of America’s forces from all over the world and put in a prison in Goantanamo Bay, near cuba.
• According to the American Government, they were enemies of the United State and linked to the attack on New york on 11th September, 2001,
• As a result, there was no trial before any magistrate in the United State, nor could these prisoners approach courts in their own country.
• Amnesty international, reported that the prisoners were being tortured in ways that violated the United States of America’s laws. Despite the provisions of international treaties, prisoners were being denied the treatment.

→ Citizens Rights in saudi Arabia

• Saudi Arabia is ruled over by a hereditary king and the people have no role in electing or changing their rulers.
• The king selects the legislature as well as the executive.
• He appoints the judges and can change any of their decisions.
• Citizens cannot form political parties or any political organisation
• Media cannot report anything that the monarch does not like.
• There is not freedom of religion. Every citizen is required to be muslim. Non-muslim residents can follow their religion in private, but not in public.
• Women are subjected to many public restrictions. The testimony of one man is considerd equal to that of two women.

→ Ethnic Massacre in Kosovo

• Kosovo was a province of yugoslavia before its split.
• In yugoslavia, serbs were in majority and Albanians were in minority.
• A democratically elected serb leader Slobodan milosevic wanted to dominate the country.
• Serbs thought that the albanians, (the ethnic minority group) should leave the country or accept the dominance of serbs.

→ Rights in a Democracy

• Everyone wants a system where at least a minimum asurance is guaranteed to all whether he/she is powerful or weak, rich or poor, majority or minority.

→ What are rights?

• Rights are reasonable claims of persons recognised in society and sanctioned by law.

→ Why do we need rights in a democracy?

• Rights are necessary for the very sustenance of a democracy.
• In a democracy, every citizen has the rights to vote and the rights to be elected to government.
• Rights protect minorities from the oppression of majority. They ensure that majority cannot do whatever it wishes to do.

→ Right in the Indian constitution

• Some rights which are fundamental to our life are given a special status in Indian constitution. They are called Fundamental Rights.
• Our constitution provides six fundamental rights.

→ Right to equality

• The constitution says that the government shall not deny the equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws to any person in India. It means that the laws apply in the same manner to all, regardless of a person’s status. This is called the rule of law.
• Right to equality is the foundation of any democracy. It means that no person is above the law.
• The government shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion race, caste, sex or place of birth.
• Every citizen shall have access to public places like shops, restaurants, hotels, and cinema halls.
• The government of India has provided reservation for scheduled castes (SCs), scheduled Tribes (STs) and other backward classes (OBCS). But these reservations are not against the right to equality.
• The constitution directs the government to put an end to the practice of untouchability. It is the extrerr 3 form of social discrimination.

→ Right to freedom

• Freedom mean absence of constraint. In practical life, it means absence of interference in our affairs h others be it other individuals or the government.
• Under the Indian constitution, all citizens have’the right to: (i) Freedom of speech and expression (ii) Assembly in a peaceful manner (iii) form associations, unions and cooperative societies (iv) Move freely throughout the country, (v) Reside in any part of the country (vi) practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
• Freedom is not unlimited license to do what one wants. The government can impose certain reasonable restrictions on our freedom in the larger interests of the society.

→ Right Against Exploitation

• Constitution makers thought it is necessary to write down certain clear provisions to prevent exploitation of the weaker sections of the society.
• The constitution mentions three specific evils and declares these illegal.
• First, the constitution prohibits ‘traffic’ in human beings. Traffic here means selling and buying of human beings, usually, women or children, for immoral purposes.
• Second, our constitution also prohibits forced labour or begar in any form. Begar is a practice where the worker is forced to render service to the master free of charge or at a nominal remuneration.
• Third the constitution prohibits child labour. No one can employ a child below the age of 14 to work in any factory or mine or any other hazardous work, such as railways and ports.

→ Right to Freedom of Religion

• Every person has right to profess, practice and propagate the religion he or she believes in.
• Every religious group or sect is free to manage its religious affairs. Freedom to propagate one’s religion, does not mean that a person has right to compl another person to convert into his religion by means of force, around inducement or allurement.
• India is a secular state. A secular state is one that does not establish any one religion as official religion. In India no privilege or favor is provided to any particular religion.

→ Cultural and Educational Right

• The following cultural and educational rights for minoritis are specified by our constitution.
• Any section of citizens with a distinct language or culture have a right to conserve it
• Admission to any educational institution maintained by government or receiving government aid cannot be denied to any citizen on the grounds of religion or language
• All minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institution of their choice.

→ How can we secure these rights?

• The fundamental rights in the constitution are important because they are enforceable.
• We have a right to seek the enforcement of these mentioned rights. This is called the right to constitutional remedies.
• This right makes other rights effective when any of the fundamental rights are violated then citizen can directly approach the supreme court or the high court of a state.
• That is why Dr. Ambedkar called the right to constitutional remedies the heart and soul of our constitution.
• The supreme court and high courts have the power to issue directions, order or writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights.
• They can also award compensation to the victims and punishment to the violators.
• In case of any violation of fundamental right the aggrieved person can go to a court for remedy. But now, any person can go to court against the violation of the fundamental right. If it is of social or public interest, It is called public Interset litigation (PIL).
• Under the PIL any citizen or group of citizens can approach the supreme court or a high court for the protection of public interest against a particular law or action of the judges even on a postcard. The court will take up the matter if the judges find it in public interest against a particular court law or action of the government.

→ Expanding Scope of Rights

• From time to time the courts gave judgements of expand the scope of right, certain rights like right to freedom of press, sight to information and right to education are derived from the fundamental rights.
• According to the right to education every child has the right to get elementary education.
• According to right to information, any body can demand information regarding the functions of a government department or official.
• Constitution provides many rights which may not be fundamental right e.g. the right to property, right to vote in election are not fundamental rights but these are constitutional rights.
• Human rights are universal moral claims that may or may not have been recognised by laws.
• Some international covenants have contributed to the expansion of rights.
• The national human rights commission (NHIRC) focuses on helping the victims to secure their human rights.
• International covenant on Economic social and cultural right.

→ Rights

• The international covenant recognises many rights that are not directly a part of the fundamental rights in the Indian constitution.
• This has not yet become an international treaty but human right activists all over the world see, this as a standard of human rights. These include.
  • Right to work i.e., opportunity to everyone to earn livelihood by working.
  • Right to safe and healthy working conditions. Fair wages that can provide decent standard of living for the workers and their families.
  • Right to adequate standard of living including adequate food, clothing and housing.
  • Right to social security and insurance.
  • Right to health i.e., medical care during illness, special care for woman during child birth and prevention of epidemics.
  • Right to education i.e., free and compulsary primary education, equal access to higher education.

→ Amnesty International: An international organisation of volunteers who campaigns for human rights. This organisation brings out independent reports on the violation of human rights all over the world.

→ Ethnic group: An ethnic group is a human population whose members usually identify with each other on the basis of a common ancestry. People of an ethnic group are united by cultural practices, religious beliefs and historical memories.

→ Claim: Demand for legal or moral entitlements a person makes on fellow citizens, society or the government.

→ Dalit: A person who belongs to the castes which were considered low and not touchable by others. Dalits are also known by other names such as the scheduled castes, depressed classes etc.

→ Begar: It is a practice where a worker is forced to render service to the ‘master’ free of charge or at a nominal remuneration.

→ Traffic: Selling and buying of men, women or children for immoral purposes.

→ Writ: A formal document containing an order of the court to the government issued only by High Court or the Supreme Court.

→ Summon: An order issued by a court asking a person to appear before it.

→ Convenant: Promise made by the individuals, groups or countries to uphold a rule or principle. It is legally binding on the signatories to the agreement or statement.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Notes

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Notes Civics Chapter 4 Working of Institutions

→ Introduction

• Democracy is not just about people electing their rulers.
• In a democracy the rulers have to follow some rules and procedures. They have to work with and within institutions.
• In this process we come across three institutions that play a key role in major decisions Legislature, executive and judiciary.
• In this chapter, we will understand how all the institutions together carry on the work of the government.

→ How is a major policy decision taken?

• The government issues hundreds of orders every day on different matters.
• President is the head of the state and is the highest formal authority in the country.
• Prime Minister is the head of the government and actually exercises all governmental powers.
• Parliament consists of the President and two houses, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
• The Prime Minister must have the support of a majority of Lok Sabha members.
• The Government of India had appointed the second Backward classes. Commission in 1979. It was harded by B.P. Mandal.
• The commission gave its report in 1980 and made many recommendations, one of these was that 27 per cent of government jobs be reserved for the socially and educationally backward classes.

→ Need for Political Institutions

• To attend all the tasks, several arrangements are made in all modern democracies. Such arrangements are called institutions. The constitution of any country lays down basic rules on the powers and functions of each institution.
• In our country there are three institutions running the different tasks: (a) The Prime Minister and the cabinet are institutions that take all important policy decisions, (b) The Civil servants, working together are responsible for taking steps to implement the minister’s decisions, (c) Supreme Court is an institution where disputes between citizens and the government are finally settled.
• Institutions involve rules and regulations. Institutions make it difficult to have a good decision taken very quickly. But they also make it equally difficult to rush through a bad decision. That is why democratic government insist on institutions.

→ Parliament

• In India, a national assembly of elected representatives is called Parliament. At the state level this is called State Legislature or Legislative Assembly.
• Parliament is the final authority for making laws in our country.
• Parliaments all over the world exercise some control over those who run the government.
• Parliaments control all the money that governments have.
• Parliament is the highest forum of discussion and debate on public issues and national policy in any democratic country.

→ Two Houses of Parliament

• In our country, the Parliament consists of two Houses. The two Houses are known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• Lok Sabha (House of the people) or lower chamber: It is usually directly elected by the people and exercises the real power on behalf of the people.
• Rajya Sabha (Council of states) or upper chamber: It is indirectly elected and perform special functions such as interest of various states,regions federal units.
• Our constitution gives some special powers to Rajya Sabha but on the most of the matters the Lok Sabha exercises supreme power.

→ Political Executive

• At different levels of any government, we find functionaries who take day-to-day decisions but do not exercise supreme power on behalf of the people. All those functionaries are collectively known as the Executive.

→ Political and Permanent Executive

• In our country, two categories make up the executive. One that is elected by the people for a specific period, is called the Political Executive. In the second category, people are appointed on a long term basis. This is called the permanent executive or civil services.
• The political executive has more power than the permanent executive.
• This is because the political executive is elected by the people and in a democracy will of people is supreme. They are answerable to the people for all consequences of their decision.

→ Prime Minister and Council of Ministers

• Prime Minister is the most important political institution in the country. The President appoints the leader of the majority party or the coalition of parties that commands a majority in the Lok Sabha, as Prime Minister.
• Council of Ministers is the official name for the body that includes all the Ministers mainly Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of state with independent charge and Minister of State.
• Every ministry has secretaries, who are civil servants.
• No Minister can openly criticise any decision of the government.

→ Powers of the Prime Minister

• As head of the government, the Prime Minister has wide ranging powers.
• He chairs cabinet meetings and coordinates the work of different departments.
• The Prime Minister distributes and redistributes work to the ministers. He also has the power to dismiss ministers.
• However, in recent years the rise of coalition politics has imposed certain constraints on the power of the Prime Minister.

→ The President

• The President is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India.
• The Presidental system
• Presidents all over the world are not always nominal executives like the President of India. In many countries of the world, the president is both the head of the state and the head of the government. The President of the United States of America is the most well known example of this kind of president.

→ The Judiciary

• All the courts at different levels in a country put together are called the judiciary. The Indian Judiciary consists of a Supreme Court for the entire nation. High Courts in the states, District Courts and the courts at local level.
• The judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister and in consultation with the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. A judge can be removed only by an impeachment motion passed separately by two-thirds members of the two Houses of the Parliament.
• The Supreme Court and the High Courts have the power to interpret the constitution of the country.
• The powers and the independence of the Indian judiciary allow it to act as the guardian of the Fundamental Rights.
• Courts have given several judgements and directives to protect public interest and human rights. Any one can approach the courts if public interest is hurt by the actions of government. This is called public interest litigation.

→ Democracy: It is a form of government which is chosen by the people to work for their welfare.

→ Legislature: An assembly of people’s representatives with the powers to enact laws for a country. In addition to enacting laws, legislatures have authority to raise taxes and adopt the budget and other money bills.

→ Executive: A body of persons having authority to initiate major policies, make decisions and implement them on the basis of the constitution and laws of the country.

→ Judiciary: An institution empowered to administer justice and provide a mechanism for the resolution of legal disputes. All the courts in the country are collectively referred to as judiciary.

→ Government: A set of institutions that have the power to make, implement and inter pret laws so as to ensure an orderly life. In its broad sense, government administers and supervises over citizens and resources of a country.

→ State: Political association occupying a definite territory, having an organised government and possessing power to make domestic and foreign policies. In common speech, the terms country, nation and state are used as synonyms.

→ Government order: It means any order, judgement, injunction, decree, stipulation or determination issued, promulgated or entered by or with any governmental authority of competent jurisdiction.

→ Office Memorandum: A communication issued by an appropriate authority stating the policy or decision of the government.

→ Parliament: The group of people who are elected to make and change the laws of a country is called the parliament.

→ Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha or house of the people is the power house of the parliament of India.

→ Rajya Sabha: The Rajya Sabha or council of states is the upper house of the parliament
of India.

→ Reservations: A policy that declares some positions in government employment and educational institutions ‘reserved’ for people and communities who have been discriminated against, are disadvantaged and backward.

→ Supreme Court: The highest judicial court in a country.

→ Political Institution: A set of procedures for regulating the conduct of government and political life in the country.

→ Cabinet: The most important ministers in governments, who have regular meetings with the Prime Minister.

→ High Court: The highest judicial court in a state..

→ Indra sawhney: Indra sawhney became a household name in 1992 after her challenge to Narasimha Rao’s forward quata more led the supreme court to impose a 50% cap on caste based reservations.

→ B.P. Mandal: Bindheshwari Prasad Mandal (B.P. Mandal) was an Indian Politician who chaired mandal commission. He served as Chief Minister of Bihar.

→ V.P. Singh: Vishwanath Pratap singh (V.P. singh) was an Indian politician. He was the 7th Prime Minister of India from 1989 to 1990.

→ Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru: He was an independence activist and subsequently, the first Prime Minister of India and a central figure in Indian politics before and after independence. As the Prime Minister, he exercised many pomets as he had great influence over the people.

→ Indira Gandhi: She was an Indian politician and a central figure at the Indian National Congress. She was the first and, to date, the only female Prime Minister of India.

→ Pranab Mukheijee: He is an Indian politician who served as the 13th President of India from 2012 to 2017.

→ Nerendra Modi: Narendra Damodardas Modi is an Indian politician serving as the current Prime Minister of India since 2014. He was the chief minister of Gujarat from 2001 to 2014 and is the member of parliament for Varanasi.

→ Justice J.S. Khehar: Jagdish Sing Khehar was the 44th Chief Justice of India. He is the first Chief Justice of India from the Sikh community.

→ Ramnath Kovind: He is an Indian politician currently serving as the 14th President of India, in office since 25 july 2017. Previously he had served as the Governor of Bihar from 2015 to 2017.

→ Coalition Government: A government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties, usually when no single party enjoys majority support of the members in a legislature.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Notes

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 6 Population

I. Objective Type Questions

1. What is the counting of people in a country known as?
(a) census
(b) migration
(c) birth rate
(d) death rate.
Answer:
(a) census

2. Which of the following is calculated as the number of persons per unit area?
(a) population distribution
(b) population density
(c) total population
(d) None of the these.
Answer:
(b) population density

3. The population is generally grouped into which of the following categories?
(a) Aged (Above 59 years)
(b) Children (generally below 15 years)
(c) Working Age (15-59 years)
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

4. From which of the following years, the birth rates started declining, resulting in a gradual decline in the birth of India?
(a) 1976
(b) 1990
(c) 1981
(d) 1988.
Answer:
(c) 1981

5. Which of the following along with basic sanitation amenities is available to only one- third of the rural population?
(a) Food Security
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) Safe Drinking Water.
Answer:
(d) Safe Drinking Water.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is census?
Answer:
The census is the process of collection, compilation and publication of information relating to different aspects of people living in a country at a specific point of time.

Question 2.
When was the first census held in India?
Answer:
The first census in India (on a limited scale) was held in 1872. The first complete census was taken in 1881 and subsequently it has been taken every 10 years.

Question 3.
What is the total population of India according to 2011 Census?
Answer:
1,210.6 million.

Question 4.
What is India’s share in world population?
Answer:
About 17.5%.

Question 5.
Name the state having highest population in India.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 6.
Which are the most populated and least populated states in India?
Answer:
The most populated state in India is Uttar Pradesh and least populated is Sikkim.

Question 7.
Almost 50% of India’s population lives in five states. Write their names.
Answer:
Almost 50% of India population lives in the five states of Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 8.
Name the less populated states of India.
Answer:
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Assam, Tripura, Naga-land, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 9.
Name the states of India having high density of population.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What is the population density of India according to 2011 Census?
Answer:
It is 382 persons per square kilometre.

Question 11.
What is the major reason for the state of Kerala having a very high population density?
Answer:
Kerala has a very high population density because it has fertile soil and gets abundant rainfall, thus resulting in good prospects for agriculture.

Question 12.
What is called as annual growth rate?
Answer:
The rate or the pace of population increase per annum is called as the annual growth rate.

Question 13.
Mention the factors responsible for the population change.
Answer:

1. Death Rate,
2. Birth Rate,
3. Migration.

Question 15.
What kind of migration does not change the size of the population in a country?
Answer:
Internal migration from one city to another or from rural areas to urban areas within a country does not change the size of the population.

Question 16.
What type of migration leads to changes in the distribution of population within the nation?
Answer:
Internal migration leads to changes in the distribution of population within the nation.

Question 17.
What are the three divisions of age composition?
Answer:

1. Children (0-14 years age group),
2. Working Age (15-59 years), and
3. Aged (Above 59 years).

Question 18.
What is the sex-ratio in India according to 2011 Census?
Answer:
It is 943 females per 100 males.

Question 19.
Which states of India have the highest and the lowest sex ratio?
Answer:
Kerala has the highest sex ratio of 1084 and Haryana has the lowest sex ratio of 877 (as per the 2011 census).

Question 20.
In which state of India the sex ratio is favourable to women?
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 21.
Who is called a literate?
Answer:
A person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate. ‘

Question 22.
What is the literacy rate for the country as a whole?
Answer:
It is about 73 per cent.

Question 23.
What is the male and female literary rate and the general literacy level in India as per census 2011?
Answer:
As per census of 2011, the male literacy rate is 80.90% female literacy rate is 64.6% and general literacy rate is 74.04%.

Question 24.
Name the state having the highest literacy rate in India.
Answer:
Kerela.

Question 25.
What is known as occupational structure?
Answer:
The distribution of working population of an economy according to different occupations is known as occupational distribution of population or occupational structure.

Question 26.
What are the three sectors of occupations?
Answer:

1. Primary sector,
2. Secondary sector,
3. Tertiary sector.

Question 27.
What are primary activities?
Answer:
Primary activities include agriculture, animal husbandary, forestry, fishing, mining and quarrying etc.

Question 28.
What are secondary activities?
Answer:
Secondary activities include manufacturing industry, building and construction work etc.

Question 29.
What are tertiary activities?
Answer:
Tertiary activities include transport, communication, commerce, banking, administration and other services.

Question 30.
What is adolescent population?
Answer:
Adolescents are generally grouped in the age-group of 10 to 19 years. It constitutes one-fifth of the total population of India.

Question 31.
When was the comprehensive Family Planning Programme launched?
Answer:
In 1952.

Question 32.
When did the National Population Policy come into effect?
Answer:
The National Population Policy come into effect in the year 2000.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the three major aspects of population study?
Answer:
1. Population size and distribution:
First of all, we have to see how many people are there in India and where they are located. Then we have to see which states are the most populated states and which are sparsely populated states.

2. Population growth and processes of population change: The second major aspect of population study is how the population has grown and how it has changed overtime.

3. Characteristics or qualities of the population: It includes the study of age, sex composition, literacy, occupational structure and health conditions of the people.

Question 2.
How is population density calculated? Where does India stand as compared to other countries with respect to population?
Answer:
The population density is calculated as the number of persons per unit of area. India’s stand in population density with respect to other countries is discussed below: India is one of the most densely-populated countries in the world.

As per census report 2011, the population density of India was 382 persons per sq. km. Due to change in climatic conditions, economic opportunities and other geographical factors, India has very regular distribution of population ranging from 1102 persons per sq. km. in Bi’ ar to only 17 persons per sq. km in Arunachal Pradesh. India is the third most dense country in the world after Bangladesh and Japan.

Question 3.
What is the growth of population?
Answer:
Growth of population refers to the change in the number of inhabitants of a country territory during a specific period of time, say during the last ten years. It can be expressed in two ways:

1. In terms of absolute numbers,
2. In terms of percentage change per year.

Question 4.
Describe the term annual growth rate of population. How is it affected by the birth rate?
Answer:
1. Annual Growth Rate: The rate at which the number of individuals in a population increase in one year as a fraction of the initial population is called annual growth rate of population. Effects of Birth

2. Rate on Annual Growth Rate: The annual growth rate is affected by the birth rate in the following ways.

1. With the increase in birth rate, the annual growth rate generally increases.
2. For a larger population even having a lower birth rate, the annual growth rate keeps on increasing.
3. For example, since 1981, the birth rate declined rapidly; still, 182 million people were added to the total population in 1990s alone. If we calculate annual growth rate based on this data, it becomes very high.

Question 5.
What are the causes of migration in India from rural to urban areas?
Answer:
Migration from rural to urban areas in India has taken place mainly due to:

1. Rising population in rural areas.
2. Poverty and unemployment in rural areas.
3. Lack of demand for labour in agriculture.
4. Increased employment opportunities, better education and living standard in urban areas.
5. Expansion of industrial and service sectors in the urban areas.

Question 6.
Explain the categorisation of the population of a nation on the basis of age composi¬tion.
Answer:
The population of a nation is generally grouped into three categories :

1. Children (below 15 years), who are economically unproductive and need to be provided with food, clothing, education and healthcare.
2. Working age (15 to 59 years), who are economically productive and biologically reproductive. They comprise the working population.
3. The aged or elderly (60 years and above), who can be economically productive though they may have retired. They may be working voluntarily, but they are not available for employment through recruitment.

Question 7.
What is the relationship between age composition and dependency ratio ? Briefly explain.
Answer:
Relationship between age composition and dependency ratio is as follows :

1. Children below 15 years of age are economically unproductive and people aged above 59 years do not get employment through recruitment.
2. The percentage of children and the aged affects the dependency ratio because these groups are not producers but are usually only consumers.

Question 8.
What are the reasons for low literacy rate among women in India?
Answer:

1. In India, women generally look after domestic work and are left with no time to get education, which leads to low literacy rate among them, mostly in rural areas of the country.
2. Lack of awareness and economic backwardness are other reasons for low literacy rate among women.

Question 9.
What do you understand by occupational structure? Briefly describe the occupational structure of India.
Answer:
1. Occupational structure: The distribution of population according to different types of occupations is referred to as the occupational structure.

2. Occupational Structure of India: In India, about 64 percent of the population is engaged only in agriculture. The proportion of population dependent on secondary and tertiary sectors is about 13 and 20 percent respectively. There has been an occupational shift in favour of secondary and tertiary sectors because of growing industrialisation and urbanisation in recent times.

Question 10.
Into how many categories are occupations generally classified?
Answer:
Occupations are generally classified into three categories:

1. Primary occupations: These include agriculture, animal husbandry, forestry, fishing, mining and quarrying etc.
2. Secondary occupations: These include manufacturing industry, building and construction works etc.
3. Tertiary occupations: These include transport, communication, commerce, banking, administration and other services.

III. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write an essay on the population distribution in India.
Answer:
Population of our country is not evenly distributed. Some regions have high density of population. The population density of India in 2011 was 382 persons per sq. km. Bihar has the highest density of population about 1,102 per sq. km, whereas Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest density of population, i.e. 17 persons per sq.km.

1. Densely Populated Areas: These are those areas which have population of more than 300 persons per sq. km. The population is dense in these areas due to fertile soil and good rainfall.
   • Areas: Sutlej and Gangetic plain; Malabar coastal plain, Coromandel coast.
   • States: Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Tamil Nadu.
2. Medium Density:
   These are those areas which have population about 100-300 persons per sq. km.
   • Areas: Brahmaputra valley, industrial areas, areas around the main ports.
   • States: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
3. Thinly or Sparsely Populated Areas:
   These are areas which have population less than 100 persons per sq. km. These are the areas of low unreliable and of hilly terrain where there is less levelled land for agriculture.
   • Areas: Great Indian Desert, Hills of north-eastern states.
   • States: Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Assam, Tripura, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 2.
What is age composition ? Why does it affect the population’s social and economic structure?
Answer:
The age composition of a population refers to the number of people indifferent age groups in a country. It affects the population’s social and economic structure because:

1. Children (0-14 years) do not contribute to the economy in any way. They require resources for their health, education etc.
2. Adults (15-59 years) contribute to the nation’s economy by earning money. They are the working population as they feed and look after the two age groups.
3. Aged (60 + years) do not contribute to the economy in any way. The depend on their children or their own saving. However, sometimes people belonging to this age group do work, but it is for private agencies as they are not considered for recruitment after that age.

Question 3.
What is sex ratio? Why has sex ratio been unfavourable to females? Explain it.
Answer:
Sex ratio: It is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the population. This information is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given time.
Reasons for unfavourable sex ratio for females:

1. The infant mortality rate in India is high and female infant mortality rate is still higher.
2. Preferential treatment is given to a male child and female children get neglected in most Indian homes.
3. People go though prenatal sex determination test. In case of a girl child, they abort the child.
4. Women generally have lower social political and economic status in the Indian society. We find dowry, murder, opposition to widow remarriage and low nutritional levels in women.
5. Lack of social awareness programmes among females, especially in rural areas.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘literate’. Describe the features of literacy rate in India.
Answer:
Definition of Literate: According to the census of 2001, a person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language, is termed as literate. Features of Literacy Rate in India

1. The literacy rate is steadily improving in India.
2. As per census 2011, the literacy rate of India is 74.04 per cent.
3. The male literacy rate is 80.9 per cent.
4. The female literacy rate is 64.6 per cent.
5. India has a large gap in literacy rate between male and female population.
6. It also exhibits social inequality between males and females.
7. This gap in literacy rate is further increased by the declining sex ratio. Literacy is an important quality of population. For overall development and economic progress of the country, there should be high literacy rate among both males and females.

Question 5.
What is the health status of people at present? What measures have been taken to improve the health of the people? Why is the health situation still an issue of major concern for India?
Answer:
Health is an important component of population and composition, which affects the process of development. Following efforts of government programmes have registered significant improvement in the health conditions of the people :

1. Death rate has declined from 25 per 1000 population in 1951 to 7.2 per 1000 in 2011.
2. Life expectancy at birth has increased from 36.7 years in 1951 to 67.9 years in 2012.
3. This substantial improvement is the result of many factors, including improvement in public health, prevention of infectious diseases and application of modern medical practices in diagnosis and treatment of ailments.

However, despite considerable achievements, the health situation is still an issue of major concern for India due to the following reasons:
(a) The per capita calorie consumption is much below the recommended levels and malnutrition affects a large percentage of our population.

(b) Safe drinking water and basic sanitation amenities are available to only one- third of the rural population.

(c) These problems need to be tackled through an appropriate population policy.

Question 6.
Explain any six significant characteristics of the adolescent population of India.
Answer:
Six significant characteristics of the adolescent population of India are as follows:

1. Adolescent population is generally categorised in the age group of 10 to 19 years.
2. They constitute one-fifth of the total population of India.
3. They are the most important future resource.
4. Nutritional requirements of adolescents are higher than those of normal children or adults.
5. In India, a large number of adolescent girls suffer from anaemia.
6. The adolescent girls have to be sensitised to the problems they confront.

Question 7.
What is the National Population Policy (NPP 2000) ? Why was NPP 2000 initiated by the government?
Answer:
National Population Policy (NPP 2000) It is a comprehensive family planning programme initiated by the government of India. It provides a reliable and relevant policy framework for improving family welfare services and for measuring and monitoring the delivery of family welfare services and their demographic impact in future.
Reasons for Initiations NPP 2000: It was initiated by the government:

1. To improve healthcare quality and coverage, measuring and monitoring the delivery of family welfare programme.
2. To enable the increasingly literate and aware families to achieve their reproductive goals in the country.
3. To achieve rapid population stabilisation.
4. To promote synergy with the on-going educational, info-technology and socio¬economic transition.
5. To achieve rapid population stabilisation and sustainable development as well as improvement in economic, social and human development in the new millennium.

Question 8.
Write a note on National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 and Adolescents.
Answer:
NPP 2000 identified adolescents as one of the major sections of the population that need greater attention. Besides nutritional requirements, the policy provides greater emphasis on other important needs of adolescents, including protection from unwanted pregnancies and Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) like AIDS.

It called for programmes that aim towards encouraging delayed marriage and child bearing, education of adolescents about the risks of unprotected sex, making contraceptive services accessible and affordable, providing food supplements, and strengthening legal measures to prevent child marriages.

Location and Labelling
1. The state having highest and lowest density population.
2. The state having highest and lowest sex ratio.
3. Largest and smallest state according to area.
Answer:
1. (a) The state having the highest density of population is Bihar.
(b) The state having the lowest density of population is Arunachal Pradesh.

2. (a) The state having highest sex ratio-Kerala.
(b) The state having lowest sex ratio-Haryana.

3. (a) Largest state – Rajasthan.
(b) Smallest state – Goa.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

JAC Class 9th Geography Climate InText Questions and Answers 

Find Out (Page No. 27)

Question 1.
Why the houses in Rajasthan have thick walls and flat roofs?
Answer:
Rajasthan lies mostly in desert where the climate remains very hot. Due to lack of vegetation, here the sunrays fall directly on the earth. Also the winds blow very fast here. Therefore, the houses have thick walls to maintain the inner temperature of the houses and keep them cool for longer time. They have flat roofs to collect the rainwater because there is scarcity of water in Rajasthan.

Question 2.
Why is the houses in the Tarai region and in Goa & Mangalore have sloping roofs?
Answer:
The Tarai region, Goa and Mangalore are places receiving heavy rainfall throughout the year. Therefore, the houses in these regions have sloping roofs to allow the rainwater to flow down speedily. Non-accumulation of water allows sloping roofs being safe during rainy season.

Question 3.
Why houses in Assam are built on stilts?
Answer:
In Assam, the average rainfall is above 300 cm. Due to heavy rainfall throughout the year, the ground always remains wet. Stilts allow free flow of water on the ground and the houses are not flooded. Therefore, houses are built on stilts to avoid wetness and danger from poisonous reptiles living on the wet ground.

Question 4.
Why most of the World’s deserts are located in the western margins of continents in the sub-tropics ?
Answer:
Most of the world’s deserts are located in the western margins of continents in the sub-tropics because the prevailing winds in the tropics are tropical easterly winds. These winds become dry by the time they reach the western margins of the continents and so they bring no rainfall. Thus, the region becomes moisture-less which causes dry conditions leading to formation of deserts.

Activity (Page No. 38)

Question 1.
1. On the basis of the news items above, find out the names of places and the seasons described.
2. Compare the rainfall description of Chennai and Mumbai and explain the reasons for the difference.
3. Evaluate flood as a disaster with the help of a case study.
Answer:

1. Rainy season Mumbai & Chennai
   Winter Season Srinagar, Amritsar, Shimla and New Delhi.
2. Chennai receives winter rains while Mumbai monsoonal rains. In Chennai, rainfall is less than that in Mumbai.
   The main reason behind this difference is that both Mumbai and Chennai are situated in different monsoon regions.
3. Students are requested to perform the activity on themselves.

JAC Class 9th Geography Climate Textbook Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:
1. Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
(a) Silchar
(b) Mawsynram
(c) Cherrapunji
(d) Guwahati.
Answer:
(b) Mawsynram

2. The wind blowing in the Northern plains in summers is known as :
(a) Kal Baisakhi
(b) Loo
(c) Trade winds
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Loo

3. Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India?
(a) Cyclonic depression
(b) Retreating monsoon
(c) Western disturbances
(d) South-west monsoon
Answer:
(c) Western disturbances

4. Monsoon arrives in India as early in:
(a) May
(b) July
(c) June
(d) August
Answer:
(c) June

5. Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?
(a) warm days and warm nights
(b) warm days and cold nights
(c) cold days and cold nights
(d) cold days and warm nights
Answer:
(b) warm days and cold nights

Question 2.
Answer the following questions briefly :
1. What are the controls affecting the climate of India?
Answer:
There are six major controls affecting the climate of India. They are: latitude, altitude, pressure and wind system, distance from the sea, ocean currents and relief features.

2. Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?
Answer:
India has a monsoon type of climate because there is a seasonal reversal in the wind system of India. During 6 months, monsoon winds blow from sea to land, and during the next 6 months, they blow from land to sea. Monsoon winds prevails between 5° and 30° latitudes on both sides of the Equator. India lies in between these latitudes, thus, it is greatly influenced by monsoon winds.

3. Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?
Answer:
The Thar desert of Rajasthan in India experiences the highest diurnal range of
temperature. It is because in the Thar desert, the weather conditions drastically change from the day to the night. During the day, there is very high temperature, while during the night, the temperature falls down significantly.

4. Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast?
Answer:
South-west monsoon winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast.

5. What are Jet streams and how do they affect the climate of India?
Answer:
Jet streams are the narrow belt of high altitude (above 12,000 m) westerly winds in the
troposphere. Their speed varies from about 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h in winter.
In India, these jet streams blow from south of the Himalayas, throughout the year, except in summer. The western cyclonic disturbances experienced in the north and north-western parts of the country are brought in by this westerly flow.

6. Define monsoon. What do you understand by “break” in monsoon?
Answer:
Monsoon: The word monsoon is derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’, which literally means season. ‘Monsoon’ refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year. Break in Monsoon: Rains taking place only for a few days at a time is called “break in monsoon”. In brief, the intermission amid raining is termed as “break’ in monsoon. It is related to the movement of the monsoon.

7. Why is the monsoon considered a unifying bond?
Answer:
India is a vast country. Here variations are found not only in relief, climate and vegetation, but also in life. But the monsoon is a geographical factor that binds these variations of the country together and establishes unity. The arrival of the monsoon brings rains all over the country. Monsoon winds speed up the process of agriculture by providing water to us.

The entire Indian landscape, its wildlife and vegetation life, the entire agricultural program, the lifestyle of the people and their festivals, all revolve around the monsoon. Due to the monsoon, there is a rhythm of the cycle of seasons every years. This is the reason why the monsoon is considered a unifying bond.

Question 3.
Why does the rainfall decrease from the east to the west in Northern India?
Answer:
When the Bay of Bengal branch of south-west monsoon is obstructed by the eastern Himalayas, maximum amount of rainfall is received in West Bengal, Bihar etc. When these winds advance towards west, they go on shedding moisture. Therefore, the amount of rainfall decreases from the east to the west in Northern India.

Question 4.
Give reasons as to why:
1. Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian sub-continent?
Answer:
Reasons for the seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian sub-continent are the following:
(a) During winter, there is a high-pressure area over north of the Himalayas. Cold dry winds blow from this region to the low pressure area over the oceans to the south.

(b) In summer, a low-pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over north-western India. This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer.

2. The bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.
Answer:
In India, most of the rainfall is caused by south-west monsoon which prevails in India only between June to September. Therefore, bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated in these four months only.

3. The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
Answer:
The north-east monsoon winds starts blowing in October month from the land, i.e., north-eastern parts of India to the sea. These bear no water till their access to the Bay of Bengal. However, they get some moisture from the sea here and cause rain in the coast of Tamil Nadu.

4. The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
Answer:
The delta region of the Eastern coast of India is frequently struck by cyclones. This is because the cyclonic depressions that originate over the Andaman Sea are brought in by the sub-tropical easterly jet stream balancing over Peninsular India during the monsoon as well as during the October to November period. The depression moves along East to West direction thus hitting the Eastern coasts.

5. Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought- prone.
Answer:
This happens due to collision of rain bearing Arabian Sea branch of monsoon winds against the highly elevated Western Ghats and depletion of water there. Again, the Aravali hills, being not much elevated, the monsoon winds pass from there without causing rainfall.

Question 5.
Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.
Answer:
The regional variations in the climatic conditions of India can be understood in the following ways :
1. Temperature:
In summer, the temperature occasionally reaches 50°C in some parts of the Rajasthan’s desert area, whereas it may be around 20°C in Pahalgam in Jammu and Kashmir. On a winter night, temperature at Drass in Jammu and Kashmir may be as low as – 45°C, while Thiruvananthapuram, on the other hand, may have a temperature of 22°G.

2. Rainfall:
Most parts of the country receive rainfall from June to September, but some parts like Tamil Nadu coast get a large portion of rainfall during October and November. The annual precipitation also varies from over 400 cm in Meghalaya to less than 10 cm in Ladakh and Western Rajasthan.

3. Form of precipitation:
While precipitation is mostly in the form of snowfall in the upper parts of Himalayas, it rains over the rest of the country.

4. Direction of winds:
During summer, winds move from sea to land, while during winter, winds move from land to sea.

Question 6.
Discuss the mechanism of monsoon.
Answer:
The monsoons are experienced in the tropical areas roughly between 20°N and 20°S. To understand the mechanism of the monsoon, the following facts are important:

1. The differential heating and cooling of land and water creates low pressure on the landmass of India, while the seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
2. The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the Ganga plain (this is the equitorial trough normally positioned about 5° N of the equator. It is also known as the monsoon trough during the monsoon season.)
3. The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S over the Indian Ocean. The intensity and position of this high-pressure area affects the Indian monsoon.
4. The Tibetan plateau get intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level.
5. The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula during summer.

Question 7.
Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.
Answer:
Weather Conditions of the Cold Season: An account of weather conditions of the cold season is as followin :
1. Time period of the cold season:
The cold weather season begins from mid-November in Northern India and stays till February. December and January are the coldest months in the Northern part of India.

2. Temperature:
The temperature decreases from south to the north. The average temperature of Chennai, on the eastern coast, is between 24°-25°C, while in the northern plains, it ranges between 10°-15°C. Days are warm and nights are cold. Frost is common in the north and the highest slopes of the Himalayas experience snowfall.

3. Winds:
During this season, the north-east trade winds prevail over the country, it is a dry season.

4. Rainfall:
Some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds as here they blow from sea to land.

5. Air pressure:
In the northern part of the country, a feeble high-pressure region develops, with light winds moving outwards from this area.

6. Cyclonic disturbances:
A characteristic feature of the cold weather season over the northern plains is the inflow of cyclonic disturbances from the west and the north-west. These low-pressure systems originate over the Mediterranean Sea and Western Asia and move into India, along with the westerly flow. They cause the much-needed winter rains over the plains and snow fall in the mountains.

7. Characteristics of the Cold Season:
Clear sky, pleasant weather, low temperature and humidity, high range of temperature, cool and slow northern winds are the main characteristics of this season.

Question 8
Give the characteristics and effects of the monsoon rainfall in India.
Answer:
Characteristics of the Monsoon Rainfall: Several characteristic features of the monsoon rainfall are the following :

1. Most of the country gets rainfall from south-west monsoons.
2. The rainfall from the monsoon winds is variable and quite undependable.
3. Much of the rainfall is received in 3-4 months.
4. The distribution of rainfall is highly uneven.
5. Indian rainfall is controlled by orography, i.e., most of the rainfall is caused due to the obstruction of moisture bearing winds.

Effects of the Monsoon Rainfall: The effects of the monsoon rainfall are as hereunder.
1. South-west monsoon does not cause rain regularly. Its amount also varies from year to year.

2. After heavy rainfall, there is decrease in its quantity. Sometimes, long duration of rainy season passes even without rains.

3. Cyclones at the head of the Bay of Bengal control the effectiveness of monsoon winds. From June to September, the number of cyclones is about 8. Intense cyclones give strength to Monsoon winds and helps in causing heavy rainfall, their less intensity causes dry spells.

4. Monsoon trough of low pressure situated over the north plains also affects the distribution of rainfall. The axis of the trough close to the Himalayas causes heavy rains in the mountains and floods in the plains resulting in a great loss to man and material.

5. Success or failure of agricultural crops depends on the amount of rainfall. Thus, Indian agriculture still remains ‘A Gamble to Monsoon’, though, we have tapped irrigation potential to a great extent.

Question 9.
On an outline map of India, show the following:
1. Areas receiving rainfall over 400 cm.
2. Areas receiving less than 20 cm of rainfall.
3. The direction of the south-west monsoon over India.
Answer:

1. Find out which songs, dances, festivals and special food preparations are associated with certain seasons in your region. Do they have some commonality with other regions of India?
Answer:
Students, do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

2. Collect photographs of typical rural houses, and clothing of people from different regions of India. Examine whether they reflect any relationship with the climatic condition and relief of the area.
Answer:
Students, do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

Question 1.
In table-I, the average mean monthly temperatures and amounts of rainfall of 10 representative stations have been given. It is for you to study on your own and convert them into ‘temperature and rainfall’ graphs. A glance at these visual representations will help you to grasp instantly the similarities and differences between them. One such graph (Figure 1) is already prepared for you. See if you can arrive at some broad generalisations about our diverse climatic conditions. We hope you are in for a great joy of learning. Do the following activities.

Answer:
Temperature and Rainfall graph are as shown below:

Question 2.
Re-arrange the 10 stations in two different sequences:
1. According to their distance from the equator.
2. According to their altitude above mean sea-level.
Answer:
1. According to their distance from the equator:

1. Thiruvananthapuram	8°29′ N
2. Bangalore	12°58′ N
3. Chennai	13°4′ N
4. Mumbai	19° N
5. Nagpur	21°9′ N
6. Kolkata	22°34′ N
7. Shillong	24°34′ N
8. Jodhpur	26° 18′ N
9. Delhi	29° N
10. Leh	34° N

2. According to their altitude above mean sea-level:

1. Kolkata	6 m
2. Chennai	7 m
3. Mumbai	11 m
4. Thiruvananthapuram	61 m
5. Delhi	219 m
6. Jodhpur	224 m
7. Nagpur	312 m
8. Bangalore	909 m
9. Shillong	1461 m
10. Leh	3506 m

Question 3.
1. Name two rainiest stations.
2. Name two driest stations.
3. Two stations with most equable climate.
4. Two stations with most extreme climate.
5. Two stations most influenced by the Arabian Sea branch of south-west monsoon.
6. Two stations most influenced by the Bay of Bengal branch of south-west monsoons.
7. Two stations influenced by both branches of the south-west monsoons.
8. Two stations influenced by retreating and north-east monsoons.
9. Two stations receiving winter showers from the western disturbances.
10. The two hottest stations in the months of :
(a) February
(b) April
(c) May
(d) June
Answer:

1. Two rainiest stations:
   (a) Shillong,
   (b) Mumbai.
2. Two driest stations:
   (a) Leh,
   (b) Jodhpur.
3. Two stations with most equable climate:
   (a) Mumbai,
   (b) Thiruvananthapuram
4. Two stations with most extreme climate:
   (a) Leh,
   (b) Jodhpur.
5. Two stations most influenced by the Arabian sea branch of south-west monsoons:
   (a) Mumbai,
   (b) Thirvananthapuram.
6. Two stations most influenced by the Bay of Bengal Branch of south-west monsoons:
   (a) Shillong,
   (b) Kolkata.
7. Two stations influenced by both branches:
   (a) Nagpur,
   (b) Delhi.
8. Two stations influenced by retreating and north-east monsoons:
   (a) Chennai,
   (b) Thiruvananthapuram.
9. Two stations receiving winter showers from the western disturbances:
   (a) Delhi,
   (b) Leh.
10. The two hottest stations in the month of:
    (a) February: Thiruvananthapuram and Chennai.
    (b) April: Nagpur and Chennai.
    (c) May: Nagpur and Delhi/Jodhpur.
    (d) June: Jodhpur and Delhi.

Question 4.
Now find out:
1. Why are Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong rainier in June than in July?
2. Why is July rainier in Mumbai than in Thiruvananthapuram?
3. Why are south-west monsoons less rainy in Chennai?
4. Why is Shillong rainier than Kolkata?
5. Why is Kolkata rainier in July than in June unlike Shillong which is rainier in June than in July?
6. Why does Delhi receive more rain than Jodhpur?
Answer:
1. Thiruvananthapuram is located in Kerala in the southernmost part of India. By early June, monsoon enters India from the south. One of the branches of monsoon winds, i.e., Bay of Bengal branch hits the hills located around Shillong and showers heavy rainfall. As Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong come first in the way of monsoon winds, they are more rainier in June than in July.

2. In the month of July, the monsoon winds pass from Thiruvananthapuram and enter the interior parts of India, thus, July is less rainier in this city. On the other hand, in Mumbai, the monsoon winds rising from Arabian Sea continuously cause rainfall due to the presence of Western Ghats.

3. The Bay of Bengal branch of south-west monsoons causes heavy rains in the western parts of Western Ghats. Chennai lies in the extremely east. When the monsoon winds reach over there, they become almost dry. Chennai lies in rain-shadow area of south-west monsoon.

4. Shillong is situated on hills which trap the monsoon winds and force them to cause rainfall. But Kolkata is situated in plains where monsoon winds reach comparatively late and there are no such hills which could trap the monsoon winds.

5. South-west monsoon first strikes Shillong and then Kolkata. Thus, Shillong receives more rainfall in June itself and as these winds move on to Kolkata, they start causing rainfall over there in July.

6. Delhi creates barrier in the path of south-west (Bay of Bengal branch) monsoon while Jodhpur does not create any resistance in the path of south-west (Arbian Sea Branch) monsoon.

Question 5.
Now think why:
1. Thiruvananthapuram has equable climate?
2. Chennai has more rains only after the fury of monsoon is over in most parts of the country?
3. Jodhpur has a hot desert type of climate?
4. Leh has moderate precipitation almost throughout the year?
5. While in Delhi and Jodhpur most of the rain is confined to nearly three months, in Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong it is almost nine months of the year? In spite of these facts see carefully if there are strong evidences to conclude that the monsoons still provide a very strong framework lending overall climatic unity to the whole country.
Answer:
1. Thiruvananthapuram has an equable climate because it is closer to the sea and its climate is moderated by the sea. Being close to the Equator, it is also influenced by the equatorial type of climate where the annual range of temperature happens to be the least.

2. Over the most parts of India, rainfall occurs due to south-west monsoon winds. These winds start retreating in September to October months. At this time, north-east trade winds blow all over India. These winds receive vapour while moving over the Bay of Bengal which immediately carry to the Coromandel coast in Tamil Nadu. Thus, Chennai receives heavy rain during winter season.

3. Jodhpur falls in the rain shadow area and it is situated near to the Thar desert. This station has, therefore, extreme climate. There is also scarce of vegetation. Thus, it has a hot desert type of climate.

4. Leh is situated on the high altitude in Ladakh. Thus, we can see here the precipitation in the form of snow. The lowest temperature also freezes the water. Therefore, Leh has moderate precipitation almost throughout the year.

5. Delhi and Jodhpur are located in the interior parts of country where monsoon winds reach comparatively late. On the other hand, Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong are located on the sea coast where monsoon winds strike first and cause heavy rainfall.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Solutions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Who are the pastoral nomadic communities of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Raikas
(b) Gaddhi shepherds
(c) Gujjar Backarwals
(d) Bhotiyas.
Answer:
(c) Gujjar Backarwals

2. The Dhangar shepherds stayed in the central plateau of Maharasthra during the :
(a) monsoon
(b) winter
(c) autumn
(d) summer.
Answer:
(a) monsoon

3. When did the colonial government in India passed the Criminal Tribes Act?
(a) 1871
(b) In 1879
(c) In 1840
(d) In 1947
Answer:
(a) 1871

4. Where do the Massai cattle herders reside?
(a) West Africa
(b) East Africa
(c) South Africa
(d) North America
Answer:
(b) East Africa

5. Where is Samburu National Park located?
(a) Uganda
(b) Tanganyika
(c) Kenya
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Kenya

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who are nomadic pastoralists?
Answer:
Nomadic pastoralists are people who move from one place to another with their herds to earn a living.

Question 2.
What is a pasture?
Answer:
It is grass or other plants grown for feeding or grazing animals, as well as land used for grazing.

Question 3.
Write the most significant feature of nomadic pastoralists.
Answer:
The most significant feature of nomadic pastoralists is their cycle of seasonal movement.

Question 4.
List some pastoral communities of the Himalayas.
Answer:
Gujjar Bakarwals, Gaddi shepherds, Bhotiyas, Sherpas and Kinnauris.

Question 5.
Where did the Gujjar herders stay in winters and summers?
Answer:
The Gujjar herders, in winters, came down to the dry forests of the Bhabar, and in summers, they went up to the high meadows i.e., the Bugyals.

Question 6.
What is Bhabar?
Answer:
Bhabar is a dry forested area below the foothills of Garhwal and Kumaun.

Question 7.
Who are Bugyals?
Answer:
Bugyals are the vast meadows in the high mountains.

Question 8.
In which state Dhangars are found?
Answer:
Dhangars are an important pastoral community of Maharashtra.

Question 9.
Why are the Konkani peasants welcome by Dhangar shepherds?
Answer:

1. Dhangar flocks manure the fields.
2. The animals feed on the stubble of the Kharif crop.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Which of the following terms is being used to denote the species pf animals of a particular region or period?
(a) Fauna
(b) Animals
(c) Flora
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Fauna

2. Which type of forests are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of the Western Ghats and the island groups of Lakshadweep and Andaman-Nicobar?
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Tropical deciduous forests
(c) Tropical evergreen forests
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(c) Tropical evergreen forests

3. Which type of forest is also known as monsoon forests?
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Tropical deciduous forests
(c) Tropical evergreen forests
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Tropical deciduous forests

4. Red panda is a rare animal found in:
(a) Montane forests
(b) Tropical evergreen forests
(c) Mangrove forests
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) Montane forests

5. How many biosphere reserves have been set up by the government of India?
(a) Ten
(b) Twelve
(c) Five
(d) Fourteen.
Answer:
(d) Fourteen.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the three forms of natural vegetation?
Answer:

1. Forests,
2. Grasses,
3. Bushes.

Question 2.
How many countries of the world having mega bio-diversity?
Answer:
12 countries.

Question 3.
What place does India hold in the world in plant diversity?
Answer:
Tenth.

Question 4.
What place does India hold in Asia in plant diversity?
Fourth.

Question 5.
Distinguish between indigenous species and exotic species.
Answer:
The natural vegetation, which are purely Indian, are known as endemic or indigenous species, but those which have come from outside India are termed as exotic plants.

Question 6.
How does land affect the natural vegetation?
Answer:
Land affects the natural vegetation directly and indirectly. The fertile plain level is generally devoted to agriculture. The undulating and rough terrains are areas where grassland and woodlands develop and give shelter to a variety of wild life.

Question 7.
What affects the variation in duration of sunlight?
Answer:
The variation in duration of sunlight at different places is due to differences in latitude, altitude, season and duration of the day. Due to longer duration of sunlight, trees grow faster in summer.

Question 8.
How does precipitation affect the vegetation?
Answer:
In India, almost the entire rainfall is received by the advancing south-west monsoon (June to September) and retreating north-east monsoons. Areas of heavy rainfall have denser vegetation as compared to other areas of less rainfall.

Question 9.
Which type of forests found in areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall?
Answer:
Tropical evergreen forests.

Question 10.
Name the commercially important trees of tropical evergreen forests.
Ebony, Mahogany, Rosewood, Rubber and Cinchona.

Question 11.
Which are the most widespread forests of India?
OR
Which forests are also called monsoon forests?
Answer:
Tropical deciduous forests.

Question 12.
How are the tropical deciduous forests divided on the basis of availability of water?
Answer:

1. Moist deciduous forests,
2. Dry deciduous forests.

Question 13.
Write any two finding areas of moist deciduous forests.

1. Jharkhand,
2. West Odisha.

Question 14.
Which are the important trees of dry deciduous forests?
Answer:
Teak, Sal, Peepal and Neem.

Question 15.
Name the common animals of tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
Lion, tiger, pig, deer, elephant, lizard, snake and tortoise.

Question 16.
In what amount of rainfall the thorn forests are found?
Answer:
Less than 70 cm of rainfall.

Question 17.
In which areas of India, the scrubs are found?
Answer:
In the north-western part of the country including semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.

Question 18.
What are the main plant species of the thorny forests?
Answer:
Acacias, palms, euphorbias and cacti.

Question 19.
State any two characteristics of the thorny trees and scrubs.

1. The stems are succulent to conserve water,
2. Leaves are mostly thick and small to minimize evaporation.

Question 20.
What type of trees are found between the height of 1500 metres and 3000 metres?
Answer:
Coniferous trees.

Question 21.
Give any four examples of coniferous trees.
Answer:
Pine, deodar, silver fir and spruce.

Question 22.
Name the common animals found in the montane forests.
Answer:
The common animals found in these forests are-Kashmir stag, spotted deer, wild sheep, jack rabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak, snow leopard, squirrels, shaggy horn wild ibex, bear and rare red panda, sheep and goats with thick hair.

Question 23.
By which nomadic tribes, the Alpine grasslands are used?
Answer:
The Gujjars and the Bakarwals.

Question 24.
Where does the mangrove vegetation found in India?
Answer:
Mangrove forests are found in the deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari and the Kaveri.

Question 25.
Name the most famous tree of mangrove forests.
Answer:
Sundari trees.

Question 26.
Name the famous animal of mangrove forests.
Answer:
Royal Bengal Tiger.

Question 27.
In which state is Gir forest located?
Answer:
Gir forest is located in Gujarat state of India.

Question 28.
How many plants have been described in Ayurveda?
Answer:
About 2000 plants.

Question 29.
How many medicinal plants have named by the World Conservation Union’s Red List?
Answer:
The World Conservation Union’s Red List has named 352 medicinal plants, of which 52 are critically threatened and 49 are endangered.

Question 30.
Which medicinal plant is used to treat blood pressure?
Answer:
Sarpagandha.

Question 31.
Where are the one-horned rhinoceros found in India?
Answer:
In swampy and marshy lands of Assam and West Bengal.

Question 32.
In which place of India wild asses are found?
Answer:
Arid areas of Rann of Kachchh.

Question 33.
Name the only country in the world that has both tigers and lion.
Answer:
India.

Question 34.
When was the Wildlife Protection Act of India implemented?
Answer:
In 1972.

Question 35.
Name any four biosphere reserves in India where wildlife is protected.
Answer:

1. Nilgiri,
2. Nanda Devi,
3. Gulf of Mannar,
4. Sunderban.

Question 36.
In which season, the Siberian crane comes in India?
Answer:
During the winter season.

Question 37.
Name any two National parks.
Answer:

1. Ranthambore National Park,
2. Kanha National Park.

Question 38.
Write the names of any two wildlife sanctuaries.
Answer:

1. Sariska and
2. Chandra Prabha.

Question 39.
How do the human beings influence the ecology of a region?
Answer:
Human beings utilise the vegetation and wildlife. The greed of man leads to exploitation of these resources. They insensibly cut the trees and kill the animals, creating ecological imbalance. As a result, some of the plants and animals have reached the verge of extinction.

Question 40.
Write any three developmental projects introduced by government to protect the endangered species of India.

1. Project Tiger,
2. Project Rhino,
3. Project Great Indian Bustard.

Question 41.
How many national parks and wildlife sanctuaries have been set up to conserve our natural heritage?
Answer:
104 National Parks and 543 Wildlife Sanctuaries.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a notes on bio-diversity in India.
Answer:
India is rich in biodiversity. It is one of the twelve mega bio-diverse countries of the world. It has 47,000 species of plants including 15000 flowering plants. India also has many species of non-flowering plants. Besides its floral diversity, India also has about 90,000 species of animals. India also has rich variety of fishes in its fresh and marine water.

Question 2.
How does the land have an impact on flora and fauna?
Answer:
Land affects the natural vegetation directly and indirectly. The nature of the land i.e., plain, hilly or a plateau, determines the kind of vegetation which will grow in it. Fertile lands are used for growing crops, vegetables and fruits.
Undulating and rough surfaces generally develop either into grasslands and woodlands (forests) and give shelter to a variety of wildlife.

Question 3.
How does the soil have an impact on flora and fauna? Explain with examples.
Answer:
The soils also vary from place to place. Different types of soils provide different types of vegetation. For example, deltaic or alluvial soil at a river delta near the sea will sustain mangrove forests, while slopes of hills have conical trees. The sandy soils of the desert support cactus and thorny bushes.

Question 4.
How does the temperature have an impact on flora and fauna?
Answer:
The character and extent of vegetation are mainly determined by temperature along- with humidity in the air. As the climate gets colder, either by increase in altitude (above 915 metres) or by moving away from the equator, the vegetation will change from tropical to sub-tropical, temperate and then alpine. For example, on the slope of the Himalayas and hills of the Peninsula, the fall in temperature affects the type of vegetation and its growth.

Question 5.
Explain the uses of forests.
Answer:
The uses of forests are as follows:

1. Forests are renewable resources and play a major role in enhancing the quality of environment.
2. They modify the local climate, control soil erosion, regulate stream flow and support a variety of industries.
3. They provide livelihood for many communities and offer panoramic and scenic view for recreation.
4. They control the force of winds and temperature and cause rainfall.
5. They provide humus to the soil and natural habitat to the wildlife.

Question 6.
Distinguish between moist deciduous and dry deciduous forests.
Answer:
Differences between moist deciduous and dry deciduous forests are as follows:

Moist deciduous forests	Dry deciduous forests
1. These types of forests are found in areas with annual rainfall of 100 to 200 cm.	1. This types of forests are found in areas with annual rainfall of 70 to 100 cm.
2. Teak, bamboo, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, aijun and mulberry trees are prominent in these forests.	2. Teak, sal, neem and peepal trees are prominent in these forests.
3. These forests have not been cleared much.	3. Large areas of these forests have been cleared to cultivative and grazing.

Question 7.
What are the differences between thorn forests and mangrove forests?
Answer:
Differences between thorn forests and mangrove forests are as follows:

Thom forests	Mangrove forests
1. These types of forests are found in areas with annual rainfall less than 70 cm.	1. These types of forests are found in the delta regions of rivers and are not depen¬dent on amount of rainfall.
2. These types of forests are mainly found in most of Rajasthan, Gujarat and in some areas of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana.	2. These types of forests are mainly found in the coastal delta regions.
3. Babool, kikar, palm, cactus, acacia trees and bushes are found here.	3. Sundari, palm, coconut, keora and agar trees are found here.

Question 8.
Why is it necessary to conserve our natural resources of forests and wildlife?
Answer:
The natural resources are a common heritage which we have inherited from our forefathers, and in turn, we will pass them over to our future generations. Conservation does not mean that we should not use the natural resources, but it means that we should use them wisely. All the plants and animals in a given area are so closely interlinked and interdependent, that they cannot survive without each other.

The large-scale poaching (killing) of wild animals, residing in the forests by man is a serious threat to the survival of many animal and bird species. This also disturbs the food chains in which these animals occur, resulting in undesirable consequences for the whole ecosystem. Thus to avoid these consequences, special efforts of their conservation are required.

Question 9.
What are the major objectives to set up the Biosphere Reserves in India?
Answer:
9 Biosphere Reserves have been set up in India to protect flora and fauna. The major objectives of these Biosphere Reserves are:

1. To conserve and maintain diversity and integrity of the natural heritage in its full form, i.e., physical environment, the flora and the fauna.
2. To provide facilities for education, awareness and training. The major goal of setting up such reserves is to preserve the genetic diversity in crucial natural ecosystems.

Question 10.
What are the names of bio-reserves regions in India?
Answer:
The following are the bio-reserves regions in India: Sundarbans, Simplipal, Gulf of Mannar, Dihang-Dibang, Nilgiri, Dibru-Saikhoula, Nanda Devi, Agasthyamalai, Nokrek, Kangchen- dzonga, Great Nicobar, Pachmarhi, Manas, Achanakmar- ‘ Amarkantak, Kachchh, Cold Desert, Seshachalam Hill, Panna.

III. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The distribution of flora and fauna is mainly determined by the climate in India. Justify this statement by giving relevant facts.
Answer:
This is true that the distribution of flora and fauna is mainly determined by the climate. Climatic factors like temperature, photoperiod and precipitation highly affect the climate of a region in India. The given points state how climatic factors affect climate and determines distribution of flora and fauna.
1. Temperature:
The character and extent of vegetation and distribution of fauna is mainly determined by temperature alongwith humidity in the air, precipitation and soil. On the slopes of the Himalayan mountains and the hills of the peninsula above the height of 915 m, the fall in the temperature affects the types of vegetation, its growth, and changes it from tropical to sub-tropical, temperate and alpine vegetation. Along with this, they affect the distribution of wildlife too.

2. Photoperiod (Sunlight):
The variation in duration of sunlight at different places is due to differences in altitude, latitudes, season and duration of the day.
Due to longer duration of sunlight, trees grow faster in summers.

3. Precipitation:
In India, almost the entire rainfall is brought in by the advancing south-west monsoon (June to September) and retreating north-east monsoon. Area of heavy rainfall have more dense vegetation and fauna as compared to other areas of less rainfall.

Question 2.
Explain the important characteristics of tropical evergreen forests.
Answer:
The main characteristics of tropical evergreen or tropical rain forests are:

1. These forests are found in areas with an annual rainfall of about 200 cm.
2. These forests grow in the areas of high temperature and high rainfall.
3. In these forests, trees grow very vigorously, reaching height of 60 m and above.
4. These forests yield hardwood trees.
5. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves. As such, these forests appear green all the year round.
6. Rainy parts of Western Ghats, Assam, West Bengal, island groups of the Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Odisha have these type of forests.
7. Ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber, cinchona and shisham are some of the commercially-important trees.

Question 3.
Explain the important features of the thorn forests.
Answer:
The important features of the thorn forests are:

1. The areas having rainfall less then 70 cm support this type of vegetation.
2. Due to lack of moisture, the trees growing here have very small leaves and they bear thorns.
3. The common species found here include babool, kikar and palm in the areas of moderate rainfall. In areas of more scanty rainfall, they consist of scrubs, shrubs and thorny bushes.
4. The main features of thorny forests are that the trees are scattered and have long plant roots penetrating deep into the soil and spreading in a radial pattern to get water. Leaves are mostly thick and small to minimize loss of water,
5. Rajasthan, Gujarat, parts of Punjab, Haryana and dry parts of Madhya Pradesh and the Deccan plateau alongwith the rain-shadow area have this type of vegetation.

Question 4.
Describe the principal features of the montane forests.
Answer:
The principal features of the montane forests are as follows:

1. In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to the corresponding change in the natural vegetation. As such there is a succession of natural vegetation belts in the same order as we see from the tropical to the tundra region.
2. The wet temperate type of forests are found between a height of 1,000 and 2,000 metres. Evergreen broad-leaf trees such as oaks and chestnuts predominate.
3. Between, 1,500 and 3,000 metres, temperate forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar, are found. These forests cover mostly the southern slope of the Himalayas and places having high altitude in southern and north-east India.
4. At high altitudes, generally more than 3,600 metres above sea level, temperate forests and grasslands give way to Alpine vegetation. Silver fir, junipers, pines and birches are the common trees of these forests.
5. They get progressively stunted as they approach the snow-line. Ultimately, through shrubs and scrubs, they merge into the Alpine grasslands. At higher altitudes, mosses and lichens form part of the tundra vegetation.
6. The common animals found in these forests are the Kashmir stag, spotted deer, wild sheep, jack rabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak, snow leopard, squirrels, shaggy horn wild ibex, bear and rare red panda, sheep and goats with thick hair.

Question 5.
Write the important characteristics of mangrove forests.
Answer:
The important characteristics of mangrove forests are:

1. These forests occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influences and as such are also known as deltaic or tidal forest.
2. White littoral forests occur at several places along the coast. Swamp forests are
   confined to the deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. ‘
3. The most peculiar feature of these forests is that they can survive and grow both in fresh as well as salt water.
4. In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, the most important tree is the Sundari tree, after which Sunderban has been named. Palm, coconut, keora and agar also grow in some parts of the delta.
5. Royal Bengal Tiger is the prominent animal in these forests. Turtles, crocodiles, gharials and snakes are also found in these forests.

Question 6.
Write a note on the commonly-used plants in India.
Answer:
India is known for its herbs and spices from ancient times. Some 2,000 plants have been described in Ayurveda. The commonly-used plants in India are :

1. Sarpagandha: It is found only in India and is used to treat blood pressure.
2. Jamun: The juice from its ripe fruit is used to prepare vinegar which is carminative and diuretic and has digestive properties. The powder of the seeds is used for controlling diabetes.
3. Aijun: The fresh juice of leaves is a cure for earache. It is also used to regulate blood pressure.
4. Babool: Leaves are used as a cure for eye sores. Its gum is used as a tonic.
5. Neem: It has high antibiotic and anti-bacterial properties.
6. Tulsi: It is used to cure cough and cold.
7. Kachnar: It is used to cure asthma and ulcers. The buds and roots are good for curing digestive problems.

Question 7.
Write a detailed note on wildlife in India.
Answer:
India has a varied fauna due to great diversity of the relief and climate. There are approximately 90,000 different species of fauna. The fresh water and marine species of fish amount to 2,546. It constitutes 12 per cent of the world’s total fish stock. India is a home to about 2,000 mammals species of birds, which account for around 13 per cent of the world’s total species of birds. India has about 5 to 8 per cent of the world’s amphibians, reptiles and mammals.

The elephants are the most magestic animals among the mammals. As they prefer hot wet forests, so they are found in the dense rainy forests of Assam in the north-east and in Kerala and Karnataka in the south. Camels are found mainly in hot and arid Thar Desert of Rajasthan. Wild asses dominate the arid areas of Rann of Kachchh One-homed rhinoceros also fall in the category of mammals.

They live in swampy and marshy land of Assam and West Bengal. The other animals included in the category of mammals are the Indian bison, Indian buffalo, nilgai (blue bull), chausingha (four-homed antelope), black buck, gazel and deer.

1. Animals of prey:
Among the animals of prey, Indian lion and tiger are remarkable. Lion’s natural habitat is confined to the Gir forests of Saurashtra in Gujarat. The famous Bengal tiger has its natural habitat in the Sunderban in the tidal forests occupying the edge of the Ganga delta. The other animals belonging to cat family are leopards, clouded leopards and snow leopards.

2. Animals of the Himalayan Regions:
Snow leopards, sheep, mountain goats, the ibex, the shrew bear and the red panda are the important animals of the Himalayas. Ladakh’s freezing high altitudes are home to yak, the shaggy horned wild ox, the Tibetan antelope, the bharal (blue sheep), wild sheep and the kiang (Tibetan wild ass). .

3. Monkeys:
Indian forests are homes of several species of monkeys. The most famous is the langur.

4. Birds:
India has a rich variety of beautiful and colourful birds. They include pheasants, geese, ducks, mynahs, parakeets, pigeons, cranes, hombills and sun birds. Most bird species inhabit forests, but some have their natural habitats in swamps and wet lands.

5. Water animals:
In the rivers, lakes and coastal areas, turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found.

Question 8.
What steps have been taken by the government of India to protect the flora and fauna of the country ?
Answer:
Flora and fauna are essential for the survival of human beings and to maintain the ecological balance. Due to excessive exploitation of the plants and animal resources by human beings some of them are on the verge of extinction and some have already become extinct.

To stop the indiscriminate destruction of flora and fauna, the following steps have been taken by the government of India :
1. Eighteen biosphere reserves have been establish in the country to protect flora and fauna. Four out of these, the Sundarbans in the West Bengal, Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, the Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu, the Nilgiris (Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu) have been included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves.

2. Financial and technical assistance is provided to various botanical gardens by the government since 1992.

3. 104 National Parks, 543 Wildlife Sanctuaries and Zoological Gardens have been established to take care of this natural heritage.

Question 1.
For identification only:
Vegetation Type: Tropical Evergreen Forests, Tropical Deciduous Forests, Thorn Forests, Montane Forests and Mangrove Forests.
Answer:

Question 2.
For Locating and Labelling:
1. National Parks: Corbett, Kaziranga, Ranthambore, Shivpuri, Kanha, Simlipal and Manas.
2. Wildlife Sanctuaries: Sariska, Mudumalai, Rajaji, Dachigam.
3. National Parks: Tadoba, Sanjay Gandhi, Keloadeo, Rajgir, Bendipur, Guindy.
Answer:

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Science Important Questions Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are examples of …………….
(a) micronutrients
(b) macronutrients
(c) fertilizers
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(b) macronutrients

Question 2.
Cyprinus and Parthenium are types of …………….
(a) diseases
(b) pesticides
(c) weeds
(d) pathogens
Answer:
(c) weeds

Question 3.
Using fertilisers in farming is an example of …………… .
(a) no cost production
(b) low – cost production
(c) high – cost production
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) high – cost production

Question 4.
What is the other name for Apis cerana indica?
(a) Indian cow
(b) Indian buffalo
(c) Indian honeybee
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Indian honeybee

Question 5.
The management and production of fish is called …………… .
(a) pisciculture
(b) apiculture
(c) sericulture
(d) aquaculture
Answer:
(a) pisciculture

Question 6.
Pasturage is related to …………… .
(a) cattle
(b) fishery
(c) apiculture
(d) sericulture
Answer:
(c) apiculture

Question 7.
What is the process of growing two or more crops in a definite pattern called?
(a) Crop rotation
(b) Intercropping
(c) Mixed cropping
(d) Organic cropping
Answer:
(b) Intercropping

Question 8.
The kharif season extends from …………… .
(a) November to April
(b) June to October
(c) March to November
(d) December to March
Answer:
(b) June to October

Question 9.
For mixed cropping, which of the following combinations of crops is not suitable?
(a) Wheat + maize
(b) Wheat + gram
(c) Wheat + mustard
(d) Groundnut + sunflower
Answer:
(a) Wheat + maize

Question 10.
Catla, Rohu and Mrigals constitute …………… .
(a) marine fishes
(b) brackish water fishes
(c) fresh water fishes
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) fresh water fishes

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 11.
Madhu visited a dairy farm with her friends. There they saw the various kinds of cattle kept in sheds, food given to them and so on. What are the main components of feed provided to the cattle?
(a) Roughage
(b) Concentrates
(c) Water
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 12.
Find out the correct sentences.
(i) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants.
(ii) Cross between two varieties is called interspecific hybridisation.
(iii) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives genetically modified crop.
(iv) Cross between plants of two species is called intervarietal hybridisation.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i) and (iii)

Question 13.
The characteristic which is not chosen for selective breeding in dairy animals is
(a) lactation period
(b) resistance to diseases
(c) good shelter
(d) nutritional requirement
Answer:
(c) good shelter

Assertion Reason Questions

Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions and the Reasons have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both the statements are false.
1. Assertion: Organic matter is important for crop production.
Reason: Organic matter provides major essential nutrients to the plant.
Answer:
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

2. Assertion: Manure is better than fertilisers in maintaining soil fertility.
Reason: Manure improves soil structure and increases the water holding capacity of soil.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: It is better to grow soyabean with maize in the same field.
Reason: Root nodules of soyabean plants have nitrogen fixing bacteria which enrich the soil with nitrogen.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

4. Assertion: Mixed cropping is a good practice in agriculture.
Reason: By mixed cropping, number of weeds in the field can be reduced.
Answer:
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

5. Assertion: Grains to be stored should have low moisture level.
Reason: Low moisture level in grains inhibits the growth of bacteria and fungi.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State one demerit with composite fish culture system.
Answer:
Many fishes breed only during monsoon so hormonal stimulation has to be given. Also, good quality fish seeds are not available.

Question 2.
State one importance of photoperiod in agriculture.
Answer:
Photoperiod in agriculture provides adequate light for flowering.

Question 3.
Name two micronutrients and two macronutrients which plants take from the soil.
Answer:
(a) Macronutrients are: calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg)
(b) Micronutrients are: boron (B), chloride (Cl)

Question 4.
How does catla differ from mrigal?
Answer:
Catla belongs to genus Catla while mrigal belongs to genus Cirrhinus. Catla is a surface feeder and native to the Northern waters of India while mrigal is a bottom – feeder and native to the Ganges and Brahm putra rivers of India.

Question 5.
Name the two vitamins which are added in the poultry feed.
Answer:
Vitamins A and K.

Question 6.
From where do plants acquire the following nutrients?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
Answer:
(a) Soil (b) Water

Question 7.
Which nutrients are supplied by cereals and pulses?
Answer:
Carbohydrates and proteins are supplied by cereals and pulses, respectively.

Question 8.
Name any two weeds of crop field.
Answer:
Xanthium (chota dhatura), Parthenium (gajar ghas), Cyperinus rotundus (motha).

Question 9.
Define animal husbandry.
Answer:
Animal husbandry is the practice of management and care of farm animals by humans for profit.

Question 10.
Mention two exam pies of crop combinations that are grown in mixed cropping.
Answer:
Some combinations of mixed cropping are:
(a) Wheat and mustard
(b) Maize and urad (pulse)
(c) Groundnut and sunflower

Question 11.
(a) Name an exotic variety of honeybee grown in India.
(b) What is the rearing of fish on a large scale called?
Answer:
(a) Apis cerana indica
(b) Pisciculture

Question 12.
Name two exotic cattle breeds with long lactation periods?
Answer:
The period of milk production after the birth of a calf is called lactation period. Jersey and Brown Swiss are two exotic cattle breeds having long lactation periods.

Question 13.
Between broiler and layer, which one matures earlier?
Answer:
Broilers have fast growth rate.

Question 14.
State the difference between compost and vermicompost.
Answer:

Compost	Vermicompost
The compost is obtained by decomposition of organic waste like animal excreta, plant waste, etc., naturally due to decomposition by bacteria.	To fasten the process of decomposition redworms are added to the organic matter to obtain compost.

Question 15.
Name two varieties of food required for milch animals.
Answer:
(a) Food to keep animals healthy,
(b) Food to increase lactation.

Question 16.
Define apiculture.
Answer:
Keeping bee for obtaining honey commercially is called apiculture.

Question 17.
Define hybridisation.
Answer:
Hybridisation refers to crossing between genetically dissimilar plants to obtain better variety of crops.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 18.
A farmer wants to use a crop variety that can give a good yield. What should he do to select the variety to get the desired result?
Answer:
A good crop yield can be obtained by selecting varieties having useful characteristics such as disease resistance, response to fertilizers and high yields.

Question 19.
A bee – keeper tries to collect a good yield of honey from his apiaries. However, he is unable to collect adequate honey. Suggest him a way to produce more honey.
Answer:
The bee – keeper should maintain his apiaries in between the fields of flowering plants or pasturage. This will allow bees to collect plenty of nectar and pollen from the variety of flowers. Also, the taste of honey depends on the variety of flowers available to the bees.

Question 20.
A dairy farmer wants to maintain a good and clean shelter for his dairy animals. How can he do this so that his animals stay healthy and produce clean milk?
Answer:
The shelter for dairy animals should have following features.

1. It should be well – ventilated to allow fresh air to enter.
2. It should have leakage – proof roof to protect them from rain, heat and cold.
3. The floor of cattle shed should be sloping for easy cleaning and keeping it dry.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between a mullet and a prawn.
Answer:
Mullet is a type of fish while prawn is a crustacean. Both live in water and serve as a food supplements worldwide. Prawn belongs to the phylum arthropoda, whereas mullet belongs to the group of pisces. So one can use their characteristic features to distinguish between the two.

Question 2.
What are genetically modified (GM) crops?
Answer:
GM (Genetically Modified) crops are the crops in which a gene from some other organism, like another plant or a microorganism, is inserted to get desired characteristics such as disease resistance, response to fertilisers, product quality and high yields. For example, varieties of cotton, maize, papaya, soyabean, sugar beet, squash, etc., have been modified genetically.

Question 3.
Give the technical terms for milk -producing females and farm labour animals.
Answer:
Milk – producing females are called milch animals (dairy animals), while the ones used for farm labour are called draught animals.

Question 4.
Mention the preventive and control measures used before the grains are stored.
Answer:
Cleaning of the produce before storage, proper drying of the produce first in sunlight and then in shade, and fumigation using chemicals that can kill pests.

Question 5.
What is the effect of deficiency of nutrients?
Answer:
Deficiency of nutrients affects physiological processes in plants including reproduction, growth, susceptibility to diseases, yield, etc. General health of the plants depends on the nutrients.

Question 6.
In what way does manure help in soil fertility?
Answer:
Manure helps in enriching the soil with mainly organic matter and small quantities of nutrients. The bulk of organic matter in the form of manure helps in increasing water holding capacity in sandy soil. In clayey soil, the large quantities of organic matter help in drainage and avoiding waterlogging.

Question 7.
Give two advantages of using chemical fertilisers over manure.
Answer:
Two advantages of using chemical fertilisers over manure are as follows:

1. Chemical fertilisers are ‘nutrient specific’ and can provide specific elements like nitrogen, phosphorus or potassium to the soil in any desired quantity. Manure is, however, not nutrient specific.
2. Chemical fertilisers, being soluble in water, are readily absorbed by the crops. This is not so in the case of manures.

Question 8.
What is green revolution?
Answer:
Bumper production of cereals (grains) using high-yielding varieties (HYV), higher dose of fertiliser and better modes of irrigation is known as green revolution.

Question 9.
What are pesticides? Give four methods of pest control.
Answer:
Pesticides are the chemicals used to control weeds, insects, rodents, fungi and diseases of plants. They include weedicides, insecticides and fungicides. Some methods of pest control are:

1. Use of resistant varieties
2. Optimum time of sowing the seeds
3. Follow crop rotation and cropping pattern
4. Deep ploughing of the field in summers to destroy undesirable weeds and pathogens.

Question 10.
Define organic farming.
Answer:
It is the farming in which no chemical fertilisers, pesticides or herbicides are used. It uses all organic matter for the growth of plants like manure, neem leaves as pesticides during grain storage, etc.

Question 11:
What desirable traits are focused to develop hybrids by cross-breeding indigenous and exotic breeds of fowl?
Answer:
Desirable traits are focused to develop hybrids by cross-breeding indigenous and exotic breeds of fowl:

1. Number and quality of chicks
2. Dwarf broiler parent for commercial chick production as they require less space and food.
3. Summer adaptation capacity a tolerance to high temperature
4. Low maintenance requirements
5. Reduction in the size of the layer with ability to utilise more fibrous and cheaper diets which are formulated using agricultural by – products.

Question 12.
What decides the quality and quantity of honey production in an apiary?
Answer:
The quality and quantity of honey production in an apiary:

1. For quality of honey: The pasturage, i.e., the kind of flowers available to the bees for nectar and pollen collection will determine the taste of the honey.
2. For quantity of honey: Variety of bee used for the collection of honey. For example, A. mellifera is used to increase yield of honey.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 13.
What would happen if poultry birds are larger in size and have no summer adaptation capacity? In order to get small-sized poultry birds having summer adaptability, what method will be employed?
Answer:
The maintenance of optimum temperature is required for better egg production in poultry farming. The large size of birds with no adaptability to high temperature may cause decline in egg production. To obtain small-size birds with high – temperature adaptability during summer season, cross – breeding of poultry birds for desired characteristics can be done. Small size is also needed for better housing and less feed.

Question 14.
Figure below shows the two crop fields (plots A and B) that have been treated by manures and chemical fertilisers respectively, keeping other environmental factors same. Observe the graph and answer the following questions:
(a) Why does plot B show sudden increase and then gradual decrease in yield?
(b) Why is the highest peak in plot A graph slightly delayed?
(c) What is the reason for the different pattern of the two graphs?

Answer:
(a) The addition of chemical fertilisers initially leads to rise in crop yield because of the release of the NPK (nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium) and some other nutrients in high quantity. The gradual decline in yield, as shown in plot B, is due to the continuous use of these fertilisers, which cause killing of useful microbes in the soil and alter the chemical composition of soil.

(b) Manures supply nutrients to the soil slowly, as these contain organic matter in high amount. Therefore, manures enrich the soil with nutrients slowly and continuously for a long time. This is the reason that the highest peak in plot A is delayed but maintained for longer period.

(c) In case of plot A, it indicates that the use of manure remains beneficial for longer duration in terms of crop yield and remains high even when the quantity of manure is increased. In case of plot B, chemical fertilisers when used for longer period cause various problems. The loss of soil fertility occurs due to killing of useful microbes in the soil that reduces decomposition of organic matter.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two fresh initiatives taken to save water and increase the water availability for agriculture.
Answer:
Two new irrigation systems have been developed to save water and increase the availability of water to the crops.
These are:
1. Drip irrigation system: Here, water is supplied to the roots of the plants directly in a drop wise manner. This prevents unnecessaiy wastage of water.

2. Sprinkler system: Here, water is sprinkled over the crops like it happens in rain. So, water is distributed uniformly and absorbed by the soil in a better way.

Question 2.
What are the factors for which variety improvement of crop is done?
Answer:
The factors for which variety improvement of crop is done are as follows:

1. Higher yield: To increase productivity of the crop per acre.
2. Improved quality: The quality of crop products varies from crop to crop, e.g., protein quality is important in pulses, oil quality in oilseeds, longer shelf life in fruits and vegetables.
3. Biotic and abiotic resistance: Biotic factors are the diseases, insects and nematodes while abiotic factors are drought, salinity, water logging, heat, cold and frost which affect the crop productivity. Varieties resistant to these factors can increase the crop production.
4. Change in maturity duration: Shorter maturity period of crop reduces the cost of crop production and makes the variety economical. Uniform maturity makes the harvesting process easy and reduces losses during harvesting.
5. Wider adaptability: It allows the crops to be grown under different climatic conditions in different areas.
6. Desirable agronomic characteristics: It increases productivity, (e) g., tallness and profuse branching are desirable characters for fodder crops; while dwarfness is desired in cereals, so that less nutrients are consumed by these crops.

Question 3.
Define manure. What are its three different types?
Answer:
Manure contains large quantities of organic matter and also supplies small quantities of nutrients to the soil. It is prepared by the decomposition of animal excreta and plant waste. It helps in enriching the soil with nutrients and organic matter and increasing soil fertility. On the basis of the kind of biological waste used to make manure, it can be classified into three types:

1. Compost
2. Vermicompost
3. Green manure

1. Compost: It can be farm waste material such as livestock excreta (cow dung, etc.), vegetable waste, animal refuse, domestic waste, sewage, straw, eradicated weeds, etc. These materials are decomposed in pits and this process of decomposition is called composting.

2. Vermicompost: The compost which is made by the decomposition of plant and animal refuse with the help of redworms is called vermicompost.

3. Green manure: Prior to the sowing of the crop seeds, some plants like sun hemp or guar are grown and then mulched by ploughing them into the soil. These green plants thus turn into green manure which helps in enriching the soil in nitrogen and phosphorus.

Question 4.
What are fertilisers? Excessive use of fertilisers is not advisable. Explain.
Answer:
Fertilisers are commercially produced plant nutrients. Fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium to the crops. They are used to ensure good vegetative growth (leaves, branches and flowers), giving rise to healthy plants. Fertilisers are an important factor in the higher yields of high – cost farming.
Excessive use of fertilisers is not advisable as:

1. It leads to soil and water pollution.
2. It can destroy the fertility of soil.

As the soil is not replenished, microorganisms in the soil are harmed by fertilisers.

Question 5.
How does intercropping differ from mixed cropping?
Or
What are the different cropping systems?
Answer:
It includes different ways of growing crops so as to get the maximum benefit. These different ways include the following:
1. Mixed cropping: Mixed cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land, e.g., wheat + gram, or wheat + mustard, or groundnut + sunflower. This reduces disease risk and gives some insurance against failure of one of the crops.

2. Intercropping: It involves growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite proportion or pattern. A few rows of one crop alternate with a few rows of the other crop, e.g., soyabean + maize, or finger millet (bajra) + cowpea (lobia). The crops are selected such that their nutrient requirements are different. This ensures maximum utilisation of the nutrients supplied and also prevents pests and diseases from spreading to all the plants belonging to one crop in a field. This way, both the crops can give better yield.

3. Crop rotation: The growing of different crops on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession is known as crop rotation. Depending upon the duration, crop rotation is done for different crop combinations. The availability of moisture and irrigation facilities decide the choice of the crop to be cultivated after one harvest. If crop rotation is done properly, two or three crops can be grown in a year with good harvest.

Question 6.
Explain the various methods of irrigation in India.
Answer:
Proper irrigation is very important for the success of crops. Different kinds of irrigation systems include wells, canals, rivers and tanks.

1. Wells: These are of two types, viz., dug wells and tube wells. In a dug well, water is collected from water bearing strata Tube wells can tap water from the deeper strat(a) From these wells, water is lifted by pumps for irrigation.
2. Canal system: Water from the main river or reservoir is carried by canal into the field which is divided into branch canals having further distributaries to irrigate the field.
3. River lift system: In areas where canal flow is insufficient or irregular due to inadequate reservoir release,
   the lift system is more rational. Water is directly drawn from the rivers for supplementing irrigation in areas close to rivers,
4. Tanks: These are small storage reservoirs which intercept and store the run-off of smaller catchment areas.

Question 7.
Describe the different types of fisheries.
Answer:
The different types of fisheries are marine fisheries, mariculture, inland fisheries, aquaculture and capture fishing.

1. Marine fisheries: They are caught using fishing nets. Large schools of fishes are located by satellites. Some are farmed in sea water.
2. Mariculture: They are cultured in seawater. This culture of fisheries is called mariculture.
3. Inland fisheries: The fisheries in fresh water resources like canals, ponds, reservoirs and rivers are called inland fisheries.
4. Aquaculture: Culture of fish done in different water bodies is called aquaculture.
5. Capture fishing: It is the method of obtaining fishes from natural resources, both marine and fresh water.

Question 8.
List six facilities that must be provided to cattle to ensure their good health and production of clean milk.
Answer:
Following facilities must be provided to cattle:

1. Regular brushing to remove dirt and loosen hair.
2. Well – ventilated roofed sheds for shelter that can protect them from rain, heat and cold.
3. The floor of the cattle shed needs to be sloping so as to keep them dry and to facilitate cleaning and spraying of disinfectants at regular intervals.
4. A balanced diet should be given which contains:
   • roughage which provides high amount of fibre, and
   • concentrate that provides high levels of proteins and other nutrients.
5. Certain food additives containing micronutrients that promote the health and milk output of dairy animals.
6. Vaccinations of farm animals, at proper time, against major viral and bacterial diseases.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 9.
Meena belongs to an agricultural family. She attended a seminar of agricultural practices organised by her school. By listening to the research work of scientists, she learned that spraying pesticides on crops is very harmful for the environment. Next day, she saw the stored tanks of pesticides at her home and told her parents not to use these in excessive quantity.
1. Why are pesticides used in crop fields?
2. What are the various types of pesticides used by the farmers?
3. How can Meena convince her parents to stop using pesticides in large quantities?
4. What alternatives could Meena suggest to her parents instead of using pesticides?
Answer:

1. The pesticides are used in fields to protect the plants from disease – causing organisms, i.e., bacteria, fungi, viruses, nematodes and mycoplasmas.
2. Depending on the type of organisms, they destroy, pesticides can be of the following types.
   • Herbicides (for weeds)
   • Insecticides (for insects)
   • Fungicides (for fungi)
   • Bactericides (for bacteria)
3. Meena can tell her parents that regular and excessive use of pesticides contaminates water and soil, causing pollution in the environment. The pesticides affect the quality of food and leave residues on food items which may affect the health of consumers.
4. She could suggest the use of biological control methods or use of disease-resistant varieties of crops.

Activity 1
Visit a weed – infested field in the month of July or August and make a list of the weeds and insect pests in the field.

Observations:

1. Do it yourself.
2. Weeds are unwanted plants in the cultivated field, e.g., Xanthium (chota dhatura), Parthenium (gajar ghas) and Cyperinus rotundus (motha). They compete for food, space and light.
3. Some insect pests of crop fields include aphids, blister beetles, common stalk borer, com borer, flour beetle, etc.

Activity 2
Visit a local poultry farm. Observe the types of breeds and note the type of ration, housing and lighting facilities given to them. Identify the layers and broilers.

Observations:

1. Do it yourself and note down:
   • types of breeds of poultry: Aseel, white Leghorn, Rhode Island Red.
   • types of ration, housing and lighting facilities given to them.
2. Identify the layers, for example, White leghorn, Rhode Island Red, and broilers, for example, Plymouth Rock or Aseel or any other.

Value Based Questions

Question 1.
A group of eco – club students made a compost pit in the school, they collected all the biodegradable waste from the school canteen and used it to prepare the compost.
1. Name two wastes that can be used for the compost and two wastes obtained from canteen which cannot be used for the compost making?
2. What is the other important component required for making the compost?
3. What values of eco – club students are reflected in this act?
Answer:
The compost:

1. Two wastes used for compost are vegetable peels and fruit peels. Two waste materials that cannot be used as compost are polythene bags and plastic items.
2. Bacteria and fungi present in soil are the other important component for making compost.
3. Eco – club students reflect the value of group work and responsible citizens.

Question 2.
Large number of Bhetki fish died and got crushed in the turbines of hydroelectric power stations while
they migrated from river to sea The environmentalist gave power plant the solution of this problem. Now all Bhetki fish is removed with the help of a special technique and hence do not enter the turbines to crush and die.
1. Suggest two different varieties of fish.
2. What value of environmentalist is reflected in the above case?
Answer:
The turbines to crush and die:

1. Two varieties of fish are bony and cartilaginous.
2. Environmentalist showed the value of concern and caring individuals.

JAC Class 9 Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Science Important Questions Chapter 14 Natural Resources

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Most of the water on the earth’s surface is found in
(a) lakes
(b) rivers
(c) oceans and seas
(d) underground
Answer:
(c) oceans and seas

Question 2.
Ozone hole was first observed over
(a) Antarctica
(b) Australia
(c) Arctic ocean
(d) America
Answer:
(a) Antarctica

Question 3.
Nitrogen fixing bacteria cannot fix N2 in the presence of
(a) CO₂
(b) N₂
(c) O₂
(d) light
Answer:
(c) O₂

Question 4.
Which of the following compounds is not degraded by any biological process?
(a) CFC_s
(b) CH₄
(c) Glucose
(d) Nitrites
Answer:
(a) CFC_s

Question 5.
Nitrogen – fixing bacteria are found in the roots of
(a) wheat
(b) maize
(c) pulses
(d) sugarcane
Answer:
(c) pulses

Question 6.
Venus and Mars have no life because
(a) they have no atmosphere
(b) their atmosphere has only oxygen
(c) their atmosphere has 95% – 97% carbon dioxide
(d) their atmosphere has 95% – 97% oxygen
Answer:
(c) their atmosphere has 95%-97% carbon dioxide

Question 7.
Which one of the following organisms are very sensitive to the levels of contaminants like sulphur dioxide in air?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Algae
(d) Lichens
Answer:
(d) Lichens

Question 8.
Burning of fossil fuels adds
(a) CO₂, SO₂, NO₂ gases in air
(b) C, SO₂, N₂ gases in air
(c) O₂, SO₃, NO₃ gases in air
(d) H₂O, CO₂ NO₂, gases in air
Answer:
(a) CO₂, SO₂, NO₂ gases in air

Question 9.
Nitrogen fixation can be done by
(a) Industries
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Lightening
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 10.
On moon the temperature ranges from – 190°C to 110°C. This is due to
(a) absence of water bodies
(b) presence of water bodies
(c) absence of biogeochemical cycles
(d) absence of atmosphere
Answer:
(d) absence of atmosphere

Question 11.
Depletion of ozone molecules in the stratosphere is due to
(a) chlorine compounds
(b) fluorine compounds
(c) halogen compounds
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) halogen compounds

Question 12.
The life supporting zone of the earth is
(a) lithosphere
(b) hydrosphere
(c) atmosphere
(d) biosphere
Answer:
(d) biosphere

Question 13.
The organism which helps in the formation of soil is
(a) bacterium
(b) moss
(c) lichen
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question 14.
The outermost crust of the earth is called
(a) atmosphere
(b) exosphere
(c) lithosphere
(d) hydrosphere
Answer:
(c) lithosphere

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 15.
The atmosphere of the earth is heated by radiations which are mainly
(a) radiated by the sun
(b) re – radiated by land
(c) re – radiated by water
(d) re – radiated by land and water
Answer:
(c) re – radiated by water

Question 16.
The term “water pollution” can be defined in several ways. Which of the following statements does not give the correct definition?
(a) The addition of undersirable substances to water bodies
(b) The removal of desirable substances from water bodies
(c) A change in pressure of the water bodies
(d) A change in temperature of the water bodies
Answer:
(c) A change in pressure of the water bodies

Question 17.
When we breathe in air, nitrogen also goes inside along with oxygen. What is the fate of this nitrogen?
(a) It moves along with oxygen into the cells.
(b) It comes out with the CO₂ during exhalation.
(c) It is absorbed only by the nasal cells.
(d) Nitrogen concentration is already more in the cells so it is not at all absorbed.
Answer:
(b) It comes out with the CO₂ during exhalation.

Assertion Reason Questions

Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions and the Reasons have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both the statements are false.
1. Assertion: Plants cannot utilise
nitrogen directly from the atmosphere. Reason: Plants can only use nitrates and nitrites.
Answer:
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. Assertion: Water vapour is not a greenhouse gas.
Reason: Water vapour does not contribute in global warming.
Answer:
(D) Both the statements are false.

3. Assertion: The moon has very cold and very hot temperature variations.
Reason: Moon does not possess the atmosphere.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

4. Assertion: It is easier to fly a kite near a sea shore.
Reason: There is a regular unidirectional wind from sea to land.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

5. Assertion: Legumes revive the soil fertility.
Reason: Microbes in the root nodules of legumes fix atmospheric nitrogen.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is biosphere?
Answer:
The life – supporting zone of earth where atmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere interact and make life is known as biosphere.

Question 2.
What are the biotic and abiotic components of biosphere?
Answer:
Abiotic or physical components of biosphere consist of geographical conditions such as the temperature, rainfall, soil, seasons and the climate, while biotic components include animals, plants, fungi and bacteria.

Question 3.
What percentage of oxygen and nitrogen is present in the air?
Answer:
About 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen is present in the air.

Question 4.
Name the air pollutants released by the industries.
Answer:
Industrial air pollutants are sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, hydrogen sulphide, fumes of acids, dust, particles of unbumt carbon, lead, asbestos and even cement.

Question 5.
What are the two factors that cause changes in our atmosphere?
Answer:
(a) Heating of air, and
(b) formation of water vapour.

Question 6.
State any two harmful effects of air pollution.
Answer:
Two harmful effects of air pollution are:
(a) Respiratory problems
(b) Global warming

Question 7.
What is soil?
Answer:
Soil is a mixture of small particles of rocks of different sizes, humus and microscopic life.

Question 8.
State the major source of minerals in the soil.
Answer:
The mineral nutrients present in a particular soil depend on the rocks it was formed from. This means that the major source of minerals in a soil is their parent rocks.

Question 9.
What is top soil?
Answer:
The topmost layer of the soil that contains humus and living organisms in addition to the soil particles is called top soil.

Question 10.
Name two chemicals that are depleting ozone layer.
Answer:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC_s) and halogenated ozone depleting substance (ODS).

Question 11.
Name two greenhouse gases.
Answer:
Methane and carbon dioxide.

Question 12.
Define nitrification.
Answer:
The biological conversion of ammonia into nitrites and then oxidation of nitrites to nitrates is called nitrification.

Question 13.
Name a nitrogen fixing bacterium.
Answer:
Rhizobium

Question 14.
Define humus.
Answer:
The fertile dark substance present in the topmost layer of the soil which contains dead remains of plants and animal wastes, like excreta, that adds nutrients to the soil is called humus.

Question 15.
What is denitrification?
Answer:
Conversion of nitrates into free nitrogen is called denitrification.

Question 16.
How does carbon exist in all life forms?
Answer:
Carbon is present in all life forms in the form of proteins, carbohydrates, fats, nucleic acids and vitamins.

Question 17.
Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer:
Proteins and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).

Question 18.
Name the two gases given out by the burning of fossil fuels, which dissolve in rain to form acid rain.
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and oxides of nitrogen.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 19.
A person is burning a huge amount of waste in an open are(a) Which gas is being utilised for burning process and which gas is released into the atmosphere?
Answer:
The process of burning or combustion utilises oxygen and produces carbon dioxide. Thus, oxygen gas is being utilised in the process, and carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere.

Question 20.
A huge amount of plant and animal waste is being dumped in a lake. What will be the condition of lake after some time?
Answer:
When organic waste (plant and animal residue) is dumped into a water body, the biological oxygen demand of the water increases. This is because the decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms needs more oxygen in water. As a result, there arises oxygen deficiency in water, which leads to the death of other aquatic organisms.

Question 21.
Some industries release hot water or very cold water into water sources directly. Why should this be stopped?
Answer:
When excessive hot water or cold water is released into water bodies, it may affect some aquatic organisms. This is because these organisms live in a certain range of temperature and any change in this range (due to the release of excessive hot water or cold water) may cause threat to their survival.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The atmosphere acts as a blanket. How?
Answer:
The blanket of atmosphere, which is covering the earth, keeps the average temperature of the earth fairly steady during the day and even during the course of the whole year. The atmosphere prevents the sudden increase in temperature during the daylight hours. And during the night, it slows down the escape of heat into outer space.

Question 2.
What are the consequences of global warming?
Answer:
(a) An increase in temperature of earth even by 1°C may lead to the melting of ice on the poles.
(b) The melting of ice will result in rise of sea level.
(c) Due to rise in sea level, many coastal cities will be flooded or submerged.
(d) Increase in temperature of earth results in change in weather and may cause excessive raining or drought or extreme hot or cold weather conditions.

Question 3.
Name the various organisms involved in nitrogen cycle.
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen fixing bacteria, e.g., Rhizobium, Azotobacter.
(b) Bacteria which convert complex nitrogenous organic compounds (proteins) into ammonia, e.g., Clostridium, Proteus.
(c) Nitrifying bacteria which convert ammonia into nitrates, e.g., Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.
(d) Denitrifying bacteria, e.g., Pseudomonas.

Question 4.
What does the presence of smog in an area indicate?
Answer:
The presence of smog in an area indicates the high percentage of smoke released in the air by combustion of fossil fuels in industries, thermal power plants or automobiles. It is an indicator of air pollution.

Question 5.
Write three ways to prevent soil pollution.
Answer:
(a) By judicious use of fertilizers and pesticides.
(b) By proper management of disposal of household waste.
(c) By practising intensive cropping and terrace farming.

Question 6.
How is greenhouse effect related to global warming?
Answer:
Higher concentration of greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, etc., in the atmosphere causes absorption of reflected heat and avoids their escape into the space. This phenomenon is called greenhouse effect. This leads to rise in the temperature of earth’s atmosphere throughout the world causing global warming. This global warming caused by greenhouse gases like CO₂, CH₄, etc., leads to the melting of glacier and polar ice. This would cause rise in the level of sea and other climate changes. Hence, we can say that global warming is a consequence of greenhouse effect.

Question 7.
What is air pollution? How is it caused? Write its two harmful effects.
Answer:
The contamination of air with unwanted gases, particles like dust, etc, which makes it unfit for inhalation is called air pollution.

• Causes:
  1. (a) Burning of fossil fuels releases SO₂, CO₂ and NO₂ gases.
  2. (b) Burning of fuels releases unbumt carbon particles and smoke.
  3. (c) Smoke from industries and vehicles.
• Harmful effects:
  1. (a) It causes respiratory problems.
  2. (b) It causes allergies, asthma, cancer and heart diseases.

Question 8.
What is acid rain? Write its harmful effects.
Answer:
The gases released due to combustion of fossil fuels are SO₂, NO₂ and CO₂. These gases remain suspended in the air. When it rains, the rainwater mixes with these gases to form sulphuric acid, nitrous acid, carbonic acid and comes down on the surface of the earth in the form of acid rain.

(a) It corrodes statues, monuments of marble, buildings, etc.
(b) It makes the soil acidic.
(c) It damages crops and plantations.

Question 9.
What is water pollution? Give its causes and harmful effects.
Answer:
When water is contaminated with unwanted substances and chemicals which make it unfit for use and cause diseases, it is called water pollution.

• Causes:
  1. (a) Sewage from towns, cities is dumped in the water.
  2. (b) Fertilizers, pesticides, insecticides get washed away into the waterbodies from farmlands.
  3. (c) Effluent from industries.
• Harmful effects:
  1. (a) Polluted water, when consumed, causes many diseases which are water – borne, like cholera, typhoid, etc.
  2. (b) Mercury in salts dumped by industries causes a brain disorder called Minamata disease.
  3. (c) Many life – forms which are susceptible to temperature changes die.

Question 10.
What is the difference between fog and smog? Give two harmful effects of smog.
Answer:
The water vapour present in air when condenses due to very low temperature is called fog. The smoke released in the air, due to burning of fuels, mixes with the fog and forms smog. Harmful effects of smog: It decreases the visibility and causes adverse effect on aeroplane landing, railways and road transport.

Question 11.
State in brief the role of photosynthesis and respiration in carbon-cycle in nature.
Answer:
Photosynthesis is performed by green plants in the presence of sunlight and it converts carbon dioxide into carbohydrates that are utilised by other living organisms through food chain. Oxygen is replenished in nature only through the process of photosynthesis. Oxygen enters the living world through the process of respiration, i.e., it oxidises the food material (glucose molecules) and produces energy and carbon dioxide.

Question 12.
Explain the importance of ozone to mankind.
Answer:
Ozone covers the earth’s atmosphere. It is present in stratosphere. It does not allow the harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the sun to enter our earth. These ultraviolet radiations cause ionizing effect and can cause cancer and genetic disorder in any life form. The ozone is getting depleted at the South Pole near Antarctica The ozone depletion is due to the halogens like CFC_s (Chlorofluorocarbons) released in the air. Chlorine and fluorine react with the ozone and split it, thereby leading to the formation of a big hole called ozone hole.

Question 13.
How are winds caused and what decides the breeze to be gentle, strong wind or a terrible storm?
Answer:
Movement of air, terrible storm and rains, all these phenomena are the result of changes that take place in our atmosphere due to the heating of air and the formation of water vapour. Water vapour is formed due to the heating of water bodies and the activities of living organisms. The atmosphere can be heated from below by the radiation that is reflected back or re-radiated by the land or water bodies. On being heated, convection currents are set up in the air. This causes wind. The pressure gradient or the pressure difference determines the speed and intensity of wind. Larger the gradient, more is the wind speed.

Question 14.
Why is step farming common in hills?
Answer:
At hills, the rainwater flows with a very high speed which provides very less time to absorb rainwater into the soil. So, the fields contain wide steps which slow down the speed of fast flowing water. Therefore, farming fields get more chances to absorb rainwater, i.e, more water can seep into the soil for better farming. Besides this, step farming also reduces soil erosion.

Question 15.
Write the harmful effects of ozone layer depletion.
Answer:
Harmful effects of ozone layer depletion are as follows:

1. Due to depletion of ozone layer, more ultraviolet (UV) radiation will reach the earth. UV radiation causes skin cancer, damage to eyes and immune system.
2. UV radiation kills microorganisms, such as bacteria, even useful ones.
3. Ozone layer depletion may lead to variation in rainfall, ecological disturbances and dwindling of good food supply.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 16.
Rashmi visited her village during summer vacations and found that there is severe shortage of water for villagers and animals.
1. Give reason of water shortage in villages.
2. Why some areas of earth suffer from the problem of water scarcity?
3. What ways can Rashmi suggest to villagers to solve the problem of water shortage?
Answer:

1. The lack of public water supply in villages is the most prominent reason of water scarcity in villages. Villagers depend on natural sources of water which often dry up due to excessive heat during summer.
2. The water scarcity occurs due to uneven distribution of freshwater on the earth.
3. Rainwater harvesting is an effective way to solve the problem of water scarcity in villages as well as in cities. The rainwater can be stored in underground tanks, check dams and recharges the groundwater. This groundwater can be drawn for use at the time of shortage of water.

Question 17.
A farmer followed the practice of sowing cereal crops regularly in his field for several seasons. After sometime, he found decline in cereal production.
(a) What may be the reason for less cereal production in farmer’s field?
(b) How the farmer can increase production in his field?
Answer:
(a) Sowing a same crop regularly in the field for several seasons makes the soil deficient of certain essential nutrients.
Thus, the fertility of soil declines after sometime and the crop production becomes less.

(b) The farmer can grow leguminous crops after cereal crop. The nitrogen fixing bacteria that live in root nodules of legume crops help in replenishment of lost nitrogen in the soil by fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the carbon – cycle in nature.

Answer:
All living things are made of carbon. Carbon is also a part of the oceans, air, and even rocks. Because the earth is a dynamic place, carbon does not stay still. Carbon – cycle is the series of processes by which carbon compounds are interconverted in the environment, involving the incorporation of carbon dioxide into living tissues by photosynthesis and its return to the atmosphere through respiration, the decay of dead organisms and the burning of fossil fuels.

If we see from the beginning, CO₂ in the atmosphere is taken by the plants which use it to make glucose, water and oxygen. Also, direct CO₂ from air forms carbonates in water which later turns into limestone. Then, these plants are eaten us and other animals, i.e., we indirectly use COus and other animals, i.e., we indirectly use CO₂ present in the plants. Also, we respire CO₂ back in atmosphere.

Then, organic compounds (plants / animals) form coal and petroleum, or we can say fossil fuel. And also, animal body present in the plants. Also, we respire CO₂ back in atmosphere. Then, organic compounds (plants / animals) form coal and petroleum, or we can say fossil fuel. And also, animal body forms inorganic carbonates or shells. But nowadays, we bum fossil fuels too much (and also cut the trees) which is harmful. As a result, we are not getting rid of excess CO₂ from our atmosphere.

Question 2.
Why is replenishment of forests necessary?
Answer:
Forests need to be replenished because of the following reasons:

1. Rainfall: During transpiration, trees give out enormous amount of water vapour. This water vapour helps in the formation of clouds. So, if trees are cut and not replenished, the rainfall in the area will reduce.
2. Natural rate of tree growth: Forests cannot be re – grown in a few days or months as trees take many years to grow fully. Thus, it becomes necessary to replenish the forests periodically.
3. Soil erosion: If a large number of trees are cut, the soil becomes naked. The topsoil, which is rich in organic matter will be washed away by water or carried away by wind. Trees help in binding the soil.
4. Carbon dioxide – oxygen balance: Forests have a very large number of trees which give out 02 and take in C02 by photosynthesis. In this way, they help in maintaining the carbon dioxide-oxygen balance in the atmosphere.
5. Timber and fuel: Forests are the best suppliers of timber for furniture and fuel. So, for their constant supply, forests need to be replenished.

Question 3.
Draw a labelled diagram to show nitrogen cyclele in nature.
Answer:
Nitrogen exists as free nitrogen in the atmosphere. In air, N₂ is about 78%. This free nitrogen is fixed into compounds of ammonia and nitrates. Most of the organisms cannot utilise molecular nitrogen. Fixation of Nitrogen:
Fixation of free nitrogen into compounds takes place by the following means:
1. Certain blue green algae and bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen.

2. Nitrogen – fixing bacteria found in the root nodules of legumes such as grams, beans, pulses, etc., fix atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen containing compounds.

3. Lightning also helps in the formation of nitrogen containing compounds. Nitrogen containing fertilisers produced artificially in factories are the fixed form of nitrogen. Plants take up compounds containing nitrogen from the soil. From plants nitrogen passes into food web Decay of dead plants and animals and excreta like urine, faeces, cause return of nitrogen compounds to the soil. Denitrifying bacteria and fire cause liberation of free nitrogen in the atmosphere.

Importance of Nitrogen – cycle: Nitrogen is an important constituent of tissues, proteins, enzymes, nucleic acids and amino acids. Atmosphere contains about 78 per cent nitrogen but plants and animals cannot use nitrogen in this form. Plants take nitrogen in the form of nitrates, the usable form. From plants, nitrogen travels to animals through food. If nitrogen in the form of proteins, amino acids, enzymes, etc., remains locked up in the bodies of organisms, there will be shortage of usable form of nitrogen. Therefore, circulation of nitrogen in nature is very essential.

Question 4.
Explain the oxygen – cycle in nature.
Answer:
Oxygen is an important component of everyday life. We cannot survive without oxygen. It comprises about 21% of atmospheric air. It is a component of several biological molecules such as carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids and fats. Like carbon dioxide, oxygen too is cycled through the process of photosynthesis and respiration. Oxygen is also utilised during combustion or burning.

Oxygen – cycle: Oxygen from the atmosphere is used up in three processes, viz., combustion, respiration and in the formation of oxides of nitrogen.

1. Animals take in oxygen through the process of respiration. They release CO₂ into the atmosphere.
2. Carbon dioxide, released by animals, is used by plants in the process of photosynthesis.
3. Plants release oxygen into the atmosphere as a by-product of photosynthesis.
4. Fuels need oxygen for combustion, so they take oxygen and release CO₂ into the atmosphere as a by-product along with other gases.
5. CO₂ is released into the air in the process of decaying of dead animals and plants.
6. This CO₂ is taken up by plants for the process of photosynthesis and O₂ is released and this process continues.

Question 5.
Describe water – cycle.
Answer:
Water is one of the most important physical components which is essential for survival of life on the earth. The water from the water bodies on evaporation moves up. As the vapours rise up in the atmosphere they become cooler and condense to form clouds which fall down as rain. Rainwater then passes through rivers and gets collected again in the ocean. The circulation of water in this manner is known as water – cycle. The cycle is also performed by living beings like absorption and transpiration of water by plants and drinking by animals. Animals lose water during respiration and perspiration. They lose water through excretion also.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 6.
There are several sources like respiration by living organisms, combustion, burning of fossil fuels and forest fires which contribute immensely in the carbon dioxide levels of atmosphere. Despite all these activities, the air contains only a mere fraction of carbon dioxide in it. How does it happen?
Answer:
The level of carbon dioxide does not increase in atmosphere because atmospheric carbon dioxide is fixed continuously in different components by the following ways.

• The plants ‘fix’ or capture the carbon dioxide and convert it into glucose through the process known as photosynthesis.
• Animals get their carbon directly by eating plants or indirectly by eating herbivores. Many marine animals use carbonates dissolved in seawater to make their shells.
• The fossil fuels are also the storehouse of carbon. These are the deposits of organic materials formed from decayed plants and animals deep inside the earth. By exposure to heat and pressure in the earth’s crust over hundreds of millions of years, these dead decaying organisms changed into fossil fuels, such as coal and petroleum.
• The water rich in carbon dioxide accumulates at the bottom of water bodies and forms limestone or carbonated rocks. It involves a series of chemical reactions that remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and deposits it in the form of rocks.

Activity 1

• Take the following:
  1. (i) a beaker full of water
  2. (ii) a beaker full of soil/sand and
  3. (iii) a closed bottle containing a thermometer.
• Measure the temperature of all these in shade.
• Now, keep them in bright sunlight for three hours and measure the temperature of all three vessels.

Observations:

• The temperature of air is less in shade than the temperature of sand or water.
• The temperature of water does not rise quickly whereas sand gets heated up easily.
• The temperature of air in the closed bottle is more than the temperature of air in open. This is because heat received from the sun has no outlet to reflect back the heat radiation. The glass does not allow to escape reflected heat radiations to go out.

Activity 2

• Place a candle in a beaker or wide mouthed bottle and light it. Light an incense stick and take it to the mouth of the beaker as shown in the figure.
• Now, keep the incense stick near the edge of the mouth, a little above the candle, and in other regions. Record your observations.

Observations:

• When the incense stick is kept near the edge of the mouth, the smoke flows inwards towards the flame. The hot air around the candle rises up and cold air from the surroundings rushes in to fill the space. This air rushing inside the beaker brings smoke towards the flame.
• The smoke rises up along with hot rising air when incense stick is kept a little above the candle.
• In other places, the smoke from the incense stick rises up and then diffuses in the air.

Activity 3
Take two identical trays and fill them with soil. Plant mustard or green gram or paddy in one of the trays and water both the trays regularly for a few days, till the first tray is covered with plant growth. Now, tilt both the trays and fix them in that position. Make sure that both the trays are tilted at the same angle. Pour equal amount of water gently on both trays such that the water flows out of the trays.

1. Study the amount of soil that is carried out of the trays by the water.
2. Now pour equal amounts of water on both the trays from a height. Pour three or four times the amount that you poured earlier.
3. Study the amount of soil that is carried out of the trays now. Record your observations.

Observations:

• The tray without vegetation loses more soil and holds more water than the tray that has plants.
• On pouring water on both the trays from a height, more soil flows along with water in the tray without vegetation.
• Less amount of soil is washed out earlier than that washed out when water was poured from a height.

Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Sudha saw a child sleeping in a car parked, with closed doors and glasses rolled up, in an open area on a sunny day near the market. She immediately raised an alarm and with the help of police she got the window rolled down.
1. Why was it not safe to keep the doors with window glasses rolled up for a child inside the car?
2. Name two gases that can lead to the above effect.
3. What value of Sudha is reflected in the above act?
Answer:

1. It was not safe for the child in the car with locked doors and windows rolled up because the sunlight would result in the greenhouse effect in the car. This would increase the temperature in the car and also result in the increase in CO₂ level which would lead to suffocation.
2. Carbon dioxide gas and methane gas can lead to greenhouse effect.
3. Sudha reflects the value of an aware citizen and responsible behaviour.

Question 2.
After doing a project on “save water”, Sumit realised the problem of shortage of drinking water on the earth. Sumit started checking the misuse of water in his vicinity.
1. What is the percentage of drinking water available on the earth?
2. Give any two practices that one should follow to save water.
3. What value of Sumit is reflected in this act?
Answer:

1. 1% of drinking water is available on the earth.
2. To save water:
   • Do not use shower to take bath every day, instead use a bucket of water.
   • Mop the floor instead of washing.
   • Sumit showed the value of responsible behaviour and participating citizen.
3. A project on “save water”, Sumit realised the problem of shortage of drinking water on the earth.

JAC Class 9 Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

I. Objective Type Questions

India has which type of climate?
(a) Monsoon
(b) Tundra
(c) Savanna
(d) Mediterranean.
Answer:
(a) Monsoon

2. The major factor/factors controlling the climate of any region is/are:
(a) latitude
(b) altitude
(c) pressure and wind system
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.

3. The climate of India is strongly influenced by:
(a) local winds
(b) monsoon winds
(c) westerlies winds
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) monsoon winds

4. How many seasons can be indentified in India?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Two
(d) Six.
Answer:
(a) Four

5. Which is the most rainy place in the world?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Leh
(c) Mawsynram
(d) Mumbai.
Answer:
(c) Mawsynram

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define weather and climate.
Answer:
Weather refers to the state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time, while climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a longer period of time.

Question 2.
Define Monsoon.
Answer:
The word ‘Monsoon’ is derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’, which literally means season. Monsoon refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year. It reveals the rhythm of season and changes in direction of wind.

Question 3.
What is extreme climate?
Answer:
The climate which has high annual range of temperature and great variation in the amount of rainfall over the year is known as extreme climate. It is also called continental or interior climate. Example Jodhpur, Delhi.

Question 3.
Mention major factors affecting the climate of our country.
Answer:

1. Location,
2. Latitude,
3. Altitude,
4. Pressure and winds,
5. Relief.

Question 4.
Which physical feature of India acts as an influential climate divide between India and Central sea?
Answer:
The Himalayas.

Question 5.
Name the planatery winds that blow from the subtropical high pressure zone to the equatorial low pressure zone.
Answer:
Trade winds.

Question 6.
What are trade winds?
Answer:
Trade winds are planetary winds blowing constantly from the sub-tropical high pressure zones towards the ‘Equatorial low pressure zones’. Their direction is from North-east to South-west in the North Hemisphere and from South-east to Northwest in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 7.
Define the term season.
Answer:
The predominance of an element of weather, such as temperature, rainfall and cloudiness over a period of a few months is called season.

Question 8.
What do you understand by coriolis force?
Answer:
Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the earth’s rotation. The coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the Northern Hemisphere and towards the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This is also known as ‘Ferrel’s Law’.

Question 9.
Which are the most constant jet streams?
Answer:

1. Mid latitude jet stream,
2. Subtropical jet stream.

Question 10.
What are cyclones?
Answer:
Cyclones are the speedy elliptical wind arrangements having low pressure at their centre and the winds moving towards centre from outside.

Question 11.
From where the western disturbances originated?
Answer:
The western disturbances originated over the Mediterranean Sea.

Question 12.
What is ITCZ?
Answer:
The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a broad trough of low pressure in equatorial latitudes. This is where the north-east and the south-east trade winds converge. This convergence zone lies more or less parallel to the equator but moves north or south with the apparent movement of the sun.

Question 13.
What is the influence area of the monsoon?
Answer:
Regions between 20° N and 20° S latitudes.

Question 14.
How is the intensity of monsoons predicted?
Answer:
The difference in pressure over yahiti (Pacific Ocean, 18°S/14.9°W) and Darwin in Northern Australia (Indian Ocean, 12°30’S/131°E) is computed to predict the intensity of the monsoons. If the pressure differences are negative, it would mean below average and late monsoons.

Question 15.
Name the two branches in which the peninsular India divide the monsoon winds.
Answer:

1. The Arabian Sea Branch, and
2. The Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 16.
Name two branches in which the Bay of Bengal branch splits into.
Answer:

1. The western branch,
2. The north-east branch.

Question 17.
What is burst of monsoon?
Answer:
Burst or break of the monsoon is sudden setting-in of rainfall, the rainfall without warning. This occurs when the monsoon branches and the jet streams come into contact with each other all of a sudden.

Question 18.
Name the four seasons of India.
Answer:

1. Winter season (December to February)
2. Summer season (March to May)
3. Advancing monsoon (June to mid-September)
4. Retreating monsoon (mid-September to November).

Question 19.
Where is high pressure found during winter?
Answer:
In the Northern plains.

Question 20.
Name the winds that blow in India during winter.
Answer:
North-east trade winds.

Question 21.
Which hot wind blows during summers in the northern plains?
Answer:
Loo.

Question 22.
What is Loo?
Answer:
Loo are local hot winds which blow during summer afternoons in the north-west and the Ganga valley regions.

Question 23.
What is Kaal Baisakhi?
Answer:
Localised thunderstorms associated with violent winds, torrential downpour, and often accompanied by hails during summer months in West Bengal are known as Kaal Baisakhi, meaning calamity for the month of Baisakh.

Question 24.
What are mango showers?
Answer:
The pre-monsoon showers occuring on the coastal regions of Kerala and Karnataka which help early ripening of mango fruit, are called mango showers.

Question 25.
What type of rainfall does the North-east Branch cause?
Answer:
Heavy rainfall.

Question 26.
Define precipitation.
Answer:
Precipitation is the moisture shed by the moisture-laden winds on the surface of the earth. Precipitation includes rainfall, snowfall, hail, sleet etc.

Question 27.
Mention the two heaviest rainfall areas of the country.
Answer:

1. The windward slopes of the Western Ghats.
2. The Meghalaya plateau.

Question 28.
Name the place where the heaviest rainfall of the world occurs.
Answer:
Mawsynram (1080 cm).

Question 29.
Which monsoon winds cause rains generally on the Tamil Nadu coast?
Answer:
Retreating monsoon winds and north-east monsoon winds.

Question 30.
What is known as ‘October Heat’?
Answer:
Conditions of high temperature, humidity and lack of air movement lead to oppres¬sive weather conditions in the half of the October. This is known as October Heat.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the coriolis force? State its effects on the world climate.
Answer:
Meaning of Coriolis Force: It is an apparent force caused by the Earth’s rotation. It is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the Northern hemisphere and towards the left in the Southern hemisphere.

Effect of Coriolis Force on the World Climate: Under the effect of coriolis force, the trade winds moving from sub-tropical high-pressure belts to equatorial low-pressure belts become North-East trade winds in the Northern hemisphere and South-East trade winds in the Southern hemisphere. As a result, they bring heavy rainfall to the Eastern Coast, while the Western Coast remains dry.

Question 2.
The pressure and wind conditions over India are unique’. Explain.
Answer:

1. During winter, there develops a high pressure area in the north of the Himalayas, cold dry winds blow from this region to the low pressure areas over the ocean to the south.
2. In summer, a low pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over north western India. This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during sum¬mer. These winds are known as south-west monsoon winds. These bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India.

Question 3.
What are western cyclonic disturbances? Describe its effect on the Indian climate. Answer:The western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena brought in by westerly flow from the Mediterranean region. They occur in the month of winter and cause rainfall in North and North-Western part of India. They affect the climate of India in the following ways:

1. By causing cyclonic rainfall in the month of winter, which is otherwise dry, western disturbance influences the weather of the North and North-Western India.
2. Although the amount of rainfall is scant, it is highly favourable to the Rabi crops, especially wheat.
3. They cause snowfall in the mountains.

Question 4.
What do you understand by the southern oscillation?
Answer:
The pressure systems of Pacific Ocean and Indian Ocean are inter-related. When the surface pressure is high in the sub-tropical region of the Pacific Ocean, in the Northern Hemisphere, the pressure over the southern part of the Indian Ocean tends to be low and vice- versa.

This results in shifting of winds across the Equator. The south-eastern trade winds of the Southern Hemisphere are attracted towards the low pressure of Northern Tropics. These winds often crossing the Equator become south-western monsoons. This is called southern oscillation.

Question 5.
Distinguish between Wind and Jet Streams. Answer:Differences between Wind and Jet Streams are:

Wind	Streams
1. Winds are moving air from high pres¬sure to low pressure areas.	1. Jet streams are fast moving mass of air in the upper troposphere.
2. They move horizontally on the surface of the earth.	2. They move horizontally in the troposphere.
3. Their speed is upto 75 km per hour.	3. Their speed exceeds 200km/hour.
4. Winds are divided as dry winds, moist winds, cold winds and hot winds.	4. Jet streams are divided into western and eastern jet streams.

Question 6.
What is EL Nino? Mention two features of this.
Answer:
EL Nino: The periodic development of warm ocean current along the coast of Peru as a temporary replacement of the cold peruvian current is called EL-Nino. Features of EL-Nino:

1. The presence of the EL-Nino leads to an increase in sea surface temperatures.
2. It weakens the trade winds in the regions and causes heavy rainfall, floods or droughts in different regions of the world.

Question 7.
What is monsoon? Name the two branches of monsoon and briefly explain any one.
Answer:
Monsoon:
it refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year. Bay of Bengal Branch.
(a) This branch of monsoon moves along the Bay of Bengal. It advances rapidly and arrives in the North-Eastern part of the country in first week of june.

(b) The lofty mountains cause this branch of monsoon winds to deflect towards the west over the Ganga plain.

(c) It merges with the Arabian Sea branch over the North-Western part of the Ganga plains.

Question 8.
Differentiate between cold weather season and hot weather season of India.
Answer:
Differences between cold and hot weather season are:

Cold Weather Season	Hot Weather Season
1. It begins from mid November in northern India and stays till February.	1. It begins from March and stays till May.
2. The temperature decreases from South to North.	2. Experiences rising temperature and falling air pressure in North India.
3. Days are warm and nights are cold.	3. Hot and dry winds called ‘loo’ blow during the day.
Cold Weather Season	Hot Weather Season

Question 9.
Describe the features of the hot weather season.
Answer:
The main features of the hot weather season are as given under:

1. It lasts from March to May.
2. Intense low pressure develops over the north-western part of India at the end of this season.
3. High temperature around 48°C prevails in this season.
4. Hot dry winds, i.e., Loo blow in the afternoon. They may continue even up to midnight.
5. Dust stroms are common during May in Punjab, Haryana, eastern Rajasthan and western Uttar Pradesh.
6. Local storms of great intensity are also common. These local storms are associated with violent winds, torrential rains and even hailstorms, e.g., Kaal Bai- sakhi in West Bengal and Assam.

Question 10.
Define Kaal Baisakhi, Loo and Mango Showers.
Answer:

1. Kaal Baisakhi: These are the local thunderstorms associated with violent winds, torrential downpours, often accompanied by hail. They occur in West Bengal.
2. Loo: These are stormy, hot, dry winds blowing during the day over the North and North-Western India.
3. Mango Showers: The pre-monsoon showers which help in the ripening of mangoes in coastal Kerala and Karanataka are known as Mango Showers.

Question 11.
Why do Western Ghats receive more rainfall than Eastern Ghats?
Answer:
Western Ghats receive more rainfall than Eastern Ghats because Western Ghats receive rainfall from the Arabian Sea monsoon winds. They does not allow these winds to cross over without shedding their moisture on the western slopes. A part of these winds that reaches the Eastern Ghats is almost dry.

Question 12.
Describe the features of the Advancing Monsoon season.
Answer:
Advancing monsoon season is also known as the hot wet weather season or rainy season.
The features of the Advancing Monsoon season are:

1. It lasts from June to September.
2. 75% to 90% of the total annual rainfall is concentrated over this period.
3. Distribution of rainfall is very largely governed by the relief.
4. The monsoon rains occur in wet spells.
5. The wet spells are interspersed with rainless dry spells.
6. The alternation of dry and wet spells keeps on varying in intensity, frequency and duration.

Question 13.
Where is Mawsynram located? Why does it receive the highest amount of rainfall?
Answer:
Mawsynram is located in the Southern ranges of the Khasi hills in Meghalaya at a height of 1500 metre above the sea level. It receives the highest (annual 1140 cm) rainfall in the world. Mawsynram receives the highest amount of rainfall because:

1. This place is enclosed by hills on three sides.
2. The relief features give this place tunnel-shaped location.
3. The Bay of Bengal monsoon is trapped in these hills. These winds try to get out of there, but are forced to cause heavy rainfall there.

III. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the major controls of the climate of any place? Explain.
Answer:
There are six major controls of the climate of any place. They are:
1. Latitude:
Due to the curvature of the earth, the amount of solar energy received varies according to latitude. As a result, air temperature generally decreases from the equator towards the poles.

2. Altitude:
As one goes from the surface of the earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less dense and temperature decreases. The hills are therefore cooler during summers.

3. Pressure and wind system:
The pressure and wind system of any area depend on the latitude and altitude of the place. Thus, it influences the temperature and rainfall pattern.

4. Distance from the sea:
The sea exerts a moderating influence on climate. As the distance from the sea increases, its moderating influence decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions.

5. Ocean currents:
Ocean currents along with onshore winds affect the climate of the coastal areas. For example, any coastal area with warm or cold currents flowing past it, will be warmed or cooled if the winds are onshore.

6. Relief:
Relief play a major role in determining the climate of a place. High mountains act a barriers for cold or hot winds. They, may also cause precipitation if they are high enough and lie in the path of rain-bearing winds. The leeward side of mountain remains relatively dry.

Question 2.
How is the climate of India governed by the atmospheric conditions?
Answer:
The climate of India is governed by the following atmospheric conditions:
1. Pressure and surface winds:
The surface winds below from region of high pressure to the region of low pressure. During winter, the high pressure area lies in the north of the Himalayas. Over the ocean in the south, there is low pressure, so, wind blow from land toward sthe sea. The reverse occurs during summer.

2. Upper air circulation:
The north-easterly winds originate in sub-tropical high pres-sure belt of northern hemisphere. They blow southwards and get deflected towards right (due to coriolis force) over the low-pressure area of the Indian sub-continent. They are dry and cold and cause no rainfall. Sub-tropical westerly jet stream brings western cyclonic disturbances in north and north-western India during winter.

3. Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical cyclones:
They are a part of easterly flow. They cause heavy to very low rainfall in Eastern coast of India during the monsoon as well as in October-November.

Question 3.
Describe the main characteristics of Retreating Monsoon.
Answer:
Main Characteristics of Retreating Monsoon : Main characteristics of retreating Monsoon are the following:

1. October and November are the months of retreating monsoon.
2. During this time, low monsoon trough becomes weak and is replaced by high pressure. Thus, monsoon begins to retreat. By the beginning of October, it retreats completely from the Northern Plains.
3. This period is the period of transition from hot rainy season to cold winter season. It is marked by clear sky, moist ground and high temperatures giving birth to October heat.
4. Low pressure trough shifts to the Bay of Bengal. They give rise to cyclonic depressions which cause havoc on the eastern coasts, especially the coasts of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, with very strong storms and rains. The super cyclone of 1999 will remain in the memories of millions of people forever, who lost their near and dear ones alongwith their property.

Question 4
Differentiate between South-west Monsoon and North-east Monsoon.
Answer:
Difference between South-west Monsoon and North-east Monsoon:

South-west Monsoon	North-east Monsoon
1.The winds blowing from South-west to North-east direction during the months of June to September are called South west Monsoon winds.	1. The winds blowing in India from North-east to South-west direction during the months of December to February are called North-east Monsoon winds.
2. These winds blow from South-west towards low pressure region.	2. These winds blow from the high pressure region towards the seas.
3. They are moisture-laden and hot.	3. They are dry and cold.
4. These winds cause 75 to 90% of the total annual rainfall during the reason of south-west monsoon.	4. They cause rainfall on the Tamil Nadu coast during winter.
5. The South-west Monsoon has two branch the Arabian Sea branch and I the Bay of Bengal branch.	5. They do not have branches.
6. Rainy days, soothing winds and overcast sky are the characteristic features of’ the South-west Monsoon.	6. Clear sky, low temperature, gentle breeze and rainless fine weather are the major features of the North-east Monsoon.

Locate & Labelling Meteorological stations cities to locate: Thiruvananthapuram, Chennai, Jodhpur, Bangalore, Mumbai, Kolkata, Leh, Shillong, Delhi, Nagpur.
Answer:

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Notes Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

→ Introduction

• India has practically all the physical features of the Earth like mountains, plains, deserts, plateaus, islands etc.
• Geologically, the land of India displays great physical variation.

→ Major Physiographic Divisions

• The physical features of India can be grouped under the following physiographic divisions: (i) The Himalayan mountains, (ii) The Northern plains, (iii) The Peninsular plateau, (iv) The Indian desert, (v) The Coastal plains, (vi) The Islands.

→ The Himalayan Mountains

• The Himalayan mountains are the major sources of water and forest wealth.
• The Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains. They stretch over the Northern borders of India.
• The Himalayas consists of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent: (i) The Great or Inner Himalayas or the ‘Himadri’, (ii) The Middle or lesser Himalayas or The ‘Himachal’ (iii) The Outer Himalayas or The ‘Shiwaliks’.
• The Himalayas are also divided on the basis of regions from West to East. This demarcation is done by river valleys, i.e. the Indus, Sutlej, Kali, Teesta and Dihang rivers.
• In the west, the part of Himalayas lying between Indus and Sutlej has been traditionally known as Punjab Himalayas.
• The part of Himalayas lying between Sutlej and Kali rivers is known as Kumaon Himalayas.
• The Kali and Teesta rivers demacrate the Nepal Himalayas and the part lying between Teesta and Dihang rivers is known as Assam Himalayas.
• Purvanchal or the Eastern hills and mountains running through the North-Eastern states are mostly composed of strong sand stones, which are sedimentary rocks covered with dense forest.

→ The Northern Plains

• The Northern plains are the granaries of the country. They provided the base for early civilisations.
• The Northern Plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems, namely the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra along with their tributaries.
• The Northern plain is broadly divided into three sections: (i) The Punjab plains, (ii) The Ganga plains, (iii) The Brahmaputra plains.
• According to the variations in relief features, the northern plains can be divided into four regions:(i) Bhabar, (ii) Terai, (iii) Bangar, (iv) Khadar.
• The largest part of the Northern plain is formed of older alluvium.

→ The Pfehinsular Plateau

• The Peninsular Plateau is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks. This plateau consists of two broad divisions, namely, the Central Highlands, the Deccan Plateau.
• The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau respectively.
• The Western part of the plateau, known as the Deccan Trap, contains black soil of volcanic origin.

→ The Indian Desert

• The Indian Desert lies towards the western sides of the Aravalli Hills. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
• Luni is the only large river in this region.
• This region receives very low rainfall, i.e. below 150 mm per year.

→ The Coastal Plains

• The Peninsular Plateau is boardered by stretches of narrow coastal strips, running along the Arabian Sea on the West and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
• The Western coast consists of three sections (i) The Konkan Coast, (ii) The Kannad Plain (iii)The Malabar Coast.
• The Eastern Coast consists of the Northern Circar and the Coromandel Coast.

→ The Islands

• The Lakshadweep islands group lies close to the Malabar coast of Kerala and are composed of small coral islands.
• The elongated chain of the Andaman and Nicobar islands located in the Bay of Bengal extends from North to  South.

→ Mountain: A mountain is a large landform that rises above the surrounding land in a limited area, usually in the form of a peak.

→ Desert: A large dry area, largely devoid of vegetation for want of rain or water.

→ Plateau: A wide, flat, topped area, rising abruptly from the surrounding low-lying area or a water body.

→ Island: A piece of land that is completely surrounded by sea, a river or lake.

→ Valley: A valley is a low area between hills or mountains typically with a river running through it.

→ Ox-bow lake: A crescent-shaped lake on a river floodplain.

→ Fold Mountains: An upland area, such as the Himalayas or Alps formed by the buckling of the Earth’s crust.

→ Physiography: Shape and relief or geographical features of an area.

→ Glacier: A glacier is a huge mass of ice that moves slowly over land.

→ Tributaries: Streams or small rivers that flow into a larger river.

→ Distributary: A river that originates from a major river. It is formed near the river’s mouth before falling into the sea.

→ Waterfall: A waterfall is an area where water flows over a vertical drop or a series of steep drops in the course of a stream or river.

→ Riverine Islands: Islands on a river.

→ Gondwana land: It was an ancient super-continent located in Southern Hemisphere which included the present-day South America, Africa, Australia snd Antarctica.

→ Bhangar: The older alluvium of the Northern Plain is called the Bhangar.

→ Khadar: The younger alluvium of the floodplains is known as the Khadar.

→ Duns: Narrow valleys found between Shiwaliks and Middle Himalayas.

→ Strait: A narrow stretch of water joining two oceans or large water bodies.

→ Barchans: Barchan also spelled Barkhan, crescent-shaped sand dunes produced by the action of wind an predominantly from one direction.

→ Tectonic Plates: Due to internal heat of the Earth, the currents of the semi-molten rocks move towards the crust, and tear it apart, dividing it into large fragments which are called Tectonic Plates.

→ Tethys: An elongated shallow sea sandwiched between two ancient landmasses.

→ Coral: Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic organisms which live in colonies. They flourish in shallow, mud free and warm waters. They secrete calcium carbonate.

→ Atolls: These are circular or horse-shoe-shaped coral reefs. Lakshadweep is one such type.

→ Gorge: The steep-sided narrow and deep valley of a river formed in its upper course is termed as a gorge. It is also called an I-shaped valley.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Notes