Prasanna

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Notes Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur

→ Introduction

• The story of village Palampur is a narrative story based on a research study by Gilbert Etiena of a village in Bulandshahar district (Uttar Pradesh).
• The purjpsse of the story of village Palampur, an imaginative village, is to introduce some basic concepts relating to production like-farming, small scale manufacturing, dairy, transport etc.
• These production activities need various types of resources such as; natural resources, man-made resources, man-power, money etc.
• Farming is the main activity in Palampur.
• Palampur is well-connected with neighbouring villages and towns. An all weather road and many kinds of transport are visible on this road like, bullock carts, motorcycles, jeeps, tractors and trucks etc.
• Palampur has about 450 families belonging to several different castes.
• The dalits comprise one-third of the population of the village. Their houses are made of mud and straw.
• Palampur has a fairly well-developed system of roads, transport, electricity, irrigation, school and health centre.
• In villages across India, farming is the main production activity. The other production
• activities are small-scale manufacturing, transport, shop-keeping etc.

→ Organisation of Production

• The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we need.
• The factors of production are land, labour, physical capital and human capital.
• Land is the first requirement for produciton and the second is labour.
• Physical capital includes tools, machines, buildings, i.e., fixed capital and raw materials and money in hand, i.e., working capital.
• Knowledge and enterprise come under human capital. It is required to put together all the above inputs to produce the output.

→ Land is fixecT

• 75% per cent people of Palampur are dependent on farming for their livelihood.
• There has been no expansion in land area under cultivation in Palampur since 1960.
• The standard unit of measuring land is hectare, though in the villages it is measured in local units as bigha, guintha etc.

→ Ways to grow more from the same land

• In Palampur, all land is cultivated. No land is left idle.
• During the rainy season, farmers of Palampur grow jowar, bajra, potato, wheat and
  sugarcane.
• During the winter season, fields are sown with wheat. From the produced wheat, farmers keep enough wheat for their family’s consumption and sell the rest of the wheat in the market at Raiganj.
• A part of land is also devoted to sugarcane production, which is harvested once every year.
• Farmers in Palampur are able to grow three different crops in a year due to a well- developed system of irrigation.
• The first few tubewells were installed by the government in Palampur.
• Of the total cultivated area in the country, a little less than 40 per cent is irrigated even today. In the remaining area, farming is largely dependent on rainfall.
• To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is called multiple cropping.
• Multiple cropping is the most common way of increasing production on a given piece of land.
• The Green Revolution in the late 1960s introduced the Indian farmer to cultivation of wheat and rice using high yielding varieties of seeds.
• Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try out the
  modern farming methods in India. .
• In Palampur, with the use of HYV seeds, the yield of wheat went up to 3200 kg per hectare as compared to 1300 kg per hectare with the traditional seeds.
• Farmer now had greater amounts of surplus wheat to sell in the markets.

→ Sustenance of land

• Modern farming methods have overused the natural resources base.
• The Green Revolution is associated with the loss of soil fertility in many areas due to increased use of chemical fertilizers.
• Chemical fertilizers kill the bacteria and micro organisms on the soil and reduce its fertility.
• About one-third population of Palampur is landless while most of them are dalits.

→ Availability of labour

• Farming requires a great deal of hard work.
• Small farmers along with their families cultivate their own fields. Medium and large farmers hire farm labourers to work on their fields.
• Farm labourers come either from landless families or families cultivating small plots of land.
• These labourers can be paid in cash or in objects like crops; sometimes they get meals also.
• Wages vary widely from region to region, from crop to crop and from one farm activity toanotfe
• There is also a wide variation in the duration of employment.

→ Capital needed in farming.

• As modern farming methods require a great deal of capital, the farmer needs more money for it.
• Mostly, small farmers have to borrow money ffom large farmers or the village money lenders or traders to arrange modern farming methods.
• The rate of interest on such loans is»very high. They are put to great distress to repay the loan.

→ Sale of surplus farm products

• The large and medium farmers of Palampur retain a part of the produced grain for their own use and sell the surplus in the market.
• The farmers earn a good amount of money through this sale.
• They use this money to purchase inputs for the next farming season, purchase capital equipment or even give loans to small farmers.

→ Non-Farm Activities in Palampur

• Only 25 per cent of the people working in Palampur are engaged in activities other than agriculture.
• There is a variety of non-agricultural activities in the village, e.g., dairy farming, manufacturing activities, shop keeping, transportation, computer education, jaggery production, etc.

→ Manufacturing: It is the process of making products, or goods from raw materials by the use of manual labour or machinery.

→ Resources: Commodities or services used to produce goods and services.

→ Bogeys: A kind of transport made of wood and drawn by buffaloes.

→ Dalits: People belonging to lower castet are known as Dalits or SCs.

→ Irrigation: The artificial application of water to land to assist in the production of crops by tubewells, canals and tanks, etc. .

→ Kharif: The autumn crop sown at the begining of summer rains.

→ Rabi: The spring crop sown in winter.

→ Multiple Cropping: To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the same year is known as multiple cropping.

→ Yield: An amount of crop produced in a given piece of land during a single season.

→ Green Revolution: It is a revolution in the field of agriculture in the late 1960s. It introduced the Indian farmers to the moden methods of farming to increase agricultural production.

→ HYV seeds: High yielding varities of seeds which promise to produce much greater amounts of grain than traditional seeds.

→ Chemical Fertilisers: It is a substance applied to soils or directly to plants to provide ^ nutrients, optimum for their growth and development.

→ Surplus: An amount of something left over when requirements have been met. It is an excess of production or supply.

→ Production activity: The creation of value or wealth by producing goodg and services,

→ Moneylender: A person who lends money which has to be paid back .at a high rate of interest.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Notes

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Notes Civics Chapter 5 Democratic Rights

→ Introduction

• A democratic government has to be periodically elected by the people in a free and fair manner.
• A democracy must be based on institutions that follow certain rules and porcedures.
• These elements are necessary but not sufficient for a democracy.
• Elections and institutions need to be combined with a third element-enjoyment of rights to make a government democratic.
• When the socially recognised claims (rights) are written into law in democracy they are called democratic rights.
• This chapter deals with democratic rights and their significance.

→ Life without rights

• The importance of rights can be judged by the one whose life has absence of rights.
• The following three examples state what it means to live in the absence of rights:

→ Prison in Goantanamo Bay

• About 600 people were secretly picked up by the United States of America’s forces from all over the world and put in a prison in Goantanamo Bay, near cuba.
• According to the American Government, they were enemies of the United State and linked to the attack on New york on 11th September, 2001,
• As a result, there was no trial before any magistrate in the United State, nor could these prisoners approach courts in their own country.
• Amnesty international, reported that the prisoners were being tortured in ways that violated the United States of America’s laws. Despite the provisions of international treaties, prisoners were being denied the treatment.

→ Citizens Rights in saudi Arabia

• Saudi Arabia is ruled over by a hereditary king and the people have no role in electing or changing their rulers.
• The king selects the legislature as well as the executive.
• He appoints the judges and can change any of their decisions.
• Citizens cannot form political parties or any political organisation
• Media cannot report anything that the monarch does not like.
• There is not freedom of religion. Every citizen is required to be muslim. Non-muslim residents can follow their religion in private, but not in public.
• Women are subjected to many public restrictions. The testimony of one man is considerd equal to that of two women.

→ Ethnic Massacre in Kosovo

• Kosovo was a province of yugoslavia before its split.
• In yugoslavia, serbs were in majority and Albanians were in minority.
• A democratically elected serb leader Slobodan milosevic wanted to dominate the country.
• Serbs thought that the albanians, (the ethnic minority group) should leave the country or accept the dominance of serbs.

→ Rights in a Democracy

• Everyone wants a system where at least a minimum asurance is guaranteed to all whether he/she is powerful or weak, rich or poor, majority or minority.

→ What are rights?

• Rights are reasonable claims of persons recognised in society and sanctioned by law.

→ Why do we need rights in a democracy?

• Rights are necessary for the very sustenance of a democracy.
• In a democracy, every citizen has the rights to vote and the rights to be elected to government.
• Rights protect minorities from the oppression of majority. They ensure that majority cannot do whatever it wishes to do.

→ Right in the Indian constitution

• Some rights which are fundamental to our life are given a special status in Indian constitution. They are called Fundamental Rights.
• Our constitution provides six fundamental rights.

→ Right to equality

• The constitution says that the government shall not deny the equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws to any person in India. It means that the laws apply in the same manner to all, regardless of a person’s status. This is called the rule of law.
• Right to equality is the foundation of any democracy. It means that no person is above the law.
• The government shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion race, caste, sex or place of birth.
• Every citizen shall have access to public places like shops, restaurants, hotels, and cinema halls.
• The government of India has provided reservation for scheduled castes (SCs), scheduled Tribes (STs) and other backward classes (OBCS). But these reservations are not against the right to equality.
• The constitution directs the government to put an end to the practice of untouchability. It is the extrerr 3 form of social discrimination.

→ Right to freedom

• Freedom mean absence of constraint. In practical life, it means absence of interference in our affairs h others be it other individuals or the government.
• Under the Indian constitution, all citizens have’the right to: (i) Freedom of speech and expression (ii) Assembly in a peaceful manner (iii) form associations, unions and cooperative societies (iv) Move freely throughout the country, (v) Reside in any part of the country (vi) practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
• Freedom is not unlimited license to do what one wants. The government can impose certain reasonable restrictions on our freedom in the larger interests of the society.

→ Right Against Exploitation

• Constitution makers thought it is necessary to write down certain clear provisions to prevent exploitation of the weaker sections of the society.
• The constitution mentions three specific evils and declares these illegal.
• First, the constitution prohibits ‘traffic’ in human beings. Traffic here means selling and buying of human beings, usually, women or children, for immoral purposes.
• Second, our constitution also prohibits forced labour or begar in any form. Begar is a practice where the worker is forced to render service to the master free of charge or at a nominal remuneration.
• Third the constitution prohibits child labour. No one can employ a child below the age of 14 to work in any factory or mine or any other hazardous work, such as railways and ports.

→ Right to Freedom of Religion

• Every person has right to profess, practice and propagate the religion he or she believes in.
• Every religious group or sect is free to manage its religious affairs. Freedom to propagate one’s religion, does not mean that a person has right to compl another person to convert into his religion by means of force, around inducement or allurement.
• India is a secular state. A secular state is one that does not establish any one religion as official religion. In India no privilege or favor is provided to any particular religion.

→ Cultural and Educational Right

• The following cultural and educational rights for minoritis are specified by our constitution.
• Any section of citizens with a distinct language or culture have a right to conserve it
• Admission to any educational institution maintained by government or receiving government aid cannot be denied to any citizen on the grounds of religion or language
• All minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institution of their choice.

→ How can we secure these rights?

• The fundamental rights in the constitution are important because they are enforceable.
• We have a right to seek the enforcement of these mentioned rights. This is called the right to constitutional remedies.
• This right makes other rights effective when any of the fundamental rights are violated then citizen can directly approach the supreme court or the high court of a state.
• That is why Dr. Ambedkar called the right to constitutional remedies the heart and soul of our constitution.
• The supreme court and high courts have the power to issue directions, order or writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights.
• They can also award compensation to the victims and punishment to the violators.
• In case of any violation of fundamental right the aggrieved person can go to a court for remedy. But now, any person can go to court against the violation of the fundamental right. If it is of social or public interest, It is called public Interset litigation (PIL).
• Under the PIL any citizen or group of citizens can approach the supreme court or a high court for the protection of public interest against a particular law or action of the judges even on a postcard. The court will take up the matter if the judges find it in public interest against a particular court law or action of the government.

→ Expanding Scope of Rights

• From time to time the courts gave judgements of expand the scope of right, certain rights like right to freedom of press, sight to information and right to education are derived from the fundamental rights.
• According to the right to education every child has the right to get elementary education.
• According to right to information, any body can demand information regarding the functions of a government department or official.
• Constitution provides many rights which may not be fundamental right e.g. the right to property, right to vote in election are not fundamental rights but these are constitutional rights.
• Human rights are universal moral claims that may or may not have been recognised by laws.
• Some international covenants have contributed to the expansion of rights.
• The national human rights commission (NHIRC) focuses on helping the victims to secure their human rights.
• International covenant on Economic social and cultural right.

→ Rights

• The international covenant recognises many rights that are not directly a part of the fundamental rights in the Indian constitution.
• This has not yet become an international treaty but human right activists all over the world see, this as a standard of human rights. These include.
  • Right to work i.e., opportunity to everyone to earn livelihood by working.
  • Right to safe and healthy working conditions. Fair wages that can provide decent standard of living for the workers and their families.
  • Right to adequate standard of living including adequate food, clothing and housing.
  • Right to social security and insurance.
  • Right to health i.e., medical care during illness, special care for woman during child birth and prevention of epidemics.
  • Right to education i.e., free and compulsary primary education, equal access to higher education.

→ Amnesty International: An international organisation of volunteers who campaigns for human rights. This organisation brings out independent reports on the violation of human rights all over the world.

→ Ethnic group: An ethnic group is a human population whose members usually identify with each other on the basis of a common ancestry. People of an ethnic group are united by cultural practices, religious beliefs and historical memories.

→ Claim: Demand for legal or moral entitlements a person makes on fellow citizens, society or the government.

→ Dalit: A person who belongs to the castes which were considered low and not touchable by others. Dalits are also known by other names such as the scheduled castes, depressed classes etc.

→ Begar: It is a practice where a worker is forced to render service to the ‘master’ free of charge or at a nominal remuneration.

→ Traffic: Selling and buying of men, women or children for immoral purposes.

→ Writ: A formal document containing an order of the court to the government issued only by High Court or the Supreme Court.

→ Summon: An order issued by a court asking a person to appear before it.

→ Convenant: Promise made by the individuals, groups or countries to uphold a rule or principle. It is legally binding on the signatories to the agreement or statement.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Notes

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Notes Civics Chapter 4 Working of Institutions

→ Introduction

• Democracy is not just about people electing their rulers.
• In a democracy the rulers have to follow some rules and procedures. They have to work with and within institutions.
• In this process we come across three institutions that play a key role in major decisions Legislature, executive and judiciary.
• In this chapter, we will understand how all the institutions together carry on the work of the government.

→ How is a major policy decision taken?

• The government issues hundreds of orders every day on different matters.
• President is the head of the state and is the highest formal authority in the country.
• Prime Minister is the head of the government and actually exercises all governmental powers.
• Parliament consists of the President and two houses, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
• The Prime Minister must have the support of a majority of Lok Sabha members.
• The Government of India had appointed the second Backward classes. Commission in 1979. It was harded by B.P. Mandal.
• The commission gave its report in 1980 and made many recommendations, one of these was that 27 per cent of government jobs be reserved for the socially and educationally backward classes.

→ Need for Political Institutions

• To attend all the tasks, several arrangements are made in all modern democracies. Such arrangements are called institutions. The constitution of any country lays down basic rules on the powers and functions of each institution.
• In our country there are three institutions running the different tasks: (a) The Prime Minister and the cabinet are institutions that take all important policy decisions, (b) The Civil servants, working together are responsible for taking steps to implement the minister’s decisions, (c) Supreme Court is an institution where disputes between citizens and the government are finally settled.
• Institutions involve rules and regulations. Institutions make it difficult to have a good decision taken very quickly. But they also make it equally difficult to rush through a bad decision. That is why democratic government insist on institutions.

→ Parliament

• In India, a national assembly of elected representatives is called Parliament. At the state level this is called State Legislature or Legislative Assembly.
• Parliament is the final authority for making laws in our country.
• Parliaments all over the world exercise some control over those who run the government.
• Parliaments control all the money that governments have.
• Parliament is the highest forum of discussion and debate on public issues and national policy in any democratic country.

→ Two Houses of Parliament

• In our country, the Parliament consists of two Houses. The two Houses are known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• Lok Sabha (House of the people) or lower chamber: It is usually directly elected by the people and exercises the real power on behalf of the people.
• Rajya Sabha (Council of states) or upper chamber: It is indirectly elected and perform special functions such as interest of various states,regions federal units.
• Our constitution gives some special powers to Rajya Sabha but on the most of the matters the Lok Sabha exercises supreme power.

→ Political Executive

• At different levels of any government, we find functionaries who take day-to-day decisions but do not exercise supreme power on behalf of the people. All those functionaries are collectively known as the Executive.

→ Political and Permanent Executive

• In our country, two categories make up the executive. One that is elected by the people for a specific period, is called the Political Executive. In the second category, people are appointed on a long term basis. This is called the permanent executive or civil services.
• The political executive has more power than the permanent executive.
• This is because the political executive is elected by the people and in a democracy will of people is supreme. They are answerable to the people for all consequences of their decision.

→ Prime Minister and Council of Ministers

• Prime Minister is the most important political institution in the country. The President appoints the leader of the majority party or the coalition of parties that commands a majority in the Lok Sabha, as Prime Minister.
• Council of Ministers is the official name for the body that includes all the Ministers mainly Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of state with independent charge and Minister of State.
• Every ministry has secretaries, who are civil servants.
• No Minister can openly criticise any decision of the government.

→ Powers of the Prime Minister

• As head of the government, the Prime Minister has wide ranging powers.
• He chairs cabinet meetings and coordinates the work of different departments.
• The Prime Minister distributes and redistributes work to the ministers. He also has the power to dismiss ministers.
• However, in recent years the rise of coalition politics has imposed certain constraints on the power of the Prime Minister.

→ The President

• The President is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India.
• The Presidental system
• Presidents all over the world are not always nominal executives like the President of India. In many countries of the world, the president is both the head of the state and the head of the government. The President of the United States of America is the most well known example of this kind of president.

→ The Judiciary

• All the courts at different levels in a country put together are called the judiciary. The Indian Judiciary consists of a Supreme Court for the entire nation. High Courts in the states, District Courts and the courts at local level.
• The judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister and in consultation with the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. A judge can be removed only by an impeachment motion passed separately by two-thirds members of the two Houses of the Parliament.
• The Supreme Court and the High Courts have the power to interpret the constitution of the country.
• The powers and the independence of the Indian judiciary allow it to act as the guardian of the Fundamental Rights.
• Courts have given several judgements and directives to protect public interest and human rights. Any one can approach the courts if public interest is hurt by the actions of government. This is called public interest litigation.

→ Democracy: It is a form of government which is chosen by the people to work for their welfare.

→ Legislature: An assembly of people’s representatives with the powers to enact laws for a country. In addition to enacting laws, legislatures have authority to raise taxes and adopt the budget and other money bills.

→ Executive: A body of persons having authority to initiate major policies, make decisions and implement them on the basis of the constitution and laws of the country.

→ Judiciary: An institution empowered to administer justice and provide a mechanism for the resolution of legal disputes. All the courts in the country are collectively referred to as judiciary.

→ Government: A set of institutions that have the power to make, implement and inter pret laws so as to ensure an orderly life. In its broad sense, government administers and supervises over citizens and resources of a country.

→ State: Political association occupying a definite territory, having an organised government and possessing power to make domestic and foreign policies. In common speech, the terms country, nation and state are used as synonyms.

→ Government order: It means any order, judgement, injunction, decree, stipulation or determination issued, promulgated or entered by or with any governmental authority of competent jurisdiction.

→ Office Memorandum: A communication issued by an appropriate authority stating the policy or decision of the government.

→ Parliament: The group of people who are elected to make and change the laws of a country is called the parliament.

→ Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha or house of the people is the power house of the parliament of India.

→ Rajya Sabha: The Rajya Sabha or council of states is the upper house of the parliament
of India.

→ Reservations: A policy that declares some positions in government employment and educational institutions ‘reserved’ for people and communities who have been discriminated against, are disadvantaged and backward.

→ Supreme Court: The highest judicial court in a country.

→ Political Institution: A set of procedures for regulating the conduct of government and political life in the country.

→ Cabinet: The most important ministers in governments, who have regular meetings with the Prime Minister.

→ High Court: The highest judicial court in a state..

→ Indra sawhney: Indra sawhney became a household name in 1992 after her challenge to Narasimha Rao’s forward quata more led the supreme court to impose a 50% cap on caste based reservations.

→ B.P. Mandal: Bindheshwari Prasad Mandal (B.P. Mandal) was an Indian Politician who chaired mandal commission. He served as Chief Minister of Bihar.

→ V.P. Singh: Vishwanath Pratap singh (V.P. singh) was an Indian politician. He was the 7th Prime Minister of India from 1989 to 1990.

→ Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru: He was an independence activist and subsequently, the first Prime Minister of India and a central figure in Indian politics before and after independence. As the Prime Minister, he exercised many pomets as he had great influence over the people.

→ Indira Gandhi: She was an Indian politician and a central figure at the Indian National Congress. She was the first and, to date, the only female Prime Minister of India.

→ Pranab Mukheijee: He is an Indian politician who served as the 13th President of India from 2012 to 2017.

→ Nerendra Modi: Narendra Damodardas Modi is an Indian politician serving as the current Prime Minister of India since 2014. He was the chief minister of Gujarat from 2001 to 2014 and is the member of parliament for Varanasi.

→ Justice J.S. Khehar: Jagdish Sing Khehar was the 44th Chief Justice of India. He is the first Chief Justice of India from the Sikh community.

→ Ramnath Kovind: He is an Indian politician currently serving as the 14th President of India, in office since 25 july 2017. Previously he had served as the Governor of Bihar from 2015 to 2017.

→ Coalition Government: A government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties, usually when no single party enjoys majority support of the members in a legislature.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Notes

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Sanskrit Solutions Shemushi Chapter 12 अन्योक्तयः Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10th Sanskrit Solutions Shemushi Chapter 12 अन्योक्तयः

JAC Class 10th Sanskrit अन्योक्तयः Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न 1.
एकपदेन उत्तरं लिखत (एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए)
(क) कस्य शोभा एकेन राजहंसेन भवति?
(किसकी शोभा एक राजहंस से होती है?)
उत्तरम् :
सरसः (सरोवर की)।

(ख) सरसः तीरे के वसन्ति?
(तालाब के किनारे कौन रहते हैं?)
उत्तरम् :
वकसहस्रम् (हजारों बगुले)।

(ग) कः पिपासः प्रियते?
(कौन प्यासा मर जाता है?)
उत्तरम् :
चातकः (पपीहा)।

(घ) के रसाल मुकुलानि समाश्रयन्ते ?
(आम की मंजरियों का आश्रय कौन लेते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
भृङ्गाः (भौरे)।

(ङ) अम्भोदाः कुत्र सन्ति? (बादल कहाँ हैं?)
उत्तरम् :
गगने (आकाश में)।

प्रश्न 2.
अधोलिखितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतभाषया लिखत
(नीचे लिखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए)
(क) सरसः शोभा केन भवति ?
(तालाब की शोभा किससे होती है ?)
उत्तरम् :
सरसः शोभा एकेन एव राजहंसेन भवति।
(तालाब की शोभा एक ही राजहंस से होती है।)

(ख) चातकः किमर्थं मानी कथ्यते ?
(चातक किस अर्थ में स्वाभिमानी है?)
उत्तरम् :
चातकः तृषितः मरणम् आप्नोति परञ्च सर्वान् वारिदान् न याचते, केवलं पुरन्दरं याचते।
(चातक प्यासा मर जाता है, लेकिन अन्य बादलों से नहीं माँगता, केवल इन्द्र से माँगता है।)

(ग) मीनः कदा दीनां गतिं प्राप्नोति ?
(मछली कब दीन गति को प्राप्त होती है ?)
उत्तरम् :
यदा सरः सङ्कोचमञ्चति तदा मीन: दीनां गतिं प्राप्नोति।
(जब तालाब सूख जाता है तब मछली दीन दशा को प्राप्त होती है।)

(घ) कानि पूरयित्वा जलदः रिक्तः भवति ?
(किन्हें भरकर बादल खाली हो जाता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
नानानदीनदशतानि पूरयित्वा जलदः रिक्तः भवति।
(अनेक नदी और सैकड़ों नदों को भरकर बादल खाली हो जाता है।)

(ङ) वृष्टिभिः वसुधां के आर्द्रयन्ति ?
(वर्षा से धरती को कौन गीला कर देते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
अम्भोदाः वृष्टिभिः वसुधां आर्द्रयन्ति।
(बादल वर्षा से धरती को गीला कर देते हैं।)

प्रश्न 3.
अधोलिखितवाक्येष रेखाकितपदानि आधुत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं करुत –
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए)
(क) मालाकारः तोयैः तरोः पुष्टिं करोति।
(माली जल से वृक्ष का पोषण करता है।)
उत्तरम् :
मालाकार: कैः तरोः पुष्टिं करोति ?
(माली किनसे वृक्ष का पोषण करता है ?)
(ख) भृङ्गाः रसालमुकुलानि समाश्रयन्ते।
(भौरे आम के बौर का आश्रय लेते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
भृङ्गाः कानि समाश्रयन्ते ?
(भौरे किनका आश्रय लेते हैं ?)
(ग) पतङ्गाः अम्बरपथम् आपेदिरे।
(पक्षियों ने आकाश मार्ग पाया।)
उत्तरम् :
के अम्बरपथं आपेदिरे ?
(किन्होंने आकाश मार्ग पाया ?)
(घ) जलदः नानानदीनदशतानि पूरयित्वा रिक्तोऽस्ति।
(बादल अनेक नदी और सैकड़ों नदों को भरकर खाली है।)
उत्तरम् :
कः नानानदीनदशतानि पूरयित्वा रिक्तोऽस्ति ?
(कौन अनेक नदी और सैकड़ों नदों को भरकर खाली है ?)

(ङ) चातकः वने वसति। (पपीहा वन में रहता है।)
उत्तरम् :
चातकः कुत्र वसति ? (पपीहा कहाँ रहता है ?)

प्रश्न 4.
अधोलिखितयो श्लोकयोः भावार्थ संस्कृतभाषया लिखत –
(निम्नलिखित श्लोकों का भावार्थ संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिये)
(अ) तोयैरल्पेरपि ………… वारिदेन।।
उत्तरम् :
भावार्थ – सुयोग्यः समर्थः एव व्यक्ति कार्य सम्यग् रूपेण सम्पादयितुं शक्नोति। यथा हि कवि पण्डित राज कथयति-‘रे उद्यानपाल! यं वृक्षं त्वं सकरुणं प्रचण्ड ग्रीष्म? अल्पैः जलै, अर्थात् आवश्यकतानुसारमसिञ्चः, एवम् असौ वृक्षः शनैः पालितः, किं तत् कार्यम् समर्थोऽसन् वृष्टिः धारा प्रवाहेण प्रभूतेन जलेन कर्तुं शक्नोति।

यथावश्यकमेव पोषणम् अपेक्ष्यते।’ (सुयोग्य और समर्थ व्यक्ति ही कार्य सुचारु रूप से सम्पन्न कर सकता है। जैसा कि कवि पण्डितराज कहते हैं- ‘हे माली! जिस वृक्ष को तुमने करुणा के साथ प्रचण्ड ग्रीष्म ऋतु में आवश्यकतानुसार थोड़ा-थोड़ा पानी देकर पाला था, क्या इस कार्य में समर्थ होते हुये भी वर्षा (अनावश्यक) बहुत से धारा प्रवाह जल से कर सकता है। सभी यथावश्यक पोषण की अपेक्षा करते हैं।)

(आ) रे रे चातक ………………….. दीनं वचः।

भावार्थ: – श्लोकेऽस्मिन् कवि चातकस्य माध्यमेन कथयति यत् सर्वे धनिकाः समृद्धाः वा जनाः दातारः न भवन्ति अतः यं कञ्चित् मानवं मा याचनां कुरु यथा हि कविः भर्तहरि कथयति – ‘रे रे चातक! सावहितः सन् शृणु मित्र। आकाशे अनेके मेघाः आयान्ति यान्ति च परञ्च तेषु केचनैव वर्षन्ति। एवं एव संसारे अनेके धनिका समृद्धाः च मानवा आयान्ति यान्ति च। तेषु केचन यच्छन्ति अन्ये तु व्यर्थमेव आत्मानं प्रदर्शयन्ति। अतोऽहं ब्रवीमि यत् त्वम यं कञ्चनं पश्यति तस्य सम्मुखं याचनाय मा गच्छ। सु दानभावोपेतं जनं ज्ञात्वा एवं याचनाय हस्तौ प्रसारय।

यथा सर्वे वारिदाः चातकाय स्वाति बिन्दुं न दातुं शक्नोति तथैव सर्वे जनाः याचकाय दान न दातुं शक्नुवन्ति। (इस श्लोक में कवि चातक के माध्यम से कहता है कि सभी धनवान या समद्ध लोग दानदाता नहीं होते। अतः जिस किसी मानव से मत याचना करो। जैसा कि कवि भर्तृहरि कहता है-‘ओ चातक! सावधान होकर सुन। मित्र! आकाश में अनेक मेघ आते हैं और चले जाते हैं। उनमें से कुछ ही देते हैं अन्य तो व्यर्थ ही अपना दिखावा करते हैं। अतः मैं चाहता हूँ कि तुम जिस किसी को देखो उसी के सामने याचना के लिये मत जाओ। (अच्छे दान भाव से युक्त व्यक्ति को जानकर याचना के लिये हाथ फैलाओ। जैसे सभी बादल चातक को स्वाति की बूंद नहीं दे सकते हैं वैसे ही सभी लोग याचक को दान नहीं दे सकते हैं।)

प्रश्न 5.
अधोलिखित श्लोकयोः अन्वयं लिखत। (निम्नलिखित श्लोकों का अन्वय लिखो)
(अ) आपेदिरे …………. कतमां गतिमभ्युपैति।
अन्वयः – पतङ्गाः परितः अम्बरपथम् आपेदिरे, भृङ्गाः रसाल मुकलानि समाश्रयन्ते। सरः त्वयि सङ्कोचम् अञ्चति, हन्त दीन-दीनः मीनः नु कतमां गतिम् अभ्युपैतु।

(आ) आश्वास्य ………….. सैवतवोत्तमा श्रीः।।
अन्वयः – तपनोष्णतप्तम् पर्वतकुलम् आश्वास्य उदाम दावविधुराणि काननानि च आश्वास्य नाना नदी गतानि पूरयित्वा च हे जलद। यत् रिक्तः असि तव सा एव उत्तमा श्रीः।

प्रश्न 6.
उदाहरणमनुसृत्य सन्धिं/सन्धिविच्छेदं वा कुरुत –
(उदाहरण के अनुसार सन्धि/सन्धि-विच्छेद कीजिए)
(i) यथा – अन्य + उक्तयः = अन्योक्तयः।
(क) …………. + ………….. = निपीतान्यम्बूनि।
(ख) …………. + उपकारः = कृतोपकारः।
(ग) तपन + …………… = तपनोष्णतप्तम्।
(घ) तव + उत्तमा = …………………।
(ङ) न + एतादृशाः = …………………।
उत्तरम् :
(क) निपीतानि + अम्बूनि = निपीतान्यम्बूनि।
(ख) कृत + उपकारः = कृतोपकारः।
(ग) तपन + उष्णतप्तम् = तपनोष्णतप्तम्।
(घ) तव + उत्तमा = तवोत्तमा।
(ङ) न + एतादृशाः = नैतादृशाः।

(ii) यथा – पिपासितः + अपि = पिपासितोऽपि।
(क) ……………. + ……………… = कोऽपि।
(ख) ……………. + ………………. = रिक्तोऽसि।
(ग) मीनः + अयम् = ………………।
(घ) सर्वे + आदि = …………
उत्तरम् :
(क) कः + अपि = कोऽपि।
(ख) रिक्तः + असि = रिक्तोऽसि।
(ग) मीनः + अयम् = मीनोऽयम्।
(घ) सर्वे + ऽपि = ………………..

(iii) यथा – सरस: + भवेत् = सरसोभवेत्।
(क) खगः + मानी – ……………।
(ख) …………. + नु = मीनो नु।
(ग) पिपासितः + वा = ………..।
(घ) …………. + ………. = पुरुतोमा।
उत्तरम् :
(क) खगः + मानी = खगो मानी।
(ख) मीनः + नु = मीनो नु।
(ग) पिपासितः + वा = पिपासितोवा।
(घ) पुरतः + मा = पुरुतोमा।

(iv) यथा – मुनिः + अपि = मुनिरपि।
(क) तोयैः + अल्पैः = …………..।
(ख) ………… + अपि = अल्पैरपि।
(ग) तरोः + अपि = ………………।
(घ) ………. + आर्द्रचन्ति = वृष्टिमिरार्द्रयन्ति।
उत्तरम् :
(क) तोयैः + अल्पैः = तोयैरल्पैः
(ख) अल्पैः + अपि = अल्पैरपि
(ग) तरोः + अपि = तरोरपि।
(घ) वृष्टिमिः + आर्द्रयन्ति = वृष्टिमिरार्द्रयन्ति।

प्रश्न 7.
उदाहरणमनुसृत्य अधोलिखितैः विग्रहपदैः समस्तपदानि रचयत –
(उदाहरण के अनुसार निम्नलिखित विग्रह पदों से समस्त पद बनाइए)

JAC Class 10th Sanskrit अन्योक्तयः Important Questions and Answers

शब्दार्थ चयनम् –

अधोलिखित वाक्येषु रेखांकित पदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थ चित्वा लिखत –

प्रश्न 1.
एकेन राजहंसेन या शोभा सरसो भवेत्।
(अ) तडागस्य
(ब) कटु
(स) सरसः
(द) जलदः
उत्तरम् :
(अ) तडागस्य

प्रश्न 2.
न सा. बकसहस्रेण परितस्तीरवासिना।
(अ) भवेत्
(ब) अभितः
(स) शृगालः
(द) भवति
उत्तरम् :
(ब) अभितः

प्रश्न 3.
भुक्ता मृणालपटली भवता निपीता।
(अ) भवता
(ब) युक्ता
(स) खादिता
(द) अम्बूनि
उत्तरम् :
(स) खादिता

प्रश्न 4.
न्यम्बूनि यत्र नलिनानि निषेवितानि।
(अ) राजहंस
(ब) सरोवरस्य
(स) भविता
(द) सेवितानि
उत्तरम् :
(द) सेवितानि

प्रश्न 5.
तोवैरल्यैरपि करुणया भीमभानौ निदाघे।
(अ) ग्रीष्मकाले
(ब) भानवेः
(स) निर्दय
(घ) भवता
उत्तरम् :
(अ) ग्रीष्मकाले

प्रश्न 6.
व्यरचि भवता या तरोरस्य पुष्टिः।
(अ) विश्वतः
(ब) कृता
(स) जनयितुम्
(द) शक्या
उत्तरम् :
(ब) कृता

प्रश्न 7.
भृङ्गा रसालमुकुलानि समाश्रयन्ते।
(अ) आपेदिरे
(ब) समाश्रयन्ते
(स) द्विरेफा
(द) दीनदीनः
उत्तरम् :
(स) द्विरेफा

प्रश्न 8.
एक एव खगो मानी वने वसति चातकः।
(अ) पिपासितः
(ब) पुरन्दरम्
(स) याचते
(द) स्तोककः
उत्तरम् :
(द) स्तोककः

प्रश्न 9.
यं यं पश्यसि तस्य तस्य पुरतो मा ब्रूहि दीनं वचः।
(अ) वद
(ब) बहवः
(स) आर्द्रयन्ति
(द) पश्यसि
उत्तरम् :
(अ) वद

प्रश्न 10.
नानानदीनदशतानि च पूरयित्वा।
(अ) पूर्णिमाया
(ब) पूरणी:
(स) आश्वास्य
(द) पूर्णं कृत्वा
उत्तरम् :
(स) आश्वास्य

संस्कृतमाध्यमेन प्रश्नोत्तराणि –

एकपदेन उत्तरत (एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिए)

प्रश्न 1.
राजहंसोऽत्र कस्य प्रतीकः ?
(राजहंस यहाँ किसका प्रतीक है ?)
उत्तरम् :
सज्जनस्य (सज्जन का)।

प्रश्न 2.
कविः ‘बकसहस्रम्’ कं कथयति ?
(कवि ‘बकसहस्रम्’ किसे कहता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
मूर्खान् (मूरों को)।

प्रश्न 3.
मालाकारेण तरोः पुष्टिः कैः कृता ?
(माली ने वृक्ष का पोषण किनसे किया ?)
उत्तरम् :
तोयैः (जल से)।

प्रश्न 4.
मालाकारः कथं तोयैः वृक्षस्य पुष्टिः व्यरचि ?
(माली ने किस प्रकार पानी से वृक्ष की पुष्टि की ?)
उत्तरम् :
करुणया (करुणा से)।

प्रश्न 5.
सङ्कचिते सरोवरे पतङ्गाः कुत्र आपेदिरे ?
(सरोवर के सूख जाने पर पक्षी कहाँ गये ?)
उत्तरम् :
अम्बरपथम् (आकाश मार्ग में)।

प्रश्न 6.
कीदृशः चातकः पिपासितो म्रियते ?
(कैसा चातक प्यासा मरता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
मानी (स्वाभिमानी)।

प्रश्न 7.
कविः कं सम्बोध्य श्लोकं अरचयत् ?
(कवि किसको संबोधित करके श्लोक की रचना करता है?)
उत्तरम् :
मेघः (बादल)।

प्रश्न 8.
काननानि कः आश्वास्यति ?
(जंगलों को कौन आश्वस्त करता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
जलदः (बादल)।

प्रश्न 9.
कविः मित्रः इति शब्देन के सम्बोधयति ?
(कवि ‘मित्र’ इस शब्द से किसको संबोधित करता है?)
उत्तरम् :
चातकः (पपीहा को)।

प्रश्न 10.
केचिद् अम्भोदाः कथं गर्जन्ति ?
(कुछ बादल कैसे गर्जते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
वृथा (व्यर्थ ही)।

प्रश्न 11.
एकेन राजहंसेन कस्य शोभा भवेत् ?
(एक हंस से किसकी शोभा होती है?)
उत्तरम् :
सरसः (तालाब की)।

प्रश्न 12.
सरसः तीरवासिनः के सन्ति ?
(तालाब के किनारे वास करने वाले कौन हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
बकसहस्रम् (हजारों बगुले)।

प्रश्न 13.
मृणालपटली केन भुक्ता ?
(कमलनालों का समूह किसके द्वारा खाया गया है ?)
उत्तरम् :
राजहंसेन (राजहंस के द्वारा)।

प्रश्न 14.
राजहंसेन कानि निपीतानि ?
(राजहंस ने किन्हें पीया ?)
उत्तरम् :
अम्बूनि (जल)।

प्रश्न 15.
तरोः पुष्टिः केन कृतः ?
(वृक्ष का पोषण किसके द्वारा किया गया है ?)
उत्तरम् :
मालाकारेण (माली द्वारा)।

प्रश्न 16.
मालाकारेण तरोः कदा पुष्टिः कृता ?
(माली ने वृक्ष का पोषण कब किया ?)
उत्तरंम् :
निदाघे (गर्मी में)।

प्रश्न 17.
सङ्कुचिते सरोवरे परितः अम्बरपथं कः आपेदिरे ?
(सरोवर के सूख जाने पर चारों ओर आकाशमार्ग को कौन प्राप्त कर लेते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
पतङ्गाः (पक्षी)।

प्रश्न 18.
रसालमुकुलानि के समाश्रयन्ते ?
(आम की मजरी को आश्रय कौन लेते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
भृङ्गाः (भौरे)।

प्रश्न 19.
एकः एव मानी वने कः वसति ?
(एक ही स्वाभिमानी वन में कौन निवास करता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
खगः (पक्षी)।

प्रश्न 20.
पुरन्दरात् कः याचते ?
(इन्द्र से कौन माँगता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
चातकः (पपीहा)।

प्रश्न 21.
कः नदी नद शतानि पूरयति ?
(कौन सैकड़ों नद-नदियों को भर देता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
जलदः (बादल)।

प्रश्न 22.
तपनोष्णतप्तम् किम् ?
(सूर्य की गर्मी से कौन तपी है ?)
उत्तरम् :
पर्वतकुलम् (पर्वतों के समूह)।

प्रश्न 23.
के वृष्टिभः वसुधां आर्द्रयन्ति ?
(कौन बरसकर धरती को गीला कर देते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
अम्भोदाः (बादल)।

प्रश्न 24.
कीदृशं वचः मा ब्रूहिः ?
(कैसे वचन मत बोलो?)
उत्तरम् :
दीनंवचः (दीन वचन)।

पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत (पूरे वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)

प्रश्न 25.
कृतोपकारः कः भविष्यति ?
(उपकार करने वाला कौन होगा ?)
उत्तरम् :
कृतोपकारः राजहंसः भविष्यति।
(उपकार करने वाला राजहंस होगा।)

प्रश्न 26.
धारासारान् कः विकिरति।
(जलधाराओं को कौन बरसाता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
धारासारान् वारिदः विकिरति।
(जलधाराओं को बादल बरसाता है।)

प्रश्न 27.
चातकः मानी कथम् ?
(चातक मानी कैसे है ?)
उत्तरम् :
चातकः पिपासितो म्रियते पुरन्दरम् वा याचते।
(चातक या तो प्यासा मरता है या इन्द्र से याचना करता है।)

प्रश्न 28.
जलदः कान् पूरयति ? (बादल किनको भरता है?)
उत्तरम :
जलदः नानानदीनदशतानि पूरयति।
(बादल अनेक नदी और सैकड़ों नदों को भरता है।)

प्रश्न 29.
कविः श्रोतारं किं कारणाद् वर्जयति?
(कवि श्रोताओं को किस कारण रोकता है?)
उत्तरम् :
कवि श्रोतारं वर्जयति-मा ब्रूहि दीनं वचः
(कवि सुनने वालों को रोकता है–किसी के सामने दीन वचन मत बोलो)।

प्रश्न 30.
सरसः शोभा केन न भवति ?
(तालाब की शोभा किससे नहीं होती ?)
उत्तरम् :
सरसः शोभा परितः तीरवासिना बकसहस्रेण न भवति।
(तालाब की शोभा चारों ओर किनारे पर बैठे हजारों बगलों से नहीं होती।)

प्रश्न 31.
राजहंसेन कानि निषेवितानि ?
(राजहंस द्वारा किनका सेवन किया गया ?)
उत्तरम् :
राजहंसेन नलिनानि निषेवितानि।
(राजहंस ने कमलनालों का सेवन किया।)

प्रश्न 32.
मालाकार: केन प्रकारेण तरोः पुष्टिं करोति ?
(माली किस प्रकार से वृक्ष की पुष्टि करता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
मालाकार: निदाघे अल्पैः तोयैः अपि करुणया तरोः पुष्टिं करोति।
(माली गर्मी में थोड़े जल से भी करुणा के साथ वृक्ष का पोषण करता है।)

प्रश्न 33.
सरोवरे सङ्कुचिते भृङ्गाः कानि समाश्रयन्ते ?
(सरोवर के सूख जाने पर भौरे किनका आश्रय ले लेते हैं?)
उत्तरम् :
सरोवरे सङ्कुचिते भृङ्गाः रसालमुकुलानि समाश्रयन्ते।
(सरोवर के सूख जाने पर भौरे आम की मंजरी का आश्रय ले लेते हैं।)

प्रश्न 34.
वने कः वसति ?
(वन में कौन रहता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
वने एकः मानी खगः चातकः वसति।
(वन में एक स्वाभिमानी पक्षी चातक रहता है।)

प्रश्न 35.
जलदः कीदृशानि काननानि आवश्स्य रिक्तो भवति ?
(बादल वनों को किस प्रकार आश्वस्त करके जलहीन (खाली) हो जाता है?)
उत्तरम् :
जलदः रिक्तोभवति उद्दामदावविधुराणि काननानि आश्वस्तं करोति।
(बादल खाली होकर दावाग्नि से नष्ट हुए वनों को आश्वस्त करता है।)

प्रश्न 36.
कवि के सम्बोध्य श्लोकं कथयति ?
(कवि श्लोक किसको सम्बोधित करके कहता है?)
उत्तरम् :
कवि चातकः सम्बोध्य श्लोक कथयति।
(कवि श्लोक चातक को सम्बोधित करके कहता है।

अन्वय-लेखनम् –

अधोलिखितश्लोकस्यान्वयमाश्रित्य रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषातः समुचितपदानि चित्वा पूरयत।
(नीचे लिखे श्लोक के अन्वय के आधार पर रिक्तस्थानों की पूर्ति मंजूषा से उचित पद चुनकर कीजिए।)

1. एकेन ……….. ………… तीरवासिना।। .
मञ्जूषा – तीरवासिना, राजहंसेन, सा, शोभा।
एकेन (i) …………. सरस: या (ii) …………. भवेत् परितः (iii) …………. बकसहस्रेण (iv) …………. (शोभा) न (भवति)।
उत्तरम् :
(i) राजहंसेन (ii) शोभा (iii) तीरवासिना (iv) सा।

2. भुक्ता …………………. कृतोपकारः।।
मञ्जूषा – निषेवितानि, अम्बूनि, मृणालपटली, कृतोपकारः।
यत्र भवता (i) ………… भुक्ता, (ii) ………… निपीतानि नलिनानि (iii) ………… रे राजहंस ! तस्य सरोवरस्य केन कृत्येन (iv) …………. भविता असि, वद।
उत्तरम् :
(i) मृणालपटली (ii) अम्बूनि (iii) निषेवितानि (iv) कृतोपकारः।

3. तोयैरल्पैरपि………………………. वारिदेन।।
मञ्जूषा – प्रावृषेण्येन, भीमभानौ, विकिरता, करुणया।
हे मालाकार ! (i) …………. निदाघे अल्पैः तोयैः अपि भवता (ii) …………. अस्य तरोः या पुष्टिः व्यरचि। वारां (iii) …………. विश्वतः धारासारान् अपि (iv) …………. वारिदेन इह जनयितुं सा किं शक्या।
उत्तरम् :
(i) भीमभानौ (ii) करुणया (iii) प्रावृषेण्येन (iv) विकिरता।

4. आपेदिरेऽम्बरपथं ………………… गतिमभ्युपैतु।।
मञ्जूषा – कतमां, भृङ्गाः, परितः, अञ्चति। (सङ्कुचिते सरोवरे)
पतङ्गाः (i) …………. अम्बरपथम् आपेदिरे, (ii) …………. रसालमुकुलानि समाश्रयन्ते। सरः त्वयि सङ्कोचम् (iii) …………., हन्त दानदान: मीनः नु (iv) ………….गतिम् अभ्युपतु।।
उत्तरम् :
(i) परितः (ii) भृङ्गाः (iii) अञ्चति (iv) कतमां।

5. एक एव खगो ……………………….. पुरन्दरम्।।
मञ्जूषा – पुरन्दरं, चातकः, एव, पिपासितः।
एक: (i) ……….. मानी खगः (ii) ……….. वने वसति वा (iii) ……….. म्रियते (ii) ………… याचते।।
उत्तरम् :
(i) एव (ii) चातकः (iii) पिपासितः (iv) पुरन्दरं।।

6. आश्वास्य पर्वतकुलं ……….. …… तवोत्तमा श्रीः।।
मञ्जूषा – काननानि, पर्वतकुलम्, उत्तमा, जलद।
तपनोष्णतप्तम् (i) ……….. आश्वास्य उद्दामदावविधुराणि (ii) ……….. च (आश्वास्य) नानानदीनदशतानि पूरयित्वा च हे (ii) ……….. ! यत् रिक्तः असि तव सा एव (ii) ……….. श्रीः।
उत्तरम् :
(i) पर्वतकुलम् (ii) काननानि (iii) जलद (iv) उत्तमा।

7. रे रे चातक ! ……………………….. दान …….. दीनं वचः।।
मञ्जूषा – एतादृशाः, अम्भोदाः, श्रूयताम, आर्द्रयन्ति।
रे रे मित्र चातक ! सावधानमनसा क्षणं (i) …………. गगने हि बहवः (ii) …………. सन्ति, सर्वेऽपि (iii) … ” ………. न (सन्ति) केचित् वसुधां वृष्टिभिः (iv) …………. केचित् वृथा गर्जन्ति, यं यं पश्यसि तस्य तस्य पुरतः दीनं वचः मा ब्रूहि।
उत्तरम् :
(i) श्रूयताम् (ii) अम्भोदाः (iii) एतादृशाः (iv) आर्द्रयन्ति।

प्रश्ननिर्माणम् –

अधोलिखित वाक्येषु स्थूलपदमाधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत –

1. सरसः शोभा राजहंसेन भवेत्.। (तालाब की शोभा राजहंस से होनी चाहिए।)
2. राजहंसेन सरोवरस्य नलिनानि निषेवितानि। (राजहंस द्वारा सरोवर के कमलनालों का सेवन किया गया।)
3. भृङ्गाः रसालमुकुलानि समाश्रयन्ते। (भौरे आम के बौर का आश्रय लेते हैं।)
4. पतङ्गाः परितः अम्बरपथं आपेदिरे। (पक्षी चारों ओर आकाश में पहुँच गए।)
5. सरसि संकोचम् अञ्चति मीन: दु:खीभवति। (तालाब के सूख जाने पर मछली दःखी होती है।)
6. मानी चातकः वने वसति। (स्वाभिमानी चातक वन में रहता है।)
7. चातक: पुरन्दरं याचते। (पपीहा इन्द्र से याचना करता है।)।
8. जलदः तपनोष्णतप्तं पर्वतकुलम् आश्वासयति। (बादल सूर्य से सन्तप्त पर्वत समूहों को आश्वस्त करता है।) .
9. जलदः नानानदीनदशतानि पूरयित्वा रिक्तो भवति। (बादल सैकड़ों नदी-नदों को भरकर रिक्त होता है।)
10. वारिदाः वृष्टिभिः वसुधाम् आर्द्रयन्ति। (बादल वर्षा से धरती को गीला करते हैं।)
उत्तराणि :
1. सरसः शोभा केन भवेत् ?
2. राजहंसेन सरोवरस्य कानि निषेवितानि ?
3. भृङ्गाः कानि समाश्रयन्ते ?
4. पतङ्गाः परितः कम् आपेदिरे ?
5. सरसि सङ्कोचमञ्चति कः दुःखी भवति ?
6. मानी चातकः कुत्र वसति ?
7. चातकः कम् याचते ?
8. जलदः के आश्वासयति ?
9. जलदः कानि पूरयित्वा रिक्तो भवति ?
10. वारिदाः काभिः वसुधाम् आर्द्रयन्ति ?

भावार्थ-लेखनम् –

अधोलिखित पद्यांश संस्कृते भावार्थ लिखत –

1. एकेन राजहंसेन या ………………………. परितस्तीरवासिना।।
भावार्थ – एकेन मरालेन सरोवरस्य सौन्दर्य स्मात् परञ्च अभितः तट उषितैः सहस्रवकैः सा शोभा न सम्भवति।

2. भुक्ता मृणालपटली भवता …………………………… भवितासि कृतोपकारः।।
भावार्थ – यस्मिन् स्थाने त्वया श्रीमता कमलनाल समूह खादितः नि:शेषाणि जलानि पीतानि कमलानां सेवनं कृतम् रे मराल! अमुष्य तडागस्य केन कार्येण तस्य हितकारकः भविष्यसि (कथं तस्योपकारं करिष्यसि) कथय कथं भविष्यति।

3. तोयैरल्पैरपि करुणया ……………………….. विकिरता विश्वतो वारिदेन।।
भावार्थ – हे उद्यान पाल! भयंकर प्रचण्ड सूर्ये प्रतप्ते ग्रीष्मौ किञ्चित जलेन अपि त्वया अनुकम्पया त्वया एतस्य वृक्षस्य यत्पोषणं त्वया कृतम् किं वर्षा कालिकेन सर्वतः जलधारा वर्षयता जलदेन कर्तुं शक्यते।

4. आपेदिरेऽम्बरपथं परितः …………………………………. कतमां गतिमभ्युपैतु।।
भावार्थ – शुष्के सरसि खगाः सर्वतः आकाशमार्गम् प्राप्नुवन्ति, भ्रमराः रसालानां मञ्जरीणां शरणं गृह्णन्ति। हे सरोवर! त्वयि जलाभावेसति हा अतिदीनाः मत्स्याः कां स्थिति प्राप्स्यन्ति अर्थात् तेषां न कोऽपि आश्रयः।

5. एक एव खगो मानी ……………………….. याचते वा पुरन्दरम्।।
भावार्थ – एकः एव स्वाभिमानी पक्षी सारङ्ग स्तोकको वा कानने निवसति, सः तृषितः मरणम् आप्नोति अन्यथा इन्द्रं देवराजमेव याचनां करोति। (सर्वान् अन्यान् वारिदान् न याचते)।

6. आश्वास्य पर्वतकुलं ………………. यज्जलद ! सैव तवोत्तमा श्रीः।।
भावार्थ – सूर्यस्य उष्णतया प्रतप्तम् गिरिणाम् समूहे विश्वासम् उत्पाद्य विश्वस्तं वा विधायः, उन्नत काष्ठ रहितानि वनानि च समाश्वास्य, अनेकाषां सरितां महानदानां शतानां च कलेवरान् पूर्ण विधाय हे वारिद् ! यत्त्वम् स्वकीयं सर्वं त्यक्त्वा जलहीनो जातोऽसि असावेव ते श्रेष्ठतमा शोभा तदैव ते महनीयता।

7. रे रे चातक ! सावधानमनसा ………………………………. मा ब्रूहि दीनं वचः।।
भावार्थ – हे सुहृद सारङ्ग! सावहितः सन् किञ्चित् कालम् आकर्णताम् यतः आकाशे अनेके वारिदाः सन्ति (विद्यन्ते) परञ्च निः शेषाः एव न वर्तन्ते एवं विधा। केचिद् तु धराम् वर्षायाः जलेन सिञ्चन्ति यावत् केचन तु व्यर्थमेव गर्जनां कुर्वन्ति अतः त्वं यं यं वारिदं ईक्षसे अमुष्य अमुष्य सम्मुखे याचनायाः करुणं वचनं न वद अर्थात् तं न याचस्व।

अधोलिखितानां सूक्तीनां भावबोधनं सरलसंस्कृतभाषया लिखत –
(निम्नलिखित सूक्तियों का भावबोधन सरल संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए-)

(i) एकेन राजहंसेन या शोभा सरसो भवेत् न सा बकसहस्रेण।
भावार्थः – यथा एकेन एव हंसेन सरोवरस्य सौन्दर्यं वर्धते न तु सहस्रः बकैः तथैव एकेन एव सज्जनेन पण्डितेन सभायाः शोभा वर्धते न च सहस्रः मूर्खः। (जैसे एक ही हंस से सरोवर का सौन्दर्य बढ़ जाता है न कि हजारों बगुलों से, इसी प्रकार एक ही सज्जन या विद्वान् से सभा की शोभा बढ़ जाती है न कि हजारों मूों से।)

(ii) एक एव खगो मानी वने वसति चातकः।
पिपासितो वा म्रियते याचते वा पुरन्दरम्।।
भावार्थ: – यथा स्वाभिमानी चातकः वने निवसन्नपि तृषया मृत्यु प्राप्नोति परञ्च स्वातिबिन्दुं विना अन्यं जलं न पिबति तथैव धीराः जनाः अपि मरणासन्ने अपि कस्माद् अपि न याचन्ते, ते परमात्मानम् एव याचन्ते। (जिस प्रकार स्वाभिमानी चातक वन में रहते हुए भी प्यास से मृत्यु को प्राप्त हो जाता है परन्तु स्वाति की बूँद के अतिरिक्त अन्य जल नहीं पीता, उसी प्रकार धीर पुरुष मरने की स्थिति में भी किसी से माँगते नहीं, वे परमात्मा से ही याचना करते हैं।)

(iii) यं यं पश्यसि तस्य तस्य पुरतो माहदानं वचः।
भावार्थ: – कविः चातकस्य व्याजेन मानवाय उपदिशति यत् संसार बहवः धनाढ्याः सन्ति परन्तु ते सर्वे उदारहदयं दातारः न भवन्ति.अत: यं यं पश्यसि त त मा याचे। (कवि बातक के बहाने मनुष्य को उपदेश देता है कि संसार में बहुत से धनवान् हैं परन्तु सभी उदार हृदय दाता नहीं हैं अतः जिस-जिस को देखो उसी-उसी से मत माँगो।)

अन्योक्तयः Summary and Translation in Hindi

पाठ-परिचय – अन्योक्ति का अर्थ है- अन्य (दूसरे) को लक्ष्य करके कही गई बात अर्थात् किसी की प्रशंसा अथवा निन्दा प्रत्यक्ष रूप से कहने की अपेक्षा किसी अन्य को माध्यम बनाकर कहना। कवियों की ऐसी अभिव्यक्ति को ही अन्योक्ति कहते हैं। ये उक्तियाँ (कथन) अत्यन्त मार्मिक होती हैं जो सीधे लक्ष्य का भेदन करती हैं। प्रस्तुत पाठ में ऐसी ही सात अन्योक्तियाँ विविध ग्रन्थों से संकलित की गई हैं जिनमें राजहंस, कोकिल, मेघ, मालाकार, सरोवर तथा चातकं के माध्यम से मानव को परोपकार आदि सवृत्तियों एवं सत्कर्मों में प्रवृत्त होने के लिए प्रेरित किया गया है। पाठ में संकलित अन्योक्तियों में छठी अन्योक्ति महाकवि माघ के ‘शिशुपालवध’ महाकाव्य से तथा सातवीं अन्योक्ति महाकवि भर्तहरि के ‘नीतिशतक’ से ली गई है तथा शेष पाँच पण्डितराज जगन्नाथ के ‘भामिनीविलास’ के अन्योक्ति भाग से संकलित हैं।

मूलपाठः,अन्वयः,शब्दार्थाः, सप्रसंग हिन्दी-अनुवादः।

1 एकेन राजहंसेन या शोभा सरसो भवेत्।
न सा बकसहस्रेण परितस्तीरवासिना।।1।।

अन्वयः – एकेन राजहंसेन सरसः या शोभा भवेत्। परितः तीरवासिना बकसहस्रेण सा (शोभा) न (भवति)।

शब्दार्थाः – एकेन राजहंसेन = एकेन मरालेन (एक हंस से), सरसः = तडागस्य, सरोवरस्य (तालाब की), या शोभा = या सौन्दर्यवृद्धिः, श्रीः (जो शोभा), भवेत् = स्यात् (होनी चाहिए), परितः = अभितः (चारों ओर), तीरवासिना = तटे स्थितैः उषितैः (किनारे पर वास करने वाले), बकसहस्त्रेण = सहस्त्रैः बकैः, बकानां सहस्रेण (हजारों बगुलों से), सा = असौ शोभा (वह शोभा) न भवति = (नहीं होती है)।।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह पद्य हमारी पाठ्यपुस्तक शेमुषी के ‘अन्योक्तयः’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह श्लोक पण्डितराज जगन्नाथ कृत ‘भामिनी विलास’ ग्रन्थ से संकलित है। इस श्लोक में कवि पण्डितराज जगन्नाथ सज्जन-दुर्जन का भेद वर्णन करते हैं।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – एक (ही) हंस से तालाब की जो शोभा होनी चाहिए, चारों ओर किनारे पर रहने वाले हजारों बगुलों से वह शोभा नहीं होती।

2. भुक्ता मृणालपटली भवता निपीता न्यम्बूनि यत्र नलिनानि निषेवितानि।
रे राजहंस ! वद तस्य सरोवरस्य, कृत्येन केन भवितासि कृतोपकारः।।2।।

अन्वयः – यत्र भवता मृणालपटली भुक्ता, अम्बूनि निपीतानि नलिनानि निषेवितानि। रे राजहंस ! तस्य सरोवरस्य केन कृत्येन कृतोपकारः भविता असि, वद।।

शब्दार्थाः – यत्र = यस्मिन् स्थाने (जहाँ), भवता = त्वया श्रीमता (आपके द्वारा), मृणालपटली = कमलनाल समूहः (कमलनालों का समूह), भुक्ता = खादिता (खाया गया, भोगा गया), अम्बूनि = जलानि (जल), निपीतानि = निःशेषेण पीतानि, सम्पूर्णरूपेण पीतानि, सम्यक् पीतानि (भलीभाँति पीया गया), नलिनानि = कमलानि (कमलों को), निषेवितानि = सेवितानि (सेवन किए गए), रे राजहंस! = रे मराल ! (अरे राजहंस!), तस्य = अमुष्य (उस), सरोवरस्य = तडागस्य, सरसः (सरोवर का, तालाब का), केन कृत्येन – केन कार्येण (किस कार्य से), कृतोपकारः = कृतः उपकारः येन सः सम्पादितोपकारः, हितकारकः (उपकार किया हुआ, प्रत्युपकार करने वाला), भविता असि = भविष्यति (होगा), वद = ब्रूहि, कथय (बोलो)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह पद्य हमारी पाठ्यपुस्तक शेमुषी के ‘अन्योक्तयः’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह श्लोक पण्डितराज जगन्नाथ विरचित ‘भामिनी विलास’ ग्रन्थ से संकलित है। इसमें कवि राजहंस के बहाने मनुष्य को प्रत्युपकार करने हेतु प्रेरित करता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – जहाँ आपके द्वारा कमलनालों का समूह खाया गया, जल भलीभाँति पिया गया, कमलों का सेवन किया गया। हे राजहंस! उस तालाब का किस कार्य से प्रत्युपकार करने वाले होंगे अर्थात् उसका प्रत्युपकार किस कार्य से करेंगे।

3. तोयैरल्यैरपि करुणया भीमभानौ निदाघे, मालाकार ! व्यरचि भवता या तरोरस्य पुष्टिः।
सा किं शक्या जनयितुमिह प्रावृषेण्येन वारां, धारासारानपि विकिरता विश्वतो वारिदेन।।3।।

अन्वयः – हे मालाकार! भीमभानौ निदाघे अल्पैः तोयैः अपि भवता करुणया अस्य तरोः या पुष्टिः व्यरचि। वारां प्रावृषेण्येन विश्वतः धारासारान् अपि विकिरता वारिदेन इह जनयितुम् सा (पुष्टि:) किं शक्या।।

शब्दार्थाः – हे मालाकार ! = हे उद्यानपाल, हे सक्कार ! (अरे माली!), भीमभानौ = भीमः भानुः यस्मिन् सः भीमभानुः, तस्मिन् अति तीक्ष्णांशुमति तपति (ग्रीष्मकाल में सूर्य के अत्यधिक तपने पर), निदाघे = ग्रीष्मकाले (ग्रीष्म काल में), अल्पैः तोयैः अपि = किञ्चित् जलेन अपि (थोड़े पानी से भी), भवता = त्वया (आपके द्वारा), करुणया = अनुकम्पया, दयया (करुणा द्वारा, करुणा के साथ, दया से), अस्य तरोः = एतस्य वृक्षस्य (इस वृक्ष की), या पुष्टिः = या पुष्टता, या वृद्धिः, यत्पोषणम् (जो पोषण), व्यरचि = कृता, कृतम्, रचना क्रियते (की जाती है, की गई), वाराम् = जलानां (जलों के), प्रावृषेण्येन = वर्षाकालिकेन (वर्षाकालिक, वर्षाकाल के), विश्वतः = सर्वतः (सभी ओर), धारासारान् अपि = धाराणाम् आसारा अपि (जलधाराओं के प्रवाहों को भी), विकिरता = जलं वर्षयता (जल बरसाते हुए), वारिदेन = जलदेन (बादल द्वारा), इह = अस्मिन् संसारे (इस संसार में), जनयितुम् = उत्पादयितुम् (उत्पन्न/पैदा करने के लिए), सा पुष्टिः = तत्पोषणम् (वह पुष्टि), किम् शक्या = अपि सम्भवा, सम्भवति (क्या सम्भव है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह पद्य हमारी शेमुषी पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘अन्योक्तयः’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पद्य पण्डितराज जगन्नाथ रचित ‘भामिनी विलास’ काव्य से संकलित है। इस पद्य में कवि माली के बहाने से एक अच्छे पालनकर्ता के लक्षण बताता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – अरे माली ! सूर्य के अत्यधिक तपने वाले ग्रीष्मकाल में थोड़े पानी से भी आपके द्वारा करुणा के साथ इस वृक्ष का जो पोषण किया गया है (किया जाता है) वर्षा-कालिक जल की सभी ओर से जलधाराओं के प्रवाह से भी जल बरसाते हुए बादल के द्वारा इस संसार में उस पोषण को पैदा करने में समर्थ है क्या ?

4. आपेदिरेऽम्बरपथं परितः पतङ्गाः, भृङ्गा रसालमुकुलानि समाश्रयन्ते।
सङ्कोचमञ्चति सरस्त्वयि दीनदीनो, मीनो नु हन्त कतमां गतिमभ्युपैतु।।4।।

अन्वयः – (सङ्कुचिते सरोवरे) पतङ्गाः परितः अम्बरपथम् आपेदिरे, भृङ्गाः रसालमुकुलानि समाश्रयन्ते। सरः त्वयि सङ्कोचम् अञ्चति, हन्त दीनदीन: मीनः नु कतमां गतिम् अभ्युपैतु।।

शब्दार्थाः – [सङ्कुचिते सरोवरे (सरोवर के सूख जाने पर)] पतङ्गाः = खगाः (पक्षी), परितः = सर्वतः, (सभी ओर), अम्बरपथम् = आकाशमार्गम् (आकाश मार्ग को), आपेदिरे = प्राप्तवन्तः, प्राप्नुवन्ति (प्राप्त कर लिए/लेते हैं), भृङ्गाः = भ्रमराः, द्विरेफाः (भौरे, भँवरे), रसालमुकुलानि = रसालानाम् आम्राणां मुकुलानि मञ्जरीम मञ्जाः मञ्जरीणाम् (आम की मञ्जरियों को/का), समाश्रयन्ते = शरणं प्राप्नुवन्ति (आश्रय लेते हैं), सरः = हे सरोवर ! हे तडाग ! (हे तालाब !), त्वयि = ते, तव भवति (तेरे), सङ्कोचम् अञ्चति = सङ्कचिते सति गच्छति (तुम्हारे संकुचित हो जाने पर, सूखकर जल कम हो जाने पर), हन्त = खेदः (खेद है), दीनदीनः = अतिदीनः (बेचारा), मीनः नुः = मत्स्यः , मत्स्यगणः (मछलियाँ), कतमां गतिम् = कां स्थितिं (किस गति को), अभ्युपैतु = प्राप्नोतु (प्राप्त करें)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह पद्य हमारी शेमुषी पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘अन्योक्तयः’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पद्य पण्डितराज जगन्नाथ कृत् ‘भामिनी विलास’ काव्य से संकलित है। इस पद्य में कवि तालाब के माध्यम से मानव को उसकी स्थिति से अवगत कराते हुये कहता है। जैसे तालाब के सूख जाने पर सभी जीव उसे अकेला छोड़कर चले जाते हैं। वैसे मनुष्य को भी स्वार्थ पूरा होने पर छोड़ जाते हैं।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – (सरोवर के सूख जाने पर) पक्षी चारों ओर आकाश मार्ग को प्राप्त कर लेते हैं अर्थात् आकाश में उड़ जाते हैं। भौरे आम की मञ्जरी का आश्रय ले लेते हैं (प्राप्त कर लेते हैं) हे तालाब ! तुम्हारे संकुचित हो जाने पर (सूख जाने पर) खेद है बेचारी मछलियाँ किस गति को प्राप्त करें (करेंगी)।

5. एक एव खगो मानी वने वसति चातकः।
पिपासितो वा म्रियते याचते वा पुरन्दरम्।।5।।

अन्वयः – एकः एव मानी खग: चातक: वने वसति वा पिपासितः म्रियते पुरन्दरं याचते।।

शब्दार्थाः — एक एव मानी = एक एव स्वाभिमानी (एक ही स्वाभिमानी), खगः = पक्षी, अण्डजः (पक्षी), चातकः = स्तोककः, सारङ्गः (पपीहा), वने = कानने (वन में), वसति = निवसति (रहता है), वा = अथवा (अथवा), पिपासितः = तृषितः (प्यासा), म्रियते = मरणं प्राप्नोति, मृत्युं लभते, मृत्युं वृणोति (मर जाता है), पुरन्दरम् = इन्द्रम् (इन्द्र से), याचते = याचनां करोति (माँगता है, याचना करता है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह पद्य हमारी शेमुषी पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘अन्योक्तयः’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पद्य पण्डितराज जगन्नाथ रचित ‘भामिनीविलास’ ग्रन्थ से लिया गया है। इस श्लोक में कवि चातक पक्षी के माध्यम से स्वाभिमान को कायम रखने के लिये कहता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – एक ही स्वाभिमानी पक्षी पपीहा वन में निवास करता है (वह) या तो प्यासा (ही) मर जाता है अथवा इन्द्र से याचना करता है (किसी अन्य से नहीं)।

6. आश्वास्य पर्वतकुलं तपनोष्णतप्तमुद्दामदावविधुराणि च काननानि।
नानानदीनदशतानि च पूरयित्वा, रिक्तोऽसि यज्जलद ! सैव तवोत्तमा श्रीः।।6।।

अन्वयः – तपनोष्णतप्तम् पर्वतकुलम् आश्वास्य उद्दामदावविधुराणि काननानि च (आश्वास्य) नानानदीनदशतानि पूरयित्वा च हे जलद ! यत् रिक्तः असि तव सा एव उत्तमा श्रीः।

शब्दार्थाः – तपनोष्णतप्तम् = सूर्यस्य उष्णतया प्रतप्तम् (सूर्य की गर्मी से तपे हुए), पर्वतकुलम् = गिरीणाम् समूहम् (पर्वतों के समूह को), आश्वास्य = विश्वासम् उत्पाद्य, समाश्वास्य सन्तोष्य (सन्तुष्ट/आश्वस्त करके), उद्दामदाववि धुराणि = उन्नतकाष्ठरहितानि (ऊँचे काष्ठों अर्थात् वृक्षों से रहित), काननानि च = बनानि च (और वनों को), [आश्वास्य = समाश्वास्य (आश्वस्त करके)], नानानदीनदशतानि = अनेकसरितः नदानां शतानि च (अनेक नदियों और सैकड़ों नदों को), पूरयित्वा च = पूर्णं कृत्वा च (और पूर्ण करके, भरकर), हे जलद ! – हे वारिद ! (हे मेघ !), यत् रिक्तः असि = यत्त्वम् जलहीनः जातोऽसि (जो तुम जलहीन हो गए हो), तव सा एव = तेऽअसावेव (तेरी वही), उत्तमा श्रीः = श्रेष्ठा/श्रेष्ठतमा शोभा (अस्ति), (उत्तम शोभा है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च- यह पद्य हमारी शेमुषी पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘अन्योक्तयः’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पद्य महाकवि माघकृत ‘शिशुपालवधम्’ महाकाव्य से संकलित है। इस श्लोक में कवि जलद (मेघ) के माध्यम से मानव को दान और परोपकार के लिये प्रेरित करता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – सूर्य की गर्मी से तपे हुए पर्वतों के समूह को सन्तुष्ट करके और ऊँचे काष्ठों अर्थात् वृक्षों से रहित वनों को आश्वस्त करके अनेक नदियों और सैकड़ों नदों को भरकर हे मेघ ! जो तुम जलहीन (खाली) हो गएं हो, वही तुम्हारी उत्तम शोभा है।

7. रे रे चातक ! सावधानमनसा मित्र क्षणं श्रूयता –
मम्भोदा बहवो हि सन्ति गगने सर्वेऽपि नैतादृशाः।
केचिद् वृष्टिभिरार्द्रयन्ति वसुधां गर्जन्ति केचिद् वृथा,
यं यं पश्यसि तस्य तस्य पुरतो मा ब्रूहि दीनं वचः।।7।।

अन्वयः – रे रे मित्र चातक ! सावधानमनसा क्षणं श्रूयताम, गगने हि बहवः अम्भोदाः सन्ति, सर्वेऽपि एतादृशाः न (सन्ति), केचित् वसुधां वृष्टिभिः आर्द्रयन्ति, केचित् वृथा गजेन्ति, (त्व म्) यं यं पश्यसि तस्य तस्य पुरतः दीनं वचः मा ब्रूहि।

शब्दार्थाः – रे मित्र चातक! = हे सुहृद् सारङ्ग ! (हैं मित्र पपीहे !), सावधानमनसा = सावहितः सन् (सावधान मन से), क्षणम् = क्षणमात्रम्, किञ्चित् कालम् (क्षणभर), श्रूयताम् = आकण्यताम् श्रुणुहि (सुनिए), गगने = आकाशे (आकाश में). हि = यतः (क्योंकि). बहवः = अनेके (बहत से). अभीदाः – वारिदाः (बादल हैं). सर्वेऽपि = निः शेषाः अपि (सभी), एतादृशाः = एवं विधाः (इस प्रकार के), न सन्ति = नहि वर्तन्ते (नहीं हैं), केचित् वसुधां = केचन् पृथिवी, धरातलं (धरती को), वृष्टिभिः = वर्षया जलेन (पानी बरसाकर), आद्रयन्ति – आद्रं कुर्वन्ति, सिञ्चन्ति, क्लेदयन्ति (गीला कर देते हैं), केचित् – केचन (कुछ), वृथा = व्यर्थमेव (व्यर्थ ही), गर्जन्ति = गर्जनं कुर्वन्ति (गरजते है), [त्वम् = तुम], यं यं पश्यसि = यं यम् ईक्षसे (जिस जिसको देखते हो), तस्य तस्य पुरुतः = अमुष्य अमुष्य सम्मुखे, समक्षे (उस उसके सामने), दीनं वचः = करुणवचनं (दीन वचन), मा. न (मत), ब्रूहि = वद (बोलो)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह पद्य हमारी शेमुषी पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘अन्योक्तयः’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह श्लोक कवि नीतिकार भर्तृहरि रचित नीति शतक से संकलित है। इस श्लोक में कवि नीतिकार मानव को चातक के माध्यम से उपदेश देता है जिस किसी के सामने हाथ मत फैलाओ क्योंकि सभी धार्मिक (बादल) दाता नहीं होते।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – हे मित्र पपीहे ! सावधान मन से (ध्यान से) क्षणभर सुनिए कि आकाश में बहुत से बादल हैं (परन्तु) सभी इस प्रकार के नहीं हैं। कुछ तो पानी बरसाकर धरती को गीला कर देते हैं (और) कुछ व्यर्थ ही गर्जते हैं। तुम जिस जिस को देखो उस उसके सामने दीन वचन मत बोलो अर्थात् याचना मत करो।

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Sanskrit Solutions व्याकरणम् समास: Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf.

JAC Board Class 10th Sanskrit व्याकरणम् समास:

समासशब्दस्य व्युत्पत्तिः – सम् उपसर्गपूर्वकात् असुँ (अस्) धातोः घनि प्रत्यये कृते ‘समासः’ इति शब्दो निष्पद्यते। अस्य अर्थः संक्षिप्तीकरणमिति अस्ति। (‘सम्’ उपसर्गपूर्वक ‘अस्’ धातु से ‘धजि’ प्रत्यय करने पर ‘समास’ शब्द निष्पन्न होता है। इसका अर्थ ‘संक्षिप्तीकरण’ है।)

समासस्य परिभाषा – समसनं समासः अथवा अनेकपदानाम् एकपदीभवनं समासः अर्थात् यदा अनेकपदानि मिलित्वा एकपदं जायन्ते तदा सः समासः इति कथ्यते। यथा – सीतायाः पति = सीतापतिः। अत्र सीतायाः पतिः इति पदद्वयं मिलित्वा एकपदं (सीतापतिः) जातम् अतः अयमेव समासः अस्ति। (संक्षिप्तीकरण समास है अथवा अनेक पदों का एक पद होना समास है। अर्थात् जब अनेक पद मिलकर एक पद निर्मित करते (बनाते) हैं, तब वह समास कहा जाता है। जैसे- सीतायाः पतिः (सीता का पति)= सीतापतिः। यहाँ “सीतायाः पतिः” ये दो पद मिलकर एक पद (सीतापतिः) बना। अत: यह ही समास है।)

समासे जाते अर्थे किमपि परिवर्तनं न भवति। योऽर्थः ‘सीतायाः पतिः’ इत्सस्य विग्रहवाक्यस्य अस्ति सः एव अर्थः ‘सीतापतिः’ इत्यस्य समस्तशब्दस्य अस्ति। (समास बनने पर अर्थ में कोई भी परिवर्तन नहीं होता है जो अर्थ ‘सीतायाः पतिः’ इस विग्रहवाक्य का है वह ही अर्थ ‘सीतापतिः’ इस समस्त शब्द का है।)

पूर्वोत्तरविभक्तिलोपः – सीतायाः पतिः = सीतापतिः। अस्मिन् विग्रहे सीतायाः इत्यत्र षष्ठीविभक्तिः, पतिः इत्यत्र प्रथमाविभक्तिश्च श्रूयेते। समासे कृते अनयोः द्वयोरपि विभक्तयोः लोपो भवति। तत्पश्चात् ‘सीतापति’ इति समस्तशब्दात् पुनरपि प्रथमाविभक्तिः क्रियते इत्येव सर्वत्र अवगन्तव्यम्। (सीतायाः पतिः = सीतापतिः। इस विग्रह में ‘सीतायाः’ इसमें षष्ठी विभक्ति है, ‘पतिः’ इसमें प्रथमाविभक्ति सुनाई देती है। समास करने पर इन दोनों विभक्तियों का लोप होता है। तत्पश्चात् ‘सीतापति’ इस समस्त शब्द से पुनः प्रथमा विभक्ति की जाती है जिसे सभी जगह अर्थात् सम्पूर्ण समस्त शब्द में जानना चाहिए।)

समासयुक्तः शब्दः समस्तपदं कथ्यते। यथा- ‘सीतापतिः’ इति समस्तपदम्। समस्तशब्दस्य अर्थं बोधयितुं यद् वाक्यम् उच्यते तद्वाक्यं विग्रहः इति कथ्यते। यथा सीतायाः पतिः इति वाक्यं विग्रहः अस्ति। (समासयुक्त शब्द समस्त पद कहा जाता है। जैसे ‘सीतापतिः’ यह समस्तपद है। समस्त शब्द का अर्थ जानने के लिए जो वाक्य बोला जाता है वह वाक्य ‘विग्रह’ कहा जाता है। जैसे- ‘सीतायाः पतिः’ यह वाक्य विग्रह है।)

समासस्यभेदाः – संस्कृतभाषायां समासस्य मुख्यरूपेण चत्वारः भेदाः सन्ति। समासे प्रायशः वे पदे भवतः- पूर्वपदम् उत्तरपदम् व। पदस्य अर्थः पदार्थः भवति। यस्य पदार्थस्य प्रधानता भवति तदनुरूपेण एव समासस्य संज्ञा अपि भवति। यथा प्रायेण पूर्वपदार्थप्रधानः अव्ययीभावः भवति। प्रायेण उत्तरपदार्थप्रधानः तत्पुरुषः भवति। तत्पुरुषस्य भेदः कर्मधारयः भवति। कर्मधारस्य भेद द्विगु भवति। प्रायेण अन्यपदार्थप्रधान बहुव्रीहिः भवति। प्रायेण उभयपदार्थप्रधानः द्वन्द्वः भवति। एवं समासस्य सामान्यरूपेण षड्भेदाः भवन्ति। (संस्कृतभाषा में समास के मुख्य रूप से चार भेद हैं। समास में प्राय: दो पद होते हैं पूर्वपद और उत्तरपद। पद का अर्थ पदार्थ होता है। जिस पदार्थ की प्रधानता होती है उसी के अनुसार ही समास की संज्ञा (नाम) भी होती है। जैसे प्रायः पूर्व पदार्थ प्रधान ‘अव्ययीभाव’ होता है। प्रायः उत्तर पदार्थ प्रधान ‘तत्पुरुष’ होता है। तत्पुरुष का भेद कर्मधारय होता है। कर्मधारय का भेद ‘द्विगु’ होता है। प्रायः अन्य पदार्थ प्रधान ‘बहुव्रीहि’ होता है। प्रायः उभयपदार्थ प्रधान ‘द्वन्द्व’ होता है। इस प्रकार सामान्य रूप से समास के छ: भेद होते हैं।)

1. अव्ययीभावसमासः

यदा विभक्ति, समीप-इत्यादिषु अर्थेषु वर्तमानम् अव्ययपदं सुबन्तेन सह नित्यं समस्यते तदा असौ अव्ययीभावसमासो भवति। अथवा इदमत्र अवगन्तव्यम्- (जब विभक्ति, समीप-इत्यादि अर्थों में वर्तमान अव्यय पद सुबन्त के साथ नित्य समास होता है तब यह अव्ययीभाव समास होता है। अथवा इसको इस प्रकार जानना चाहिए-)

1. अस्य समासस्य प्रथमशब्दः अव्ययं द्वितीयश्च संज्ञाशब्दो भवति। (इस समास का प्रथम शब्द अव्यय और द्वितीय संज्ञा शब्द होता है।)
2. अव्ययशब्दार्थस्य अर्थात् पूर्वपदार्थस्य प्रधानता भवति। (अव्यय शब्द के अर्थ की अर्थात् पूर्व पदार्थ की प्रधानता होती है।)
3. समासस्य पदद्वयं मिलित्वा अव्ययं भवति। (समास के दो पद मिलकर अव्यय होता है।)
4. अव्ययीभावसमासः नपुंसकलिङ्गस्य एकवचन भवति। यथा – (अव्ययीभाव समास नपुंसकलिङ्ग के एकवचन में होता है।)
ध्यातव्यम् – (अ) “यथा विभक्ति, समीप-इत्यादिषु” से तात्पर्य है –
1. विभक्ति
2. समीप
3. समृद्धि
4. समृद्धि का नाश
5. अभाव
6. नाश
7. अनुचित
8. शब्द की अभिव्यक्ति
9. पश्चात्
10. यथा
11. क्रमश:
12. एकदम
13. समानता
14. सम्पत्ति
15. सम्पूर्णता
16. अन्त तक।

इन सोलह में वर्तमान अव्यय का सुबन्त के साथ नित्य समास होता है।

(ब) नित्यसमास – प्रायः जिस समास का विग्रह न हो उसे ‘नित्यसमास’ कहते हैं। अथवा प्रायः जिसका अपने पदों से विग्रह नहीं होता अर्थात् जिन शब्दों का समास हुआ हो उन शब्दों के द्वारा जिसका विग्रह न हो, वह ‘नित्यसमास’ होता है।

अन्य उदाहरणानि –

अव्ययपदम् ‘उप’, अव्ययस्यार्थ = समीपम् (प्रथम पद में षष्ठी विभक्ति)

अव्ययपदम् ‘अनु’, अव्ययस्यार्थ = पश्चात्, योग्यम् (प्रथम पद में षष्ठी विभक्ति)

अव्ययपदम् ‘प्रति’, अव्ययस्यार्थ = वीप्सा अर्थे (उत्तर पद को दो बार, प्रथम पद में द्वितीया/सप्तमी विभक्ति)

अव्ययपदम् ‘निर्’, अव्ययस्यार्थ = अभावार्थे (प्रथम पद में षष्ठी विभक्ति)

अव्ययपदम् ‘यथा’, अव्ययस्यार्थ = अनतिक्रम्य

अव्ययपदम् ‘स’, अव्ययस्यार्थ = सहितम् (प्रथम पद में तृतीया विभक्ति)

2. कर्मधारयसमासः

यदा तत्पुरुषसमासस्य द्वयोः पदयोः एकविभक्तिः अर्थात् समानविभक्तिः भवति तदा सः समानाधिकरणः तत्पुरुषसमासः कथ्यते। अयमेव समासः कर्मधारयः इति नाम्ना ज्ञायते। अस्मिन् समासे साधारणतया पूर्वपदं विशेषणम् उत्तरपदञ्च विशेष्यं भवति। यथा- नीलम् कमलम् = नीलकमलम्।।

1. अस्मिन् उदाहरणे नीलम् कमलम् इति द्वयोः पदयोः समानविभक्तिः अर्थात् प्रथमा विभक्तिः अस्ति। 2. अत्र नीलम् इति पदं विशेषणम् कमलम् इति पदञ्च विशेष्यम्। अत एव अयं कर्मधारयः समासः अस्ति।

(कर्मधारय समास – जब तत्पुरुष समास के दोनों में एक विभक्ति अर्थात् समान विभक्ति होती है तब वह समानाधिकरण तत्पुरुष समास कहा जाता है। यही समास ‘कर्मधारय’ इस नाम से जाना जाता है। इस समास में साधारणतया पूर्व पद विशेषण और उत्तरपद विशेष्य होता है जैसे-नीलम् कमलम् नीलकमलम्।।

1. इस उदाहरण में “नीलम् कमलम्” इन दो पदों में समान विभक्ति है। अर्थात् प्रथमा विभक्ति है।
2. यहाँ ‘नीलम्’ यह पद विशेषण और ‘कमलम्’ यह पद विशेष्य है। इसलिए यह कर्मधारय समास है।) इसके उदाहरण निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. विशेषण – विशेष्य कर्मधारयः –

2. उपमानोपमेय कर्मधारयः –

3. उपमानोत्तरपद कर्मधारयः –

4. अवधारणपूर्वपद कर्मधारयः –

विशेषणं विशेष्येण समस्यते। अत्र अवधारणार्थं द्योतयितुं विग्रहवाक्ये विशेषणात् परम् ‘एव’ शब्दः प्रयुज्यते।
यथा –

अन्यानि उदाहराणि

3. द्विगु समासः –

1. ‘संख्यापूर्वो द्विगुः’ इति पाणिनीयसूत्रानुसारं यदा कर्मधारयसमासस्य पूर्वपदं संख्यावाची उत्तरपदञ्च संज्ञावाची भवति तदा सः ‘द्विगुसमासः’ कथ्यते।
2. अयं समासः प्रायः समूहार्थे भवति।
3. समस्तपदं सामान्यतया नपुंसकलिङ्गस्य एकवचने अथवा स्त्रीलिङ्गस्य एकवचने भवति।
4. अस्य विग्रहे षष्ठीविभक्तेः प्रयोगः क्रियते। यथा –

द्विगु समास – 1. “संख्यापूर्वो द्विगुः” इस पाणिनीय सूत्रानुसार जब कर्मधारय समास का पूर्वपद संख्यावाची और उत्तरपद संज्ञावाची होता है तब वह द्विगु समास कहा जाता है।
2. यह समास प्रायः समूह के अर्थ में होता है।
3. समस्त पद सामान्यतया नपुंसकलिङ्ग के एकवचन में अथवा स्त्रीलिङ्ग के एकवचन में होता है। 4. इसके विग्रह में षष्ठी विभक्ति का प्रयोग किया जाता है। जैसे –

कुत्रचित् द्विगुसमासः स्त्रीलिङ्गे अपि भवति यथा- (कहीं द्विगु समास स्त्रीलिंग भी होते हैं। जैसे-)

4. बहुव्रीहिसमासः

समासे यदा अन्यपदार्थस्य प्रधानता भवति तदा सः बहुव्रीहिसमासः कथ्यते। अर्थात् अस्मिन् समासे न तु पूर्वपदार्थस्य प्रधानता भवति न हि उत्तरपदार्थस्य प्रत्युतः द्वौ अपि पदार्थो मिलित्वा अन्यपदार्थस्य बोधं कारयतः। समस्तपदस्य प्रयोगः अन्यपदार्थस्य विशेषणरूपेण भवति। यथा – ‘पीतम्’ ‘अम्बर’ यस्य सः= पीताम्बरः (विष्णुः)।
अत्र पीतम् तथा च अम्बरम् इत्यनयोः पदयोः अर्थस्य प्रधानता नास्ति अर्थात् ‘पीला वस्त्र’ इत्यर्थस्य ग्रहणं न भवति प्रत्युत उभौ पदार्थों तु मिलित्वा अन्यपदार्थस्य अर्थात् ‘विष्णुः’ इत्यस्य बोधं कारयतः अर्थात् पीताम्बरः इति समस्तपदस्यार्थः “विष्णुः’ अस्ति अत एव अत्र बहुव्रीहिसमासः अस्ति।
अस्य अन्यानि उदाहरणानि अधोलिखितानि सन्ति। यथा –

(बहुव्रीहिसमास – समास. में जब अन्य पदार्थ की प्रधानता होती है तब वह बहुव्रीहि समास कहा जाता है। अर्थात् इस समास में न तो पूर्व पदार्थ की प्रधानता होती है न ही उत्तर पदार्थ की बल्कि दोनों ही पदार्थ मिलकर अन्य पदार्थ का बोध कराते हैं। समस्त पद का प्रयोग अन्य पदार्थ के विशेषण रूप से होता है। जैसे- ‘पीतम्’ ‘अम्बर’ यस्य सः = पीताम्बरः (विष्णुः)।

यहाँ पर ‘पीतम्’ और वैसे ही ‘अम्बर’ इन पदों के अर्थ की प्रधानता नहीं है अर्थात् ‘पीला वस्त्र’ इस अर्थ का ग्रहण नहीं होता है अपितु दोनों पदार्थ मिलकर अन्य पदार्थ का अर्थात् ‘विष्णुः’ इसका बोध कराते हैं अर्थात् ‘पीताम्बरः’ इस समस्तपद का अर्थ ‘विष्णुः’ है अतः यहाँ बहुव्रीहि समास है।

इसके अन्य उदाहरण निम्नलिखित हैं। जैसे-)

समानाधिकरण-बहुव्रीहिः- यदा समासस्य पूर्वोत्तरपदयोः समानविभक्तिः (प्रथमा विभक्तिः) भवति तदा सः समानाधिकरणबहुव्रीहिः भवति। यथा- (जब समास के पूर्व पद और उत्तरपद में समान विभक्ति (प्रथमा विभक्ति) होती है तब वह समानाधिकरण बहुव्रीहि होता है। जैसे-)

व्यधिकरण-बहुव्रीहिः – यदा समासस्य पूर्वोत्तरपदयोः भिन्न-विभक्तिः भवति तदा सः व्यधिकरणबहुव्रीहिः भवति। यथा-(जब समास के पूर्व पद और उत्तर पद में अलग-अलग विभक्ति होती है तब वह ‘व्यधिकरण बहुव्रीहि’ समास होता है। जैसे-)

तुल्ययोगे बहुव्रीहिः – अत्र सह शब्दस्य तृतीयान्तपदेन सह समासो भवति। यथा –
(तुल्ययोगे बहुव्रीहि- यहाँ ‘सह’ शब्द का तृतीया विभक्ति पद के साथ समास होता है। जैसे-)

1. पुत्रेण सहितः (पुत्र के सहित) = संपुत्रः
2. बान्धवैः सहितः (बन्धुओं के सहित) = सबान्धवः
3. विनयेन सह विद्यानम् (विनय के साथ विद्या को) = सविनयम्
4. आदरेण सह विद्यमानम् (आदर के साथ विद्यमान) = सादरम्
5. पत्या सह वर्तमानः (पत्नी के साथ वर्तमान) = सपत्नीक (वसिष्ठः)

उपमानवाचकबहुव्रीहिः

1. चन्द्रः इव मुखं यस्या सा (चन्द्रमा के समान मुख है जिसका वह (स्त्री)) = चन्द्रमुखी
2. पाषाणवत् हृदयं यस्य सः (पाषाण के समान है हृदय जिसका वह) = पाषाणहृदयः

5. द्वन्द्वसमासः

द्वन्द्वसमासे परस्परं साकांक्षयोः पदयोः मध्ये ‘च’ आगच्छति, अतएव द्वन्द्वसमासः उभयपदार्थप्रधानः भवति। यथा-धर्म: च अर्थ: च-धर्मार्थो। अत्र पूर्वपदं ‘धर्मः’ उत्तरपदम् च ‘अर्थः’, अनयोः द्वयोः अपि प्रधानता अस्ति। द्वन्द्वसमासे समस्तपदं प्रायशः द्विवचने बहुवचने वा भवति। यथा –

(द्वन्द्व समासः – द्वन्द्व समास में परस्पर साभिप्राय पदों के मध्य के ‘च’ आता है; इसलिए द्वन्द्व समास उभयपदार्थ प्रधान होता है। जैसे – “धर्मः च अर्थ: च – धर्मार्थो। यहाँ पूर्व पद ‘धर्म’ और उत्तरपद ‘अर्थ:’ इन दोनों (पदों) की ही प्रधानता है। द्वन्द्व समास में समस्तपद प्रायः द्विवचन अथवा बहुवचन में होता है। जैसे-)

समाहार (समूहः) इत्यस्य अर्थे द्वन्द्वसमासस्य प्रायेण नपुंसकलिङ्ग एकवचनें प्रयोगः भवति। यथा (समाहार (समूह) के अर्थ में द्वन्द्व समास का प्रायः नपुंसकलिङ्ग में प्रयोग होता है। जैसे-)

अन्यानि उदाहरणानि

अभ्यासः

प्रश्न 1.
अधोलिखित प्रश्नानाम् उचित विकल्पं चित्वा लिखत –
1. अव्ययीभावसमासस्य उदाहरणम् अस्ति –
(अ) पीताम्बरः
(ब) नीलकमलम्
(स) यथाशक्ति
(द) त्रिलोकी
उत्तरम् :
(स) यथाशक्ति

2. अव्ययीभाव-समासस्य उदाहरणम् अस्ति –
(अ) महापुरुषः
(ब) चतुर्युगम्
(स) उपकृष्णम्
(द) प्राप्तोदकः
उत्तरम् :
(स) उपकृष्णम्

3. कर्मधारयसमासस्य उदाहरणम् अस्ति –
(अ) पीताम्बरम्
(ब) पीताम्बरः
(स) निर्मक्षिकम्
(द) पञ्चपात्रम्
उत्तरम् :
(अ) पीताम्बरम्

4. द्वन्द्वसमासस्य उदाहरणम् अस्ति –
(अ) दशाननः
(ब) दशपात्रम्
(स) वाक्त्वचम्
(द) महापुरुषः
उत्तरम् :
(स) वाक्त्वचम्

5. ‘सोद्वेगम्’ इति पदस्य विग्रहः स्यात् –
(अ) उद्वेगेन सहितम्
(ब) उद्वेगात् सहितम्
(स) उद्वेगस्य सहित
(द) उद्वेगेन सविधम्
उत्तरम् :
(अ) उद्वेगेन सहितम्

6. ‘दुभिक्षम्’ इति पदस्य विग्रहः अस्ति –
(अ) कष्टेन भिक्षा
(ब) भिक्षायाः अभावः
(स) भिक्षायाः व्यर्द्धिः
(द) न भिक्षा
उत्तरम् :
(ब) भिक्षायाः अभावः

7. ‘सचेष्टम्’ इति पदस्य विग्रहोऽस्ति –
(अ) सद् चेष्टा
(ब) चेष्टया सहितम्
(स) चेष्टायाः समृद्धि
(द) चेष्टोपेतः
उत्तरम् :
(ब) चेष्टया सहितम्

8. ‘प्रत्यक्षम्’ इति पदस्य विग्रहोऽस्ति –
(अ) अक्षम् प्रति
(ब) अक्षम् अक्षम्
(स) अक्षस्य प्रति
(द) अक्षस्य सम्मुखे
उत्तरम् :
(अ) अक्षम् प्रति

9. ‘सहर्षम्’ इति पदस्य विग्रहोऽस्ति –
(अ) हर्षेण सहितम्
(ब) हर्षेण युगपतु
(स) हर्षम् सह
(द) हर्षस्य सहितम्।
उत्तरम् :
(अ) हर्षेण सहितम्

10. ‘रसेन सहितम्’ इति समासविग्रहस्य समस्तपद अस्ति –
(अ) सरसम्
(ब) सहरसम्
(स) सरोसम्
(द) सरस
उत्तरम् :
(अ) सरसम्

11. ‘रथस्य समीपम्’ इति समासविग्रहस्य समस्तपद अस्ति –
(अ) सरथम्
(ब) उपरथम्
(स) रथरयम्
(द) रथोपरि
उत्तरम् :
(ब) उपरथम्

12. “त्रिंशतस्य समीपम्’ इति समासविग्रहस्य समस्तपद अस्ति –
(अ) उपत्रिंशतम्
(ब) सत्रिंशतम्
(स) त्रिंशतम्
(द) अनुत्रिंशतम्
उत्तरम् :
(अ) उपत्रिंशतम्

13. ‘भरणस्य व्यद्धिः’ इति समासविग्रहस्य समस्तपद अस्ति –
(अ) दुर्भरम्
(ब) निर्भरम्
(स) आत्मनिर्भरम्
(द) समनिर्भरम्
उत्तरम् :
(अ) दुर्भरम्

14. ‘दिनं दिनम्’ इति समासविग्रहस्य समस्तपद अस्ति –
(अ) अनुदिनम्
(ब) सुदिनम्
(स) प्रतिदिनम्
(द) दिनंदिनम्
उत्तरम् :
(अ) अनुदिनम्

प्रश्न 2.
प्रदत्तेषु उत्तरेषु यद् उत्तरं शुद्धम् अस्ति, तत् चीयताम् (दिये गये उत्तरों में से जो उत्तर शुद्ध है, उसे चुनिए)।
1. (i) यथासमयं कार्यं कुरु। (समय पर कार्य करो)
(अ) समयेन अनतिक्रम्य
(ब) समयः अनतिक्रम्य
(स) समयम् अनतिक्रम्य
उत्तरम् :
(स) समयम् अनतिक्रम्य।

(ii) सीतारामौ वनम् अगच्छताम्। (सीता और राम वन को गए।)
(अ) सीता च रामः च
(ब) सीते च रामौ च
(स) सीता च रामश्च च
उत्तरम् :
(अ) सीता च रामः च।

(iii) मुनयः कन्दं च मूलं च फलं च खादन्ति। (मुनि कन्द, मूल और फल खाते हैं।)
(अ) कन्दमूलफलानि
(ब) कन्दमूलफलाः
(स) कन्दमूलफलः
उत्तरम् :
(अ) कन्दमूलफलानि।

(iv) स चन्द्रमुखी अस्ति। (वह चन्द्रमुखी है।)
(अ) चन्द्र इव मुखं यस्य सः
(ब) चन्द्र इव मुखं यस्याः सा
(स) चन्द्र इव मुखम्
उत्तरम् :
(ब) चन्द्र इव मुखं यस्याः सा।

2. (i) अतिथे: पाणिपादम् प्रक्षालयति। (अतिथि के हाथ-पैर धोता है।)
(अ) पाणि च पादः च
(ब) पाणिम् च पादम् च
(स) पाणी च पादौ च
उत्तरम् :
(अ) पाणी च पादौ च।

(ii) स प्रतिवर्षम् गङ्गास्नानाय गच्छति। (वह प्रतिवर्ष गंगा-स्नान के लिए जाता है।)
(अ) वर्ष-वर्षम्
(ब) वर्ष:-वर्षः
(स) वर्षे-वर्षे
उत्तरम् :
(अ) वर्ष-वर्षम्।

(ii) सर्वदा असि त्वम्। (सब कुछ देने वाली हो तुम।)
(अ) सर्वं ददाति इति
(ब) सर्व ददाति या सा
(स) सर्वं ददति या सा
उत्तरम् :
(स) सर्वं ददाति या सा।

(iv) उपग्रामं विद्यालयः स्थितः। (गाँव के पास विद्यालय स्थित है।)
(अ) ग्रामस्य समीपम्
(ब) ग्रामं प्रति
(स) ग्रामस्य पश्चात्।
उत्तरम् :
(अ) ग्रामस्य समीपम्।

3. (i) मधुरदुग्धं कस्मै न रोचते ? (मीठा दूध किसको अच्छा नहीं लगता?)
(अ) मधुरं दुग्धं यस्मिन तत्
(ब) मधुरं दुग्धम्
(स) मधुरः दुग्धः
उत्तरम् :
(ब) मधुरं दुग्धम्।

(ii) पितरौ पुत्रस्य उन्नतिं दृष्ट्वा प्रसीदतः। (माता-पिता पुत्र की उन्नति को देखकर प्रसन्न होते हैं।)
(अ) माता च पिता च
(ब) मातरौ च पितरौ च
(स) मातृ च पितृ च
उत्तरम् :
(अ) माता च पिता च।

(iii) पीतम् अम्बरं धारयति। (पीला वस्त्र धारण करता है।)
(अ) पीतम्बरम्
(ब) पीतमाम्बरम्
(स) पीताम्बरम्।
उत्तरम् :
(स) पीताम्बरम्।

(iv) तत्रैका रम्या वाटिका विद्यते। (वहाँ एक रम्य वाटिका है।)
(अ) रम्यावाटिका
(ब) रम्यवाटिका
(स) रम्यं वाटिका
उत्तरम् :
(ब) रम्यवाटिका।

प्रश्न 3.
प्रकोष्ठात् उचितं विकल्पं चित्वा रिक्त स्थानं पूरयत –
1. सैनिका नृपस्य रथस्य पश्चात् ………………….. धावति। (अनुरथम्/प्रतिरथम्)
2. सः नगरस्य समीपे …………………… निवसति। (सनगरम्/उपनगरम्)
3. बालकाय सचित्रम् ……. पुस्तकं रोचते। (चित्रेण सहितम्/चित्रस्य सहितम्)
4. पुण्यः क्षणं क्षणं ……. क्षयति। (प्रतिक्षणम्/अनुक्षणम्)
5. योग्यताम् अनतिक्रम्य …………. कार्यं दीयताम्। (अनुयोग्यताम्/यथायोग्यम्)
उत्तरम् :
1. अनुरथम्
2. उपनगरम्
3. चित्रेण सहितम्
4. प्रतिक्षणम्
5. यथायोग्यम्।

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखितपदानां समासविग्रहः कर्तव्यः –
1. घनश्यामः – ………………
2. प्रतिदिनम् – …………………
3. छत्रोपानहम् – ………………….
4. विद्याधनम् – …………………..
5. अधिहरि –
उत्तरम् :
1. घन इव श्यामः
2. दिनं दिनं प्रति
3. छत्रं च उपाहनम् च
4. विद्या एव धनम्
5. हरौ इति

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखितपदानां समासविग्रहं कृत्वा समासस्य नामापि लेखनीयम् –

उत्तरम् :
1. सुन्दरः बालकः इति (कर्मधारयसमासः)
2. चतुर्णा युगानां समाहारः सा (द्विगुसमासः)
3. पुरुषः व्याघ्रः इव (कर्मधारयसमासः)
4. रूपस्य योग्यम् (अव्ययीभावसमासः)
5. घन इव श्यामः इति (कर्मधारयसमास:)
6. शिरः च ग्रीवा च (द्वन्द्वसमासः)

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित विग्रह वाक्यानां समासः करणीय –
1. श्वेतं वस्त्रम्
2. मुखं कमलम् इव
3. रूपस्य योग्यम्
4. उन्नतः वृक्षः
उत्तरम् :
1. श्वेतवस्त्रम्
2. कमलमुखम्
3. अनुरूपम्
4. उन्नतवृक्षः

प्रश्न 7.
‘क’- खण्ड ‘ख’- खण्डेन सह योजयत।
क खण्डः – ख खण्डः
1. अव्ययीभावसमासः – उपवनम्
2. द्वन्द्वसमासः – कुसुमकोमलम्
3. कर्मधारयसमासः – हरिहरौ।
उत्तरम् :
क खण्ड – ख खण्ड
1. अव्ययीभावसमासः – उपवनम्
2. द्वन्द्वसमासः – हरिहरौ
3. कर्मधारयसमासः – कुसुमकोमलम्

प्रश्न 8.
अधोलिखित वाक्येषु रेखांकित समस्तपदानां विग्रहं अथवा विग्रह पदानां समासं कृत्वा समासस्य नामपि लिखत –
(i) नीलकमलं विना सर: न शोभते।
(ii) सः प्रतिदिनं देवालयं गच्छति।
(ii) पत्रं च पुष्पं च समर्पयामि।
उत्तरम् :
(i) नील कमलं – नीलं च तत् कमलम् (नीला है जो कमल) (कर्मधारय)
(ii) प्रतिदिनं – दिनं दिनम (दिन-दिन) (अव्ययीभाव)
(iii) पत्रं च पुष्पं च – पत्रपुष्पौ (पत्र-पुष्प) (द्वन्द्व)।

प्रश्न 9.
अधोलिखित वाक्येषु रेखांकित समस्तपदानां विग्रहं अथवा विग्रह पदानां समासं कृत्वा समासस्य नामपि लिखत –
(i) श्रमिकः यथाशक्ति कार्य करोति।
(ii) उद्याने कृष्णसर्प निवसति।
(iii) अत्र शिवः केशवश्च स्तः।
उत्तरम् :
(i) यथाशक्ति – शक्तिम् अनतिक्रम्य (शक्ति के अनुसार) (अव्ययीभाव)
(ii) कृष्णसर्पः – कृष्णः च असौ सर्पः (काला है जो सर्प) (कर्मधारय)
(iii) शिवः केशवश्च – शिवकेशवौ (शिव और केशव) (द्वन्द्व समास)।

प्रश्न 10.
अधोलिखित वाक्येषु रेखांकित समस्तपदानां विग्रहं अथवा विग्रह पदानां समासं कृत्वा समासस्य नामपि लिखत –
(i) मम पुत्रस्य नाम घनश्यामः अस्ति।
(ii) अहं पार्वती च परमेश्वरं वन्दे।
(iii) इदं स्थानं निर्जलम् अस्ति।।
उत्तरम् :
(i) घनश्यामः – घन इव श्यामः (बादल के समान काला) (कर्मधारय)
(ii). पार्वती च परमेश्वरं च – पार्वतीपरमेश्वरौ (पार्वती और शिव) (द्वन्द्व समास)
(iii) निर्जलम् – जलस्य अभाव: (जल का अभाव) (अव्ययीभाव समास)।

प्रश्न 11.
अधोलिखितवाक्येषु स्थूलांकित समस्त पदानां विग्रहम् अथवा विग्रहपदानां समासं कृत्वा समासस्य नामापि लिखत।
1. (i) महानगरमध्ये चलदनिशं कालायसचक्रम्। (महानगर के मध्य दिनरात लौहचक्र चलता है।)
उत्तरम :
महत् च तत् नगरम् (महान् नगर)। कर्मधारय

(ii) दुर्दान्तैर्दशनैरमुना स्थान्नैव जनग्रसनम्। (विकरालै दाँतों द्वारा इससे लोगों का ग्रास न हो।)
उत्तरम् :
दुर्दान्तदशनैः (विकराल दाँत)। कर्मधारय

(iii) कज्जलमलिनं धूमं मुञ्चति। (काजल के समान मैली धुआँ छोड़ती है।)
उत्तरम् :
कज्जलम् इव मलिनम् (काजल की तरह मैली)। कर्मधारय

2. (i) यानानां हि अनन्ताः पंक्तयः। (यानों की अनन्त पंक्तियाँ हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
अनन्तपङ्क्तयः (अनन्त पंक्तियाँ) कर्मधारय

(ii) कुत्सितवस्तु मिश्रितं भक्ष्यम् (भोजन खराब वस्तु-मिश्रित है।)
उत्तरम् :
कुवस्तु (बुरी वस्तु)। कर्मधारय

(iii) समलंधरातलम् (मैला धरातल)।
उत्तरम् :
मलेन सहितम् (मैल सहित)। अव्ययीभाव

3. (i) न हि निर्मलं जलम् (शुद्ध जल नहीं है।)
उत्तरम् :
निर्मलजलम् (शुद्ध जल)। कर्मधारय

(ii) एकान्ते कान्तारे क्षणमपि मे स्यात् सञ्चरणम। (एकान पन में क्षणभर मेरा चलना हो।)
उत्तरम् :
एकान्तकान्तारे (एकान्त वन में)। कर्मधारय

(iii) हरिततरूणां ललितलतानां माला रमणीया। (हरे वृक्षों और सुन्दर लताओं की माला रमणीय है।)
उत्तरम् :
हरितः च असौ तरुः तेषां च। कर्मधारय

4. (i) नवमालिका रसालं मिलिता (नई माल्लिका आम से मिली।)
उत्तरम् :
नवा मालिका (नई माला)। कर्मधारय

(ii) जीवनमरणं नो कामये। (जीना मरना नहीं चाहता)
उत्तरम् :
जीवनम् च मरणम् च। द्वन्द्व

(iii) ततस्तया वृद्धदासी साभिप्रायमवलोकिता। (तब उसने बुढ़िया दासी को सप्रयोजन देखा।)
उत्तरम् :
वृद्धा दासी (बूढ़ी नौकरानी)। कर्मधारय

5. (i) कृष्णाङ्गारान अपि तदर्थिभ्यः प्रेषितवती।
(कोयलों को भी उनके चाहने वालों को भेज दिया।)
उत्तरम् :
कृष्णान् अङ्गाराम् (काले अंगारे)। कर्मधारय

(ii) घृतेनसहितं भोजनं च तस्मै दत्तवती। (घी सहित भोजन उसे दिया।)
उत्तरम् :
सघृतम् (घृत सहित)। अव्ययीभाव

(iii) सव्यवधानं न चारित्रलोपाय।
(रुकावट सहित चरित्र को लोप नहीं करता।)
उत्तरम् :
व्यवधानेन सहितम् (रुकावट सहित)। अव्ययीभाव

6. (i) सूर्यचन्द्रयोः को वा भवतोवरास्य कर्ता ?
(सूर्यचन्द्र में कौनसा आपके वंश का कर्ता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
सूर्यस्य च चन्द्रस्य च/सूर्यः च चन्द्रः च तयोः च। (सूर्य और चन्द्र) द्वन्द्वसमास

(ii) एवम् अधिक्षिपतिनिरनुक्रोशस्य पुत्रौ। (इस प्रकार से फटकारती है- ‘निर्दयी के पुत्रो !)
उत्तरम् :
पुत्रः च पुत्रः च। द्वन्द्व
(i) श्रमक्लम पिपासोष्ण – शीतादीनां सहिष्णुता।
(श्रम की थकावट, प्यास गर्मी शीत आदि की सहनशीलता)
उत्तरम् :
पिपासा च उष्णं च (प्यास और गर्मी) द्वन्द्व

7. (i) वयोरूपगुणैः हीनमपि कुर्यात्सुदर्शनम्।
(आयु रूप गुणों से हीन को भी सुन्दर बनाता है।)
उत्तरम् :
वयः च रूपं च गुणः च तैः च (आयु और रूप और गुणों से) द्वन्द्व

(ii) स च शीते वसन्ते च तेषां पथ्यतमः स्मृतः। द्वन्द्व
(और वह शीत और वसन्त में उनका सबसे अधिक हितकर कहलाता है।)
उत्तरम् :
शीतिवसन्तयोः (सर्दी और वसन्त में) द्वन्द्व

(iii) सर्वेष्वृतुष्वहरहः (सभी ऋतुओं में दिन पर दिन)
उत्तरम् :
अहन् च अहन च। (दिन और दिन) द्वन्द्व

8. (i) सर्वेष्वृतुष्वहरहः (सभी ऋतुओं में)
उत्तरम् :
सर्वऋतुषु। सर्वर्तुषु। (सभी ऋतुओं में) कर्मधारय

(ii) वयोवलशरीराणि देशकालाशनानि च। (आयु-बल-शरीर-देश-काल और भोजन)
उत्तरम् :
देशः च काल: च अशनम् च। (देश और समय और भोजन) द्वन्द्व

(iii) मार्गे गहनकानने सा एकं व्याघ्रं ददर्श। (मार्ग में गहन वन में उसने एक बाघ देखा।)
उत्तरम् :
गहने कानने (गहन वन में) कर्मधारय

9. (i) निजगले बदध्वा चल सत्वरम। (अपने गले में बाँधकर शीघ्र चल)
उत्तरम् :
त्वरेण सहितम् (जल्दी के साथ) अव्ययीभाव

(ii) शृगालेन सहितं पुनरायान्तं ….. (सियार सहित फिर आते हुए को….)
उत्तरम् :
सशृगालम् (सियार सहित) अव्ययीभाव

(ii) बुद्धिर्बलवती तन्वि सर्वकार्येषु सर्वदा। (हे तन्वि ! सभी कार्यों में सदैव बुद्धि बलवती होती है।)
उत्तरम् :
सर्वेषु कार्येषु (सभी कार्यों में) कर्मधारय

10. (i) हयाश्च नागाश्च वहन्ति बोधिता। (घोड़े और हाथी बताने पर वहन करते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
हयनागाः (घोड़े और हाथी) द्वन्द्व

(ii) अनुक्तमप्यूहति पंडितोजनः। (विद्वान् बिना कहे समझ लेते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
पण्डितजनः (विद्वान् लोग) कर्मधारय

(iii) यथास्थितः काष्ठगतो हि वह्निः। (जिस प्रकार से काठ में स्थित अग्नि।)
उत्तरम् :
स्थितिम् अनतिक्रम्य। (जिस प्रकार से स्थित) अव्ययीभाव

11. (i) सेवितव्यो महावृक्षः (महावृक्ष की सेवा करनी चाहिए।)
उत्तरम् :
महान् च असौ वृक्षः। (महान् है जो वृक्ष) कर्मधारय

(ii) सम्पत्तौ च विपत्तौ च महतामेकरूपता। (सुख और आपत्ति में महापुरुष समान होते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
सम्पत्तिविपत्तिषु। (संपत्ति और विपत्ति में)। द्वन्द्व

(iii) धरायाः महत्कम्पनं जातम्। (धरती का महान् कम्पन हो गया।)
उत्तरम् :
महाकम्पनम् (अत्यधिक कम्पन) कर्मधारय

12. (i) बृहत्यः पाषाण शिलाः (बड़ी पत्थर की शिला)
उत्तरम् :
बृहत्पाषाणशिलाः। (बड़ी पत्थर की शिला)। कर्मधारय

(ii) राजानं यथेष्टमभ्यनन्दत् (राजा को इच्छानुसार अभिनन्दन किया।)
उत्तरम् :
इष्टम् अनतिक्रम्य (इच्छानुसार) अव्ययीभाव

(iii) तस्य तारस्वरेण प्रबुद्धाः ग्रामवासिनः। (उसके उच्च स्वर से ग्रामीण जाग गये।)
उत्तरम् :
तारेण स्वरेण (जोर की आवाज से) कर्मधारय

13. (i) हयाश्च नागाश्च वहन्ति बोधिताः (शिक्षित घोड़े और हाथी ढोते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
हयनागाः (घोड़े और हाथियों) द्वन्द्व समास

14. (i) सः चक्रेण सह गच्छति। (वह चक्र के साथ जाता है।)
उत्तरम् :
सचक्रम् (चक्र के साथ) द्वन्द्व समास

प्रश्न 12.
स्थूलपदेषु समासम् अथवा विग्रहम् कृत्वा उत्तरपुस्तिकायाम् लिखत –
(स्थूलपदों में समास अथवा समास विग्रह करके उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखिए।)

1. (i) मधुरवचनम् एव वदेत्। (मधुर वचन ही बोलना चाहिए।)
उत्तरम् :
मधुरम् च तत्
वचनम्। (मधुर है जो वचन।)

(ii) महावीरः सदैव कीर्तिं लभते। (महावीर सदैव कीर्ति को प्राप्त करता है।)
उत्तरम् :
महान् च असौ वीरः। महान् वीरः (महान वीर।)

(ii) सूपकारः भोजनं पचति। (रसोइया भोजन पकाता है।)
उत्तरम् :
सूपं करोति इति। (सूप/दाल बनाता है।)

(iv) रामः मृगस्य पश्चात् धावति। (राम मृग के पीछे दौड़ता है।)
उत्तरम् :
अनुमृगम् (मृग के पीछे।)

2. (i) विद्यालयस्य वार्षिक: महोत्सवः अस्ति। (विद्यालय का वार्षिक महोत्सव है।)
उत्तरम् :
महान् उत्सवः (महान् च असौ उत्सवः च।)

(ii) यथेष्टं भोजनं कुरु। (इच्छित भोजन कर।)
उत्तरम् :
इष्टम् अनतिक्रम्य (इच्छा का अतिक्रमण न करके।)

(iii) सः उन्नतवृक्षम् आरोहति। (वह ऊँचे वृक्ष पर चढ़ता है।)
उत्तरम् :
उन्नतं वृक्षम् (ऊँचा पेड़।)

(iv) कृष्णमेघः वर्षति। (काला बादल बरसता है।)
उत्तरम् :
कृष्णम् मेघम् (काला मेघ।)।

3. (i) छात्रौ किं पठतः ? (दो छात्र क्या पढ़ते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
छात्रः च छात्रः च (छात्र और छात्र)।

(i) महापुरुषः येन गतः स पन्थः। (महापुरुष जिससे गया, वही उचित मार्ग है।)
उत्तरम् :
महान् पुरुषः (महान् च असौ पुरुषः।)।

(iii) राधा चतुरा बाला अस्ति। (राधा चतुर बालिका है।)
उत्तरम् :
चतुरबाला (चतुर नारी/बालिका)।

(iv) मधुरवचनं विना भाषणं व्यर्थम् एव अस्ति। (मधुरवचन के बिना भाषण बेकार ही है।)
उत्तरम् :
मधुरम् वचनम् (मीठे वचन)।

4. (i) सा विधिम् अनतिक्रम्य गणितं शिक्षते। (वह विधि का त्याग किए बिना गणित पढ़ाती है।)
उत्तरम् :
यथाविधि (विधि से)।

(i) काकः कृष्णः पिकः कृष्णः को भेदः पिककाकयोः ?
(कौआ काला कोयल काली, कोयलं और कौए में क्या भेद ?)
उत्तरम् :
पिकः च काकः च तयोः। (कोयल और कौआ उनमें)।

(iii) सरोवरे नीलानि कमलानि शोभन्ते। (सरोवर में नीले कमल शोभा देते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
नील कमलानि। (नीले कमल।)

(iv) राजा अपि नीलोत्पलम् इव चक्षुः उत्पाट्य याचकाय समर्पितवान्।
(राजा ने भी नीलकमल की तरह नेत्र को उखाड़ कर याचक के लिए समर्पित कर दिया।)
उत्तरम् :
नीलम् उत्पलम् इव। (नीले कमल के समान)।

5. (i) सः अपि तत् नेत्रं यथास्थानम् अस्थापयत्।
(उसने भी उस नेत्र को यथास्थान स्थापित कर दिया।)
उत्तरम् :
स्थानम् अनतिक्रम्य। (उचित स्थान पर)।

(i) वृद्धान् उपसेवितुं शीलं यस्य सः राजा याचकाय द्वितीयमपि नेत्रं दत्तवान्।
(वृद्धों की सेवा करने का शील है, जिसका, उस राजा ने याचक के लिए दूसरा नेत्र भी दे दिया।)
उत्तरम् : वृद्धोपसेवी (वृद्धों की सेवा करने वाला)।

(iii) को भेदः पिकः च काकः च तयोः ? (कोयल और कौए में क्या भेद है ?)
उत्तरम् :
पिककाकयोः (कोयल और कौए में)।

(iv) प्रत्येकम् अयनस्य अवधिः षण्मासाः। (प्रत्येक अयन की अवधि छः माह होती है।)
उत्तरम् :
एकम् एकम् (हरेक)।

6. (i) अनेन वचसा प्रतिहतम् अन्तःकरणं यस्य सः अचिन्तयत्। (इस वचन से आहत हुए हृदय वाले उसने सोचा।)
उत्तरम् :
प्रतिहतान्त:करणः (आहत हृदय वाले ने)।

(ii) अनुद्वेगकरं वाक्यं सत्यं प्रियहितं च यत्।
(उद्विग्नता पैदा न करने वाले वाक्य सत्य, प्रिय और हितकर होते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
प्रियम् हितम् च (प्रिय और हितकर)।

(iii) नीलोत्पलम् इव एकं चक्षुः समर्पितवान्। (नीलकमल की तरह एक नेत्र को सौंप दिया।)
उत्तरम् :
नीलम् उत्पलम्। (नीलकमल)।

(iv) सर्वं ददाति सर्वदाऽस्माकं सन्निधिं क्रियात्। (सब कुछ देती है जो सदा, वह हमारी सन्निधि)
उत्तरम् :
सर्वदा (सब देने वाली)

7. (i) माता च पिता च आगच्छतः। (माता और पिता आते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
मातापितरौ/पितरौ (माता-पिता)।

(ii) सः पीतम् अम्बरम् धारयति। (वह पीला वस्त्र धारण करता है।)
उत्तरम् :
पीताम्बरम् (पीला वस्त्र)।

(i) नीलकमलम् विना सरः न शोभते। (नीलकमल के बिना सरोवर शोभा नहीं देता।)
उत्तरम् :
नीलम् कमलम् (नीला कमल)।

(iv) त्वं शक्तिम् अनतिक्रम्य परिश्रमं करोषि। (तुम शक्ति के अनुसार परिश्रम करते हो।)
उत्तरम् :
यथाशक्ति (शक्ति के अनुसार)।

8. (i) रामः च लक्ष्मणः च विश्वामित्रस्य शिष्यौ आस्ताम्। (राम और लक्ष्मण विश्वामित्र के शिष्य थे।)
उत्तरम् :
रामलक्ष्मणौ (राम-लक्ष्मण)।।

(ii) अयं संसार: मरणशीलः अस्ति। (यह संसार मरणशील है।)
उत्तरम् :
मरणं शीलं यस्य सः (मरने में ही जिसका शील है।)

(ii) सरोवरे नीलकमलानि शोभन्ते। (सरोवर में नीलकमल शोभा देते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
नीलानि कमलानिः (नीले कमल)।

(iv) कथमत्र मते च उन्नते च विषमे मार्गे क्रीडथ?
(कैसे यहाँ नीचे और ऊँचे विषम मार्ग में खेल रहे हो?)
उत्तरम् :
नतोन्नते (नीचे-ऊँचे में)

9. (i) दुष्टा बुद्धिः यस्य सः सद्वचनानि तिरस्कृत्य प्राचलत्।
(दुष्ट है बुद्धि जिसकी वह अच्छे वचनों का तिरस्कार करके चल पड़ा।)
उत्तरम् :
दुष्टबुद्धिः (दुष्ट बुद्धि वाला)।

(ii) सर्वेषामेव महत्त्वं विद्यते यथासमयम्। (यथासमय सभी का महत्त्व है।)
उत्तरम् :
समयम् अनतिक्रम्य (समय के अनुसार)।

(ii) ततः युधिष्ठिरार्जुनौ श्रीकृष्णेन सह रथारोहणं नाटयतः।
(तब युधिष्ठिर और अर्जुन श्रीकृष्ण के साथ रथ पर चढ़ने का अभिनय करते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
युधिष्ठिरः च अर्जुनः च। (युधिष्ठिर और अर्जुन)।

(iv) अये! कथं श्रीकृष्णार्जुनौ युधिष्ठिरश्च। (अरे! कैसे श्रीकृष्ण और अर्जुन और युधिष्ठिर।)
उत्तरम् :
श्रीकृष्णः च अर्जुनः च (श्रीकृष्ण और अर्जुन)।

10. (i) तौ पाणी च पादौ च प्रक्षालयतः। (वे दोनों हाथ और पैर धोते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
पाणिपादम् (हाथ-पैर)।

(ii) सः प्रतिदिनं दानं करोति स्म। (वह प्रतिदिन दान करता था।)
उत्तरम् :
दिनं दिनम् प्रति (रोजाना)।

(iii) सः प्रजाभ्यः धनधान्यं दातुं दानशाला: अकारयत्।
(उसने प्रजाओं के लिए धन-धान्य देने के लिए दानशालाएँ बनवायीं।)
उत्तरम् :
धनं च धान्यं च (धन और अन्न)

(iv) ततः युधिष्ठिरार्जुनौ श्रीकृष्णेन सह रथारोहणं नाटयतः।
(तब युधिष्ठिर और अर्जुन श्रीकृष्ण के साथ रथारोहण का अभिनय करते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
युधिष्ठिरः च अर्जुनः च (युधिष्ठिर और अर्जुन)

11. (i) किं चपलबालकेभ्यः भीषणानाम् अस्त्राणाम् प्रदानम् उचितम् ?
(क्या चपल बालकों को भीषण अस्त्रों का देना उचित है ?)
उत्तरम् :
भीषणास्त्राणाम् (भयंकर अस्त्रों का)।

(ii) सर्वेषामेव महत्त्वं विद्यते यथासमयम्। (समय के अनुसार सभी का महत्त्व होता है।)
उत्तरम् :
समयम् अनतिक्रम्य। (समय के अनुसार)।

(iii) नीलमुत्पलं यस्मिन् तत् सरः सुन्दरम्। (नीला कमल है जिसमें, वह तालाब सुन्दर है।)
उत्तरम् :
नीलोत्पलम् (नील कमल वाला)।

प्रश्न 13.
अधोलिखित प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि दत्तानि। एतेषु उत्तरेषु समासं समास-विग्रहं वा कृत्वा उत्तरपुस्तिकायां लिखत। (निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दिए हुए हैं। इन उत्तरों में समास अथवा समास-विग्रह करके उत्तर पुस्तिका में लिखिए।)
1. (i) भगवन् ! किम् उपादेयम् ? (गुरुवचनम्)
(ii) को गुरुः ? (अधिगततत्त्वः)
(iii) अहः च निशा च कः ध्यातव्यः ? (ईश्वरः)
(iv) को पूज्यौ ? (मातापितरौ)
उत्तराणि :
(i) गुरोः वचनम्
(ii) अधिगतं तत्त्वं येन सः
(iii) अहर्निशम्
(iv) माता च पिता च।

2. (i) अत्र केषां वाटिका अस्ति ? (पुष्याणां वाटिका)
(ii) उद्याने मधुर कण्ठेन को कूजतः ? (पिकमयूरी)
(iii) वाटिकायां कीदृशानि पुष्पाणि सन्ति ? (पीतपुष्पाणि)
(iv) अत्र कः वसति ? (पुण्यात्मा)
उत्तराणि :
(i) पुष्पवाटिका
(ii) पिकः च मयूरः च
(iii) पीतानि पुष्पाणि
(iv) पुण्यः आत्मा यस्य सः।

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements Important Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following questions in short:
(1) From the following elements :
20^Ca, 3^Li, 11^Na, 10^Ne
(a) Select the element which has two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons.
(b) Select two elements of the same group.
Answer:
(a) Element in which two shells are completely filled with electrons is 10^Ne (2, 8).
(b) Two elements of the same group are 3^Li(2, 1) and 11^Na (2, 8, 1).

(2) Answer the following questions [for an element having atomic number 17] :
(a) Name the element.
(b) In which period will you find this element?
(c) To which group of the periodic table does this element belong?
(d) State the electronic configuration of the element.
Answer:
(a) Chlorine
(b) Third period
(c) Group 17
(d) Electronic configuration : 2, 8, 7

(3) An element X (atomic number 17) reacts with an element Y (atomic number 20) to form a divalent halide.
(a) What is the position of elements X and Y in the periodic table?
(b) What will be the nature of oxide of element Y? Identify the nature of bonding in the compound formed.
Answer:
Element X is a non-metal while element Y is a metal.
Molecular formula of dihalide is YX₂.
(a)

Position	Element X	Element Y
In a group	17	2
In a period	3	4

(b) Basic oxide : YO
Nature of the bond : Ionic

(4) Two elements M and N belong to the same period of the modern periodic table and are in group I and group II respectively. Compare their following properties:
(a) Atomic size
(b) Metallic character
(c) Valency of oxides
(d) Molecular formula of their chlorides
Answer:
(a) Element ‘M’ has larger atomic size than that of ‘N’.
(b) Element ‘M’ possess more metallic? character than that of ‘N’.
(c) Group I : Valency : 1
Group II : Valency : 2
(d) MCl, MCl₂

(5) A part of the periodic table has been shown below :

Answer the following questions on the basis of position of elements in the above table:
(a) Which element is a noble gas? Give reason.
(b) Which element is most electronegative? Give reason.
(c) Write the electronic configuration of B and E.
Answer:
(a Element G is a noble gas, because it is present in group 18 and has zero valency.
(b) Element E is the most electronegative element due to its small size and greater tendency to gain electrons.
(c) Electronic configuration of ‘B’ = 2,8, 1 Electronic configuration of ‘E’ = 2, 7

(6) The positions of elements A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in their respective groups are as follows :

Group	1	2	13	14	15	16	17	18
Element	A	B	C	D	E	F	G	H

Answer the following questions:
(a) Which elements have the largest and smallest atomic size?
(b) Which elements have the valency 3 and 0 respectively?
Answer:
(a) Largest atomic size : A
Smallest atomic size : G
(b) Valency 3 : Element C
Valency O : Element H

(7) Consider the part of periodic table given below and answer the following questions :

(i) State the most reactive metal.
(ii) How many shells does element d have?
(iii) Identify the element having valency 2.
(iv) Write the number of electrons in the valence shell of j.
(v) Out of h and i, which element is more non-metallic in nature?
(vi) Out of e and h, which element possess large atomic size?
Answer:
(i) d
(ii) 4
(iii) e and g
(iv) 2
(v) h
(vi) e

(8)

Using the above table, answer the following questions:
(i) Which element will form only covalent compounds?
(ii) Which element is a metal with valency 3?
(iii) Which element is a non-metal with valency 3?
(iv) Out of D and E, which one has a bigger atomic size?
(v) Write common name for the family of elements, C and F.
Answer:
(i) E
(ii) D
(iii) B
(iv) D
(v) Inert gases or noble gases

Question 2.
Distinguish between the following :
(1) Elements of a group and Elements of a period
Answer:

Elements of a group	Elements of a period
1. The atomic number of elements increases on moving down the group.	1. The atomic number of elements increases on moving from left to right along a period.
2. All the elements in a group have same number of valence electrons.	2. The number of valence electrons of the elements in a period increases.
3. The chemical reactivity of elements in a group are same or identical.	3. The chemical reactivity of elements in a period are not identical.
4. The atomic radius and metallic character increase on moving down the group.	4. The atomic radius and metallic character decrease on moving from left to right along a period.

(2) Mendeleev’s periodic table and the Modern periodic table
Answer:

Mendeleev’s periodic table	Modern periodic table
1. Mendeleev’s periodic table consists of seven periods and eight groups.	1. Modern periodic table consists of seven periods and eighteen groups.
2. Transition elements are not separated in the Mendeleev’s periodic table.	2. Transition elements are placed in a separate groups in the modern periodic table.
3. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic masses.	3. In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers.
4. Period number and group number of an element cannot be predicted.	4. Period number and group number of an element can be determined easily.
5. Mendeleev’s periodic table has descripancies and limitations.	5. Modern periodic table is almost errorless.
6. Periodicity in the properties of elements cannot be explained.	6. Periodicity in the properties of elements can be explained.

(3) Metallic elements and Non-metallic elements
Answer:

Metallic elements	Non-metallic elements
1. They are electropositive elements.	1. They are electronegative elements.
2. Metals have tendency of losing the electrons during the bond formation process.	2. Non-metals have tendency of gaining the electrons during the bond formation process.
3. Oxides of metals are basic.	3. Oxides of non-metals are acidic.
4. Metals possess 1, 2 or 3 electrons in their respective valence shells.	4. Non-metals possess 5, 6 or 7 electrons in their respective valence shells.

Question 3.
Give scientific reasons for the following statements:
(1) Dobereiner’s triads could not arrange all the elements known at that time.
Answer:
In Dobereiner’s triads, three elements were arranged in the order of increasing atomic masses of elements in which the atomic mass of the middle element is the average of the atomic masses of the other two elements.

Dobereiner could identify triads from the elements known at that time was only a coincidence. Thus, this classification of elements into triads could not be applied to all the elements known at that time.

(2) Newlands’ law of octaves could not classify all the elements known at that time.
Answer:
Newlands’ law of octaves was applicable upto calcium. After calcium, every eighth element s did not possess properties similar to that of the first element.

• Newlands’ assumed that only 56 elements existed s in nature.
• Newlands’ law of octaves was found correct only to lighter elements.
• Thus, all the elements could not be classified s by the Newlands’ law of octaves.

(3) No fixed position can be assigned to hydrogen in the periodic table.
Answer:
Electronic configuration of hydrogen resembles with alkali metals.

• Like alkali metals, hydrogen combines with halogens, oxygen and sulphur to form compounds having similar formulae.
• Hydrogen also resembles halogens as it exists in the form of diatomic molecules.
• Hydrogen combines with metals and non-metals to form ionic and covalent bonds respectively.
• Thus, hydrogen cannot be assigned fixed position in the periodic table.

(4) The atomic size decreases in a period on moving from left to right.
Answer:
As moving from left to right in a period, the atomic number of elements increases by 1.

• As atomic number increases, nuclear charge also increases.
• Due to this increased nuclear charge, the electrons are attracted strongly towards the nucleus and hence the atomic size decreases.

(5) On moving down in a group, the atomic radii of elements increases gradually.
Answer:
On moving down in a group, the atomic number of element increases.

• A new shell of electrons is added with increase in atomic numbers of elements.
• Thus, the distance between the valence shell and nucleus increases and atomic size increases down the group inspite of the increase in nuclear charge.

Objective Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following questions in one word:

1. How many elements are known till date?
2. How many amongst the known elements are naturally occurring?
3. In which two types the elements were classified in early attempts?
4. By which name the law proposed by Dobereiner is known?
5. How many elements were classified by Dobereiner’s triads?
6. Cl, X and I are the elements of Dobereiner’s triad, then what would be the element X?
7. Name the elements Newlands started and ended the classification of elements.
8. With what Newlands’ law of octaves was compared?
9. Name the element having similar property with lithium in Newlands’ law of octaves.
10. Which element possess similar property with boron in Newlands’ law of octaves?
11. Name two elements which were placed in the same slot in Newlands’ octaves.
12. How many elements were known when Mendeleev started the classification of elements?
13. Name two elements which formed compound on which Mendeleev had concentrated.
14. What are the vertical columns and the horizontal rows called in Mendeleev’s periodic table?
15. Which Sanskrit prefix was used by Mendeleev in the naming of elements which were not discovered at that time?
16. Which element was not placed in Mendeleev’s periodic table properly?
17. Which scientist proposed tire ‘periodic law’ for the modern periodic table?
18. Write the number of elements present in first, third and fourth period in the modern periodic table.
19. State the number of elements present in sixth period of the modern periodic table.
20. How many groups are present in the modern periodic table?
21. How many elements exist as gases in the modern periodic table?
22. By what names the elements of group I are known in the modern periodic table?
23. By which formula the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a shell determines?
24. Write the valency of an element having atomic number 13.
25. Name the elements in the modern periodic table having lowest and highest atomic radii.
26. State the radius of a hydrogen atom.

Answer:

1. 118
2. 98
3. Metals and non-metals
4. Law of Triads
5. 9
6. Br
7. Hydrogen and thorium
8. Indian musical notes
9. Sodium
10. Aluminium
11. Cobalt and nickel
12. 63
13. Hydrogen and oxygen
14. Groups and periods
15. Eka
16. Hydrogen
17. Henry Moseley
18. 2, 8, 18
19. 32
20. 18
21. 11
22. Alkali metals
23. 2n²
24. 3
25. He and Fr
26. 39

Question 2.
Define :
(1) Isotopes
Answer:
Atoms of the same element having same atomic number but different atomic masses are known as isotopes.

(2) Periodic properties
Answer:
Properties of the elements which are periodic function of their electronic configuration and are repeated after definite interval of atomic numbers.
OR
Properties which show the regular gradation in the same group (moving from top to bottom) or along a period (moving from left to right) are known as periodic properties.

(3) Valency
Answer:
The valency is the combining capacity of an atom of an element to acquire noble gas configuration.

(4) Atomic radius
Answer:
The distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost shell of an isolated atom is called atomic radius.

(5) Metalloids (Semi-metal)
Answer:
Elements which possess intermediate properties of both metals and non-metals are called metalloids or semi-metals.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks :

1. Lithium, sodium and …………………. are the members of Dobereiner’s triad.
2. Newlands’ law of octaves is applicable for …………………. elements.
3. According to Newlands, …………………. elements occur in nature.
4. Mendeleev named scandium as ………………….
5. The element known as eka-silicon is ………………….
6. The position of cobalt in Mendeleev’s periodic table is prior to ………………….
7. If the valency of an element is 2, then it lies in group ………………….
8. The electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 3, then it is an element of …………………. period.
9. In the modern periodic table, noble gases are placed in group ………………….
10. Modern periodic table consists of …………………. periods and …………………. groups.
11. Position of …………………. in the periodic table is controversial.
12. The valency of noble gases is ………………….
13. On moving down in any group, the metallic character of the elements ………………….
14. Oxides of non-metallic elements are …………………. in nature.
15. Oxides of …………………. elements are basic in nature.

Answer:

1. potassium
2. lighter
3. 56
4. eka-boron
5. germanium
6. nickel
7. 2
8. third
9. 18
10. 7, 18
11. hydrogen
12. zero
13. increases
14. acidic
15. metallic

Question 4.
State whether the following statements are true or false:

1. At present, naturally occurring elements are 98.
2. The atomic masses of elements form a Dobereiner’s triad are 14 u, 31 u and 74.9 u respectively.
3. Calcium, strontium and barium form a Dobereiner’s triad.
4. According to the Newlands’ law of octaves, every eighth element had properties similar to that of the first element.
5. Sodium is the eighth element after lithium.
6. Oxygen is the eighth element after sulphur.
7. Phosphorus is tire eighth element after nitrogen.
8. Dobereiner’s triads are observed in Newlands’ octaves.
9. Mendeleev’s periodic law was based on atomic number of element.
10. Molecular formula of oxide of barium is BaO.
11. Mendeleev named gallium for eka-silicon.
12. An element having atomic number 3.5 can be placed between Be and B.
13. There are three valence electrons present in the elements of group I.
14. Electrons are filled in K, L and M shells in the elements of the third period.
15. Each period starts with the filling of electrons in a new shell.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. False
8. True
9. False
10. True
11. False
12. False
13. False
14. True
15. True

Question 5.
Match the following properly :
(1)

Column I	Column II
1. Dobereiner	a. Law of octaves
2. Newlands	b. Periodic law
3. Mendeleev	c. Modern periodic table
4. Henry Moseley	d. Law of triads

Answer:
(1-d), (2-a), (3- b), (4 – c).

(2)

Column I	Column II
1. Li, Na, K	a. Metalloids
2. S, E Cl	b. Noble gases
3. B, Si, Ge	c. Non-metallic elements
4. He, Ne, Ar	d. Metallic elements

Answer:
(1-d), (2-c), (3-a), (4-b).

Question 6.
Draw the following graphs :
1. Draw the graph of Atomic radii → Atomic numbers for the elements of second period.
Answer:

2. Draw the graph of Atomic radii → Atomic numbers for the alkali metal elements.
Answer:

Question 7.
Which one of the following depict the correct representation of atomic radius of an atom?

Answer:
(ii) and (iii)

Question 8.
(A) Choose the correct option from those given below each question:
1. For which of the following element, Mendeleev didn’t left gap in his periodic table?
A. Gallium
B. Beryllium
C. Germanium
D. Scandium
Answer:
B. Beryllium

2. Newlands’ law of octaves was found to be applicable upto …………………
A. nickel
B. cobalt
C. phosphorus
D. calcium
Answer:
D. calcium

3. According to Mendeleev’s periodic law, the elements were arranged in the periodic table in the order of…
A. increasing atomic number.
B. decreasing atomic number.
C. increasing atomic masses.
D. decreasing atomic masses.
Answer:
C. increasing atomic masses.

4. The elements Si, B and Ge are …………………
A. metallic elements
B. non-metals
C. metalloids
D. metal, non-metal and metalloid respectively
Answer:
C. metalloids

5. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, gaps were left for the elements to be discovered later. Which of the following elements found a place in the periodic table later?
A. Be
B. Ge
C. Si
D. Se
Answer:
B. Ge

6. The three imaginary elements X, Y and Z represent a Dobereiner’s triad. If the atomic mass of element X is 14 u and that of element Y is 46 u, then the atomic mass of element Z will be …………………
A. 28
B. 60
C. 78
D. 72
[Hint: According to the law of Dobereiner’s triad,
Atomic mass of Y

Answer:
C. 78

7. The atomic numbers of four elements R Q, R and S are 6, 8, 14 and 16 respectively. Out of these, the element known as metalloid is ……….
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S
[Hint: Elements in which generally four? electrons are present in outermost shell are called metalloids.]
Answer:
C. R

8. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the classification of elements?
A. Elements in modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of increasing atomic masses.
B. Elements in modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of decreasing atomic numbers.
C. In modern periodic table, the element nickel of lower atomic mass is kept before the element cobalt of higher atomic mass.
D. In modern periodic table, the isotopes of chlorine having different atomic masses are kept in the same group.
Answer:
D. In modern periodic table, the isotopes of chlorine having different atomic masses are kept in the same group.

9. Which of the following statements about the modern periodic table is correct?
A. It has 18 horizontal rows known as periods.
B. It has 8 vertical columns known as periods.
C. It has 18 vertical columns known as groups.
D. It has 7 horizontal rows known as groups.
Answer:
B. It has 8 vertical columns known as periods.

10. An element X forms an oxide X₂O₃. In which : group of Mendeleev’s periodic table is this element placed?
A. Group II
B. Group III
C. Group V
D. Group VIII
Answer:
B. Group III

11. Who proposed the ‘Modern periodic law’ for the modern periodic table?
A. Dobereiner
B. Newlands
C. Henry Moseley
D. Mendeleev
Answer:
C. Henry Moseley

12. Which fundamental particle forms the real basis for the modern classification of elements?
A. Proton
B. Electron
C. Neutron
D. Nucleon
Answer:
A. Proton

13. Which of the following is not correct about the trends when going from left to right across the periods of the periodic table?
A. The elements become more non-metallic in nature.
B. The number of valence electrons increases.
C. The atoms lose their electrons easily.
D. The oxides become more acidic.
Answer:
C. The atoms lose their electrons easily.

14. The electronic configuration of the atom of an element X is 2, 8, 4. In modern periodic table, the element X is placed in
A. Group 2
B. Group 14
C. Group 4
D. Group 8
Answer:
B. Group 14

15. The atomic number of an element is 20. In modern periodic table, this element is placed in ……………..
A. 2nd period
B. 3rd period
C. 1st period
D. 4th period
Answer:
D. 4th period

16. The elements A, B, C, D and E have atomic numbers of 2, 3, 7, 10 and 18 respectively. The elements which belong to the same period of the periodic table are
A. A, B, C
B. B, C, D
C. A, D, E
D. B. D, E
Answer:
B. B, C, D

17. The elements A, B, C, D and E have atomic numbers 9, 11, 17, 12 and 13 respectively. The pair of elements which belong to the same group of the periodic table is ……………..
A. A and B
B. B and D
C. D and E
D. A and C
Answer:
D. A and C

18. Which of the following element would lose an electron easily?
A. Mg
B. Na
C. K
D. Ca
Answer:
C. K

19. Which of the following element will gain an electron easily?
A. Na
B. F
C. Mg
D. Al
Answer:
B. F

20. Where would you place the element with electronic configuration 2, 8 in the modern periodic table?
A. Group 8
B. Group 2
C. Group 18
D. Group 10
Answer:
C. Group 18

21. An element which is an essential constituent of all organic compounds belong to ……………..
A. Group 4
B. Group 10
C. Group 16
D. Group 14
Answer:
D. Group 14

22. Which of the following is the valence shell for the elements of second period of the modern periodic table?
A. M-shell
B. K-shell
C. N-shell
D. L-shell
Answer:
D. L-shell

23. The element which has the maximum number of valence electrons is ……………..
A. 15^P
B. 11^Na
C. 14^Si
D. 13^Al
Answer:
A. 15^P

24. The correct increasing order of the atomic radii of the elements oxygen, fluorine and nitrogen is ……………..
A. O, F, N
B. N, F, O
C. O, N, F
D. F, O, N
Answer:
D. F, O, N

25. Which one of the following does not increase while moving down the group of the periodic table?
A. Atomic radius
B. Metallic character
C. Valence electrons
D. Basicity of oxides
Answer:
C. Valence electrons

(B) Choose more than one correct options from those given below each question:
1. Mention the drawbacks of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
A. Position of hydrogen
B. Position of isotopes
C. Arrangement of Noble gases
D. Arrangement of more than one elements in the same slot.
Answer:
A, B, C, D

2. Which of the following increase while moving down the group 17 elements?
A. Atomic radius
B. Valence electrons
C. Metallic character
D. Acidity of oxides
Answer:
A, C

3. Which of the following statements are correct for modern periodic table?
A. New elements can be easily arranged.
B. Predictions of properties of the elements become easy.
C. The elements have been divided into metals and non-metals by the thick zig-zag line running diagonally across the periodic table.
D. Atomic volume of elements decreases on moving down in the group.
Answer:
A, B, C

4. The electronic configuration of the atom of an element is 2, 8, 7. In this reference, which of the following statements are correct?
A. This element belong to group 17.
B. This element has a tendency to gain one electron.
C. This element belongs to fourth period.
D. The element fluorine is placed above this element.
Answer:
A, B, D

(C) In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion A is given, followed by a Reason R. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option as under:
A. Assertion A and reason R are true, and reason R is the correct explanation of assertion A.
B. Assertion A and reason R are true, but reason R is not the correct explanation of assertion A.
C. Assertion A is corret but reason R is false.
D. Assertion A is false but reason R is true.
1. Assertion A: The position of hydrogen in modern periodic table is a matter of controversy.
Reason R : The properties of hydrogen resembles with the properties of alkali metals and halogens.
Answer:
A. Assertion A and reason R are true, and reason R is the correct explanation of assertion A.

2. Assertion A: In the modern periodic table, metallic character of elements increases on moving down the group.
Reason R: In the modern periodic table, the elements are arranged in order of their increasing atomic masses.
Answer:
C. Assertion A is corret but reason R is false.

3. Assertion A : Newlands arranged the then known elements in order of musical notes.
Reason R: According to Newlands, proton is responsible for the arrangement of elements in the periodic table.
Answer:
C. Assertion A is corret but reason R is false.

4. Assertion A : Chemical reactivity of the element of group 18 is very less.
Reason R : Their outermost shell is completely filled with electrons.
Answer:
A. Assertion A and reason R are true, and reason R is the correct explanation of assertion A.

Value Based Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Six elements of periodic table A, B, C, D, E and F have atomic numbers of 2, 12, 20, S 18, 4 and 10 respectively (where A, B, C,? D, E and F are not the chemical symbols of s these elements). Based on this information, answer the following questions :
(1) Which of these elements belong to the same groups of the periodic table? Why?
(2) Which of these elements belong to the same periods of the periodic table? Why?
(3) Which of these elements are (i) metals and (ii) non-metals?
(4) Which of these elements are chemically (i) reactive and (ii) unreactive?
(5) What values are indicated in a student in answering the above questions?
Answer:
First of all, write the electronic configurations? of all the given six elements as follows :

Element	Atomic number	Electronic configuration
		K	L	M	N
A	2	2
B	12	2	8	2
C	20	2	8	8	2
D	18	2	2	8
E	4	2	8
F	10	2	8

(1) (i) Elements B, C and E belong to the s group 2 of the periodic table because all of them have an equal number of valence electrons equal to 2.

(ii) Elements A, D and F also belong to the group 18 because they are all inert gases having completely filled outermost electron shells with 8 valence electrons.

(2) (i) Element B (2, 8, 2) and element D (2, 8, 8) belong to the third period because they both have 3 electron shells – K, L and M each.

(ii) Element E (2, 2) and element F (2, 8) belong to the second period because they both have 2 electron shells – K and L each.

(3) (i) Elements B, C and E belonging to group 2 are metals.
(ii) Elements A, D and F belonging to group 18 are non-metals (noble gases).

(4) (i) Elements B, C and E of group 2 are chemically reactive elements.
(ii) Elements A, D and F of group 18 are chemically unreactive elements.

(5) Answering these questions by a student are indicating awareness towards modern periodic classification of the elements and ability to apply his knowledge in solving the related questions.

Question 2.
In his periodic table, Mendeleev arranged all the then known 63 elements in the order of increasing atomic masses in horizontal rows but in such a way that elements having similar properties came directly under one another in the same vertical column. In the classification of the then known elements, Mendeleev was guided mainly by two factors.

In order to make sure that the elements having similar properties fall in the same vertical column, Mendeleev left some gaps in his periodic table. Though leaving gaps in the periodic table was considered to be a drawback of his classification of elements at that time but Mendeleev was firm on his decision.
Answer the following questions:
(1) What are the horizontal rows of Mendeleev’s periodic table known as? How many horizontal rows of elements were there in Mendeleev’s periodic table?

(2) What are the vertical columns of Mendeleev’s periodic table known as? How many vertical columns were there? in Mendeleev’s periodic table?

(3) What were the similar properties used by Mendeleev to classify the then known elements into vertical columns?

(4) What were the two main guiding factors for Mendeleev in the classification of the then known elements?

(5) For what purpose were some gaps left by Mendeleev in his periodic table? Does the modern periodic table also have the 5 gaps left by Mendeleev?

(6) What values were displayed by Mendeleev in presenting his classification of elements?
Answer:
(1) The horizontal rows of elements in the Mendeleev’s periodic table are called periods. There were seven periods in s Mendeleev’s periodic table.

(2) The vertical columns of Mendeleev’s periodic table are called groups. There were eight groups in Mendeleev’s periodic s table.

(3) The similar properties used by Mendeleev to classify the elements into vertical columns were the similar formulae of S their oxides and hydrides.

(4) The two main guiding factors for Mendeleev in the classification of the then known elements were

• increasing t order of atomic masses
• grouping together the elements having similar properties.

(5) These gaps were left for the elements which had not been discovered at that time. He thought that these elements would be discovered later in future. The modern periodic table does not have any gaps.

(6) The various values displayed by Mendeleev were-

• self-confidence
• courage
• foresight
• prophecy.

Question 3.
There are three elements X, Y and Z having atomic numbers of 6, 16 and 19 respectively. Based on this information, Het has been asked to answer the following questions :
(1) In which group of the periodic table would you expect to find (i) element X (ii) element Y and (iii) element Z?
(2) Which two elements will form ionic bonds? Why?
(3) What will be the formula of ionic compound formed?
(4) Which two elements will form covalent bonds? Why?
(5) What will be the formula of covalent compound formed?
(6) What values are displayed by Het in answering the above questions?
Answer:
In order to answer these questions, Het first wrote down the electronic configurations of the elements X, Y and Z by using their atomic numbers, as follows :

Element	Atomic number	Electronic configuration
		K	L	M	N
X	6	2	4
Y	16	2	8	6
Z	19	2	8	8	1

(1) (i) Element X has 4 valence electrons in its atom, so it will be placed in group 4 + 10 = 14 of the modern periodic table.
(ii) Element Y has 6 valence electrons in its atom, so it will be placed in group 6 + 10 = 16 of the modern periodic table.
(iii) Element Z has 1 valence electron in its atom, so it will be placed in group 1 of the modern periodic table.

(2) An ionic bond is formed between a metal element and a non-metal element. Here, the elements Z and Y will combine to form ionic bond.

(3) The element Z has 1 valence electron, so its valency is +1 (after losing this electron). The element Y need two electrons to complete its octet. So, element Y will gain two electrons and form Y^2- ion. Here, two Z⁺ ions will combine with one Y^-2 ion, so that the formula of ionic compound formed will be Z₂Y.

(4) A covalent bond is formed between two non-metallic elements. Here, element X of group 14 is a non-metal and element Y of group 16 is also a non-metal. Therefore, the elements X and Y will combine together to form covalent bonds.

(5) The element X has 4 valence electrons, so its valency is 4. The element Y has 6 valence electrons, so its valency is 2. So, one atom of element X will combine with two atoms of element Y to form a covalent compound having the formula XY₂.

(6) The values displayed by Het in answering these questions are (1) knowledge of modern classification of elements, and (2) understanding of periodic table.

Practical Skill Based Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Complete the following cross-word puzzle :

Across:
(1) An element with atomic number 12.
(3) Metal used in making cans and member of group 14.
(4) A lustrous non-metal which has 7 electrons ; in its outermost shell.

Down:
(2) Highly reactive and soft metal which imparts yellow colour when subjected to flame and is kept in kerosene.
(5) The first element of second period.
(6) An element which is used in making fluorescent bulbs and is second member of group 18 in the modern periodic table.
(7) A radioactive element which is the last member of halogen family.
(8) Metal which is an important constituent of steel and forms rust when exposed to moist air.
(9) The first metalloid in modern periodic table whose fibres are used in making bullet-proof vests.
Answer:

Question 2.
In this ladder, symbols of elements are jumbled up.
(a) Rearrange these symbols of elements in the increasing order of their atomic numbers in the periodic table.
(b) Arrange them in the order of their group also.

Answer:
(a) H, He, Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F, Ne, Na, Mg, Al, Si, E S, Cl, Ar, K, Ca.
(b)

Group	Elements
1	H, Li, Na, K
2	Be, Mg, Ca
13	B, Al
14	C, Si
15	N, P
16	O, S
17	F, Cl
18	He, Ne, Ar

Memory Map

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Trigonometry Ex 8.1 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Trigonometry Exercise 8.1

Question 1.
In ΔABC, right-angled at B, AB = 24 cm, BC = 7 cm. Determine:
(i) sin A, cos A, (ii) sin C, cos C.
Solution :

(i) sin A, cos A
AC² = AB² + BC²
= 24² + 7² = 576 + 49
= 625
∴ AC = 25

Question 2.
In the figure, find tan P – cot R.
Solution :

QR² = PR² – PQ² = 13² – 12²
= 169 – 144 = 25.
∴ QR = 5.
tan P = \(\frac{\mathrm{QR}}{\mathrm{PQ}}=\frac{5}{12}\)
cot R = \(\frac{\mathrm{QR}}{\mathrm{QP}}=\frac{5}{12}\)
∴ tan P – cot R = \(\frac{5}{12}=\frac{5}{12}\) = 0

Question 3.
If sin A = \(\frac{3}{4}\), calculate cos A and tan A.
Solution:

Given, sin A = \(\frac{3}{4}\) ⇒ \(\frac{P}{H}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
Let P = 3k and H = 4k.
In right angled ΔABC,
P² + B² = H² (By Pythagoras theorem)
⇒ (3k)² + B² = (4k)²
⇒ 9k² + B² = 16k²
⇒ B² = 16k² – 9k² = 7k²
∴ B = +k\(\sqrt{7}\) (∵ Base cannot be -ve)

Question 4.
Given 15 cot A = 8, find sin A and sec A.
Solution:

Given, 15 cot A = 8 ⇒ cot A = \(\frac{8}{15}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\mathrm{P}}=\frac{8}{15}\)
B = 8k and P = 15 k
In right angled ΔABC, H² = B² + P² (By Pythagoras theorem)
= (8k)² + (15k)²
= 64k² + 225k²
= 289k²
∴ H = 17k (∵ Side cannot be -ve)
Now, sin A = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{H}}=\frac{15 \mathrm{k}}{17 \mathrm{k}}=\frac{15}{17}\)
sec A = \(\frac{\mathrm{H}}{\mathrm{B}}=\frac{17 \mathrm{k}}{8 \mathrm{k}}=\frac{17}{8}\)

Question 5.
Given sec θ = \(\frac{13}{12}\), calculate all other trigonometric ratios.
Solution :

sec θ = \(\frac{1}{cos θ}\)
sec θ . cos θ = 1
\(\frac{13}{12} \times \frac{12}{13}\) = 1
AB² = AC² – BC²
= 13² – 12²
= 169 – 144
= 25
AB = \(\sqrt{25}\) = 5

Question 6.
If ∠A and ∠B are acute angles such that cos A = cos B, then show that ∠A = ∠B.
Solution :

cos A = \(\frac{AC}{AB}\)
cos B = \(\frac{BC}{AB}\)
cos A = cos B
\(\frac{AC}{AB}=\frac{BC}{AB}\)
∴ AC = BC
∴ \(\hat{A}\) = \(\hat{B}\) (∵ Angles opposite to equal sides are also equal)

Question 7.
If cot θ = \(\frac{7}{8}\), evaluate: (i) \(\frac{(1+\sin \theta)(1-\sin \theta)}{(1+\cos \theta)(1-\cos \theta)}\) (ii) cot² θ
Solution :

AC² = AB² + BC²
= 7² + 8²
= 49 + 64 = 113
AC = \(\sqrt{113}\)

(ii) cot² θ = (cot θ)²
= (\(\frac{7}{8}\))² = \(\frac{49}{64}\)
Given cot θ = \(\frac{7}{8}\)

Question 8.
If 3 cot A = 4, check whether \(\frac{1-\tan ^2 A}{1+\tan ^2 A}\) = cos² A – sin² A or not.
Solution :

3 cot A = 4
cot A = \(\frac{4}{3}\)
AC² = AB² + BC²
= 4² + 3²
= 16 + 9
= 25
AC = \(\sqrt{25}\) = 5

Question 9.
In triangle ABC, right-angled at B, if tan A = find the value of :
(i) sin A cos C + cos A sin C,
(ii) cos A cos C – sin A sin C.
Solution :
(i) sin A cos C + cos A sin C

(ii) cos A . cos C – sin A . sin C
\(\frac{AB}{AC} \cdot \frac{BC}{AC}\) – \(\frac{BC}{AC} \cdot \frac{AB}{AC}\)

Question 10.
In ΔPQR, right-angled at Q, PR + QR = 25 cm and PQ = 5 cm. Determine the values of sin P, cos P and tan P.
Solution:
PR + QR = 25
QR = 25 – PR
PQ² + QR² = PR²
(5)² + (25 – PR)² = PR²
25 + (625 – 50PR + PR²) = PR²
650 – 50PR = PR² – PR² = 0
– 50PR = – 650
PR = \(\frac{-650}{-50}\) = 13.
PR = 13, QR = 25 – PR = 25 – 13 = 12, PQ = 5.

Question 11.
State whether the following are true or false. Justify your answer.
(i) The value of tan A is always less than 1.
(ii) sec A = \(\frac{12}{5}\) for some value of angle A.
(iii) cos A is the abbreviation used for the cosecant of angle A.
(iv) cot A is the product of cot and A.
(v) sin θ = \(\frac{4}{3}\) for some angle θ.
Solution :
(i) False, because the value of tan A increases from 0 to ∞. Also, tan 45° = 1.
(ii) True, because the value of sec A increases from 1 to ∞.
(iii) False, cos A is the abbreviation used for the cosine of angle A.
(iv) False, because cot A is one symbol. We cannot separate cot and A.
(v) False, because the value of sin θ always lies between 0 and 1. Here, sin θ = \(\frac{4}{3}\) which is greater than 1. So, it is not possible.

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 दो चरों वाले रखिक समीकरण का युग्म Important Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10th Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 दो चरों वाले रखिक समीकरण का युग्म

लघुत्तरात्मक / निबन्धात्मक प्रश्न :

प्रश्न 1.
एक कक्षा में विद्यार्थियों को पंक्तियों में खड़ा किया जाता है। यदि एक पंक्ति में एक विद्यार्थी को अतिरिक्त खड़ा किया जाए तो पंक्तियों की संख्या 2 कम हो जाती है और यदि एक पंक्ति में एक विद्यार्थी कम खड़ा किया जाय तो पंक्तियों की संख्या 3 बढ़ जाती है। कक्षा कुल विद्यार्थियों की संख्या ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
माना कि मूल पंक्तियों की संख्या x है तथा मूलतः प्रत्येक पंक्ति में y विद्यार्थी खड़े किये जाते हैं।
विद्यार्थियों की कुल संख्या = x × y = xy
अब यदि एक पंक्ति में i विद्यार्थी अतिरिक्त खड़ा किया जाये तो एक पंक्ति में विद्यार्थियों की संख्या (y + 1) हो जायेगी तथा दिये गये प्रतिबन्ध से पंक्तियों की संख्या (x – 2) हो जायेगी।
अतः विद्यार्थियों की कुल संख्या
= (y + 1) (x – 2)
∴ (y + 1) (x – 2) = x × y
⇒ xy – 2y + x – 2 = xy
⇒ x – 2y = 2 ……..(1)
पुन: एक पंक्ति में एक विद्यार्थी कम खड़ा किया जाता है तो एक पंक्ति में विद्यार्थियों की संख्या (y – 1) होगी तथा प्रश्न में दिये गये प्रतिबन्ध के अनुसार पंक्तियों की संख्या (x + 3) हो जायेगी।
अतः विद्यार्थियों की कुल संख्या
= (y – 1) (x + 3)
∴ (y – 1) (x + 3) = xy
⇒ xy + 3y – x – 3 = xy
⇒ 3y – x – 3 = 0
⇒ x – 3y = – 3 ……..(2)
समीकरण (1) में से (2) को घटाने पर,

समीकरण (1) में y का मान रखने पर,
x – 2 × 5 = 2
⇒ x = 2 + 10
∴ x = 12
कक्षा में विद्यार्थियों की कुल संख्या = (xy)
= 12 × 5 = 60.

प्रश्न 2.
k का मान ज्ञात कीजिए ताकि निम्न समीकरण युग्म का कोई हल नहीं हो
(3k + 1)x + 3y – 2 = 0
(k² + 1)x + (k – 2)y – 5 = 0
हल :
दिए गए समीकरण युग्म का कोई हल नहीं होने के लिए प्रतिबन्ध

k = – 1 के लिए निम्न वक्तव्य सही है-
\(\frac{3}{k-2}\) ≠ \(\frac{2}{5}\)
अतः दिए गए समीकरण का कोई हल नहीं होगा। यदि k = – 1 है।

प्रश्न 3.
अशोक ने एक टेस्ट में 65 अंक अर्जित किए, जब उसे प्रत्येक सही उत्तर पर 5 अंक मिले तथा प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर पर 2 अंक की कटौती की गई। यदि उसे सही उत्तर पर 3 अंक मिलते तथा प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर पर 1 अंक कटता, तो अशोक 40 अंक अर्जित करता। इस समस्या को बीजगणितीय रूप में व्यक्त कर ग्राफ विधि से हल कीजिए। टेस्ट में कुल कितने प्रश्न थे ?
हल :
माना अशोक द्वारा सही हल किये गये प्रश्नों की संख्या = x
गलत हल किये गये प्रश्नों की संख्या = y
बीज गणितीय निरूपण – पहली शर्त के अनुसार,
⇒ 5x – 2y = 65 …….(1)
दूसरी शर्त के अनुसार,
3x – y = 40 ……………(2)
ज्यामितीय निरुपण – समी. (1) से
5x – 2y = 65
x = \(\frac{65+2 y}{5}\)
y = – 5 रखने पर, x = \(\frac{65-10}{5}=\frac{55}{5}\) = 11
y = 0 रखने पर, x = \(\frac{65-0}{5}=\frac{65}{5}\) = 13
y = 5 रखने पर, x = \(\frac{65+10}{5}=\frac{75}{5}\) = 15
सारणी – I

x	11	13	15
y	-5	0	5

समी. (2) से
3x – y = 40
x = \(\frac{40+y}{3}\)
y = – 7 रखने पर x = \(\frac{40-7}{3}=\frac{33}{3}\) = 11
y = 2 रखने पर x = \(\frac{40+2}{3}=\frac{42}{3}\) = 14
y = 5 रखने पर y = \(\frac{40+5}{3}=\frac{45}{3}\) = 15

सारणी – II

x	11	14	15
y	-7	2	5

आलेख से स्पष्ट है कि दिए गए समीकरण युग्म की दो सरल रेखाऐं बिन्दु (10, 5) पर काटती है।
x = 10, y = 5
टेस्ट में प्रश्नों की संख्या
= 10 + 5 = 15.

प्रश्न 4.
x तथा y के लिए हल कीजिए-
27x + 31y = 85.
31x + 27y = 89.
हल :
दी गयी समीकरणं है-
27x + 31y = 85 ………….(1)
31x + 27y = 89 ………….(2)
समीकरण (1) तथा (2) को जोड़ने पर,

x का मान समीकरण (3) में रखने पर
2 + y = 3
⇒ y = 3 – 2 = 1
अतः x = 2 तथा y = 1 समीकरणों के अद्वितीय हल हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
एक तालाब को दो पाइपों द्वारा भरने में 12 घंटे लगते हैं। यदि बड़े व्यास वाले पाइप को 4 घन्टे तथा छोटे व्यास वाले पाइप को 9 घंटे प्रयोग किया जाता है तो तालाब का आधा भाग भरा जाता है। बताइये कितने समय में तालाब प्रत्येक पाइप द्वारा अलग-अलग भरा जायेगा।
हल :
माना बड़े व्यास वाला पाइप तालाब को x घंटे में तथा छोटे व्यास वाला पाइप y घंटे में भरता है।
∴ बड़े व्यास वाले पाइप द्वारा 1 घंटे में भस गया भाग = \(\frac{1}{x}\)
बड़े व्यास वाले पाइप द्वारा 4 घंटे भरा गया भाग = \(\frac{4}{x}\)
छोटे व्यास वाले पाइप द्वारा 1 घंटे में भरा गया भाग = \(\frac{1}{y}\)
छोटे व्यास वाले पाइप द्वारा 9 घंटे में भरा गया भाग = \(\frac{9}{y}\)
प्रश्नानुसार, \(\frac{4}{x}=\frac{9}{y}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ……….(1)
और यदि दोनों पाइपों से तालाब 12 घंटे में भरा जाता है।
∴ \(\frac{12}{x}=\frac{12}{y}\) = 1 ……….(2)
माना कि \(\frac{1}{x}\) = a तथा \(\frac{1}{y}\) = b यह मान समीकरण (1) तथा (2) में रखने पर
4a + 9b = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ……….(3)
12a + 12b = 1 ……….(4)
समीकरण (3) को 3 से गुणा करके इसमें से समीकरण (4) को घटाने पर

अतः बड़े व्यास वाला पाइप 20 घन्टे तथा छोटे व्यास वाला पाइप 30 घंटे लेगा।

प्रश्न 6.
7 रबड़ और 5 पेन्सिलों का कुल मूल्य ₹ 58 है, जबकि 5 रबड़ और 6 पेन्सिलों का कुल मूल्य ₹ 56 है। इस समस्या को बीजगणितीय रूप में व्यक्त कर ग्राफ विधि से हल कीजिए ।
हल :
माना 1 रबड़ का मूल्य ₹ x तथा एक पेन्सिल का मूल्य ₹ y है।
प्रश्नानुसार,
∴ 7x + 5y = 58
तथा 5 रबड़ और 6 पेन्सिलों का कुल मूल्य = ₹ 56
⇒ 7x + 5y = 56
बीजगणितीय निरूपण
7x + 5y = 58 ……(1)
5x + 6y = 56 …….(2)
ज्यामितीय निरूपण:
समीकरण (1) से,
7x + 5y = 58
⇒ 5y = 58 – 7x
⇒ y = \(\frac{58-7 x}{5}\)
x = 4 रखने पर, y = \(\frac{58-7 \times 4}{5}=\frac{58-28}{5}\) = 6
x = – 1 रखने पर y = \(\frac{58-7 \times(-1)}{5}=\frac{58+7}{5}\) = 13
सारणी – I

x	11	13
y	-5	0

समीकरण (2) से
5x + 6y = 56
⇒ 6у = 56 – 5x
⇒ y = \(\frac{56-5 x}{6}\)
x = – 2 रखने पर, y = \(\frac{56-5 \times(-2)}{6}=\frac{56+10}{6}\)
y = 11
x = 4 रखने पर y = \(\frac{56-5 \times 4}{6}=\frac{56-20}{6}\) = 6

सारणी – II

x	11	13
y	-5	0

सारणी I और सारणी II से प्राप्त x और y के मानों का आलेखन करने पर हमें निम्न आलेख प्राप्त होता है।

आलेख से स्पष्ट है कि दोनों रैखिक समीकरणों से प्राप्त सरल रेखाएँ बिन्दु P(4, 6) पर प्रतिच्छेदित होती हैं।
∴ x = 4 तथा y = 6
अतः एक रबड़ का मूल्य = ₹ 4 तथा एक पेन्सिल का मूल्य = ₹ 6

प्रश्न 7.
अभ्यास पुस्तिका और 3 पेन्सिलों का कुल मूल्य 17 रूपए है, जबकि 3 अभ्यास पुस्तिका और 4 पेन्सिलों का कुल मूल्य 24 रूपए है। इस समस्या को बीजगणितीय रूप में व्यक्त कर ग्राफ विधि से हल कीजिए।
हल :
माना एक अभ्यास पुस्तिका का मूल्य ₹ x तथा एक पेन्सिल का मूल्य ₹ y है।
प्रश्नानुसार,
2 अभ्यास पुस्तिका और 3 पेन्सिलों का मूल्य = ₹ 17
⇒ 2x + 3y = 17
3 अभ्यास पुस्तिका और 4 पेन्सिलों का मूल्य 3x + 4y = ₹ 24
⇒ 3x + 4y = 24
बीजगणितीय निरूपण :
2x + 3y = 17 …….(1)
3x + 4y = 24 …….(2)
ज्यामितीय निरूपण :
समीकरण (1) से,
2x + 3y = 17
⇒ 3y = 17 – 2x
⇒ y = \(\frac{17-2 x}{3}\)
x = 1 रखने पर, y = \(\frac{17-2 \times 1}{3}=\frac{15}{3}\) = 5
x = 4 रखने पर, y = \(\frac{17-2 \times 4}{3}=\frac{9}{3}\) = 3
x = 7 रखने पर, y = \(\frac{17-2 \times 57}{3}=\frac{3}{3}\) = 1
सारणी – I

x	11	13	15
y	-5	0	5

समीकरण (2) से,
3x + 4y = 24
⇒ 4y = 24 – 3x
⇒ y = \(\frac{24-3 x}{4}\)
x = 0 रखने पर y = \(\frac{24-3 \times 0}{4}=\frac{24}{4}\) = 6
x = 4 रखने पर y = \(\frac{24-3 \times 4}{4}=\frac{12}{4}\) = 3
x = 8 रखने पर y = \(\frac{24-3 \times 8}{4}=\frac{0}{4}\) = 0

सारणी – II

x	11	13	15
y	-5	0	5

सारणी I और सारणी II से प्राप्त x और y के मानों का आलेखन करने पर हमें निम्न आलेख प्राप्त होता है :

आलेख से स्पष्ट है कि दोनों रैखिक समीकरणों से प्राप्त सरल रेखाएँ बिन्दु (4, 3) पर प्रतिच्छेद करती हैं।
∴ x = 4 तथा y = 3
अतः एक पुस्तिका का मूल्य = ₹ 4
तथा एक पेन्सिल का मूल्य = ₹ 3

प्रश्न 8.
एक रेलगाड़ी एक निश्चित दूरी एक समान चाल से तय करती है। यदि यह रेलगाड़ी 6 किमी / घंटा तेज चाल से चलती तो यह निश्चित समय से 4 घंटे कम लेती तथा यदि 6 किमी / घंटा धीमी चाल से चलती तो यह निश्चित समय से 6 घंटे अधिक लेती। यात्रा की निश्चित दूरी ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
माना रेलगाड़ी की चाल x किमी / घंटा तथा लिया गया समय y घंटे हैं।
∴ रेलगाड़ी द्वारा तय की गई दूरी = चाल × समय = x × y = xy किमी
तेज चलने पर रेलगाड़ी की चाल = (x + 6) किमी / घंटा
रेलगाड़ी द्वारा लिया गया समय = (y – 4) घंटे
अब, दूरी = (x + 6) (y – 4)
⇒ xy = xy – 4x + 6y – 24
⇒ 4x – 6y = – 24 ………..(1)
धीमी गति से चलने पर रेलगाड़ी की चाल = (x – 6) किमी / घंटा
समय = (y + 6) घंटे
अब, दूरी = चाल × समय
⇒ xy = (x – 6) × (y + 6)
⇒ xy = xy + 6x – 6y – 36
⇒ – 6x + 6y = – 36 ………..(2)
समीकरण (1) और समीकरण (2) को जोड़ने पर

समीकरण (1) में x = 30 रखने पर
4 × 30 – 6y = 24
⇒ – 6y = – 24 – 120
⇒ y = \(\frac{-144}{-6}\) = 24
अत: रेलगाड़ी की चाल = 30 किमी / घंटा
रेलगाड़ी द्वारा लिया गया समय = 24 घंटे
तथा रेलगाड़ी द्वारा तय की गई दूरी = 30 × 24
= 720 किमी

प्रश्न 9.
दो संपूरक कोणों में से बड़े कोण का मान छोटे कोण के मान से 18° अधिक है। दोनों कणों के मान ज्ञात कीजिए ।
हल :
माना दिए गए कोण A तथा B हैं।
दिए है,
∠A = ∠B + 18° ………(i)
∵ ∠A व B संपूरक कोण हैं,
∴ ∠A + ∠B = 180°
[∵ संपूरक कोणों का योग 180° होता है]
समीकरण (i) से,
∠B + 18° + ∠B = 180°
2∠B = 162°
∠B = 81°
∴ अभीष्ठ ∠A = 81° + 18° = 99°
अतः अभीष्ट कोण 99° तथा 81° होगे।

प्रश्न 10.
सुमित की आयु उसके बेटे की आयु की तीन गुनी है। पाँच वर्षा के बाद, उसकी आयु अपने बेटे की आयु की ढ़ाई गुना हो जाएगी। इस समय सुमित की आयु कितने वर्ष है?
हल :
माना सुमित की वर्तमान आयु x वर्ष तथा उसके पुत्र की वर्तमान आयु y वर्ष है।
प्रश्नानुसार, x = 3y ………(i)
पाँच वर्ष बाद, सुमीत की आयु = (x + 5)
पाँच वर्ष बाद, पुत्र की आयु = (y + 5)
प्रश्नानुसार, x + 5 = 2\(\frac{1}{2}\)(y + 5) …………(ii)
समीकरण (i) का मान समीकरण (ii) में रखने पर,
3y + 5 = \(\frac{5}{2}\)(y + 5)
3y + 5 = \(\frac{5y}{2}=\frac{25}{2}\)
3y – \(\frac{5y}{2}\) = \(\frac{25}{2}\) – 5
\(\frac{6 y-5 y}{2}=\frac{25-10}{2}\)
\(\frac{y}{2}=\frac{15}{2}\)
समीकरण (i) से,
y = 15 वर्ष
x = 3 × 15 = 45 वर्ष
अतः सुमित की वर्तमान आयु 45 वर्ष तथा उसके पुत्र की वर्तमान आयु 15 वर्ष है।

प्रश्न 11.
एक पिता की आयु अपने दो बच्चों की आयु के योग के तीन गुने के समान है। 5 वर्ष के पश्चात् उसकी आयु बच्चों की आयु के योग के दुगुने के समान होगी। पिता की वर्तमान आयु ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
माना, पिता की वर्तमान आयु x वर्ष है तथा उसके दोनों बच्चों की वर्तमान आयु का योग y वर्ष है।
प्रश्नानुसार,
x = 3y …………….(i)
पाँच वर्ष बाद, पिता की आयु = x + 5
पाँच वर्ष बाद पुत्रों की आयु = (y + 5 + 5)
प्रश्नानुसर,
x + 5 = 2 (y + 5 + 5)
x + 5 = 2 ( y + 10 ) …………(ii)
x = 3y, समीकरण (ii) में रखने पर,
3y + 5 = 2y + 20
y = 15 वर्ष
अब, y = 15 समीकरण (i) में रखने पर,
x = 3 × 15
x = 45 वर्ष
अतः पिता की वर्तमान आयु 45 वर्ष है।

प्रश्न 12.
एक भिन्न \(\frac{1}{3}\) हो जाती है, अब उसके अंश से 2 घटाया जाता है, और \(\frac{1}{2}\) वह हो जाती है, जब हर में से 1 घटाया जाए। वह भिन्न ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
मान कि भिन्न \(\frac{x}{y}\) है
प्रश्नानुसार, \(\frac{x-2}{y}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\) …………(i)
तथा \(\frac{x}{y-1}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ 2x = y – 1
⇒ 2x + 1 = y …………(ii)
समीकरण (i) में y = 2x + 1, रखने पर,
\(\frac{x-2}{2 x+1}=\frac{1}{3}\)
3x – 6 = 2x + 1
x = 7
अब, समीकरण (ii) में x = 7 रखने पर,
y = 2 × 7 + 1
y = 15
अतः अभीष्ट भिन्न \(\frac{7}{15}\) है।

प्रश्न 13.
5 पेंसिलों तथा 7 पेनों का कुल मूल्य ₹ 250 है जबकि 7 पेंसिलों तथा 5 पेनों का कुल मूल्य ₹ 302 है। एक पेंसिल तथा एक पेन का मूल्य ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
माना एक पेंसिल का मूल्य ₹ तथा एक पेन का मूल्य ₹ y है।
प्रश्नानुसार,
5x + 7y = 250 ……..(1)
7x + 5y = 302 ………(2)
समीकरण (1) को 5 से तथा समीकरण (2) को 7 से गुणा करने पर
25x + 35y = 1250 ……..(3)
49x + 35y = 2114 ……..(4)
समीकरण (4) में समीकरण (3) घटाने पर

समीकरण (1) में x = 36 रखने पर,
5 × 36 + 7y = 250
7y = 250 – 180
y = \(\frac{70}{7}\) = 10
अत: एक पेंसिल का मूल्य = ₹ 36
तथा एक पेन का मूल्य = ₹ 10

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित समीकरण युग्म को व्रज-गुणन विधि से हल कीजिए:
x – 3y – 7 = 0
3x – 5y – 15 = 0
हल :
दिया गया समीकरण युग्म
x – 3y – 7 = 0
3x – 5y – 15 = 0
व्रज गुणन विधि से,

तथा \(\frac{y}{-6}=\frac{1}{4}\) ⇒ y = \(\frac{-6}{4}=\frac{-3}{2}\)
अत: x = \(\frac{5}{2}\) और y = \(\frac{-3}{2}\)

प्रश्न 15.
दो संख्याओं का अन्तर 26 है तथा बड़ी संख्या, छोटी संख्या के तीन गुने से 4 अधिक है। संख्याएँ ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
माना दो संख्याएँ x और y हैं। यहाँ x > y है।
प्रश्नानुसार x – y = 26 ………(i)
तथा x = 3y +4 ………..(ii)
समीकरण (ii) x = 3y + 4 समीकरण (i) में रखने पर
3y + 4 – y = 26
⇒ 2y = 26 – 4
⇒ y = \(\frac{22}{2}\) = 11
समीकरण (i) में y = 11 रखने पर,
x – 11 = 26
⇒ x = 26 + 11 = 37
अत: संख्याएँ 37 और 11 हैं।

प्रश्न 16.
x और y के मान ज्ञात कीजिए :
\(\frac{2}{x}+\frac{3}{y}\) = 13
\(\frac{5}{x}-\frac{4}{y}\) = – 2
हल :
माना \(\frac{1}{x}\) = a तथा \(\frac{1}{y}\) = b, तब दिए गए समीकरण निम्न प्रकार से होगे :
2a + 3b = 13 …………(i)
5a – 4b = – 2 …………(ii)
समीकरण (i) को 4 से तथा (ii) को उसे गुणा करके जोड़ने पर,
8a + 12b = 52
15a – 12b = – 6
23a = 46
⇒ a = \(\frac{46}{23}\) = 2
समीकरण (i) में a = 2 रखने पर,
2 × 2 + 3b = 13
⇒ 3b = 13 – 4 = 9
⇒ b = \(\frac{9}{3}\) = 3
अब a = \(\frac{1}{x}\) ⇒ \(\frac{1}{x}\) = 2 ⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
और b = \(\frac{1}{y}\) ⇒ \(\frac{1}{y}\) = 3 ⇒ y = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
अतः x = \(\frac{1}{2}\) तथा y = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

प्रश्न 17.
k के किन मानों (किस मान) के लिए निम्न समीकरणों के युग्म का एक अद्वितीय हल है :
x + 2y = 5 और 3x + ky + 15 = 0
हल :
दिया है, समीकरण युग्मः
x + 2y = 5
और 3x + ky + 15 = 0
दिए गए समीकरणों के युग्म की समीकरणों a₁x + b₁y + c₁ = 0 तथा a₂x + b₂y + c₂ = 0 से तुलना करने पर,
a₁ = 1, b₁ = 2, c = – 5, a₂ = 3, b₂ = k, c₂ = 15
∵ दिए गए युग्म का एक अद्वितीय हल है,
∴ \(\frac{a_1}{a_2}\) ≠ \(\frac{b_1}{b_2}\)
अर्थात् \(\frac{1}{3}\) ≠ \(\frac{2}{k}\)
k ≠ 6
अत: 6 के अतिरिक्त, k के प्रत्येक मान के लिए दिए हुए समीकरणों के युग्म का एक अद्वितीय हल होगा।

प्रश्न 18.
c का मान कीजिए, यदि समीकरण निकाय cx + 3y + (3 – c) = 0, 12x + cy – c = 0 के अपरिमित रूप से अनेक हल हैं।
हल :
दिए गए समीकरण हैं :
cx + 3y + (3 – c) = 0
तथा 12x + cy – c = 0
दिए गए समीकरण युग्म की समीकरण युग्म a₁x + b₁y + c₁ = 0 तथा a₂x + b₂y + c₂ = 0 से तुलना करने पर,
a₁ = c, b₁ = 3, c₁ = 3 – c
तथा a₂ = 12, b₂ = c, c₂ = – c
रैखिक समीकरणों के युग्म के अपरिमित रूप से अनेक हल होने के लिए शर्त:

प्रश्न 19.
K का मान ज्ञात कीजिए यदि समीकरण निकाय 2x + 3y = 7, (k + 1) x + (2k – 1) y = 4k + 1 के अपरिमित रूप से अनेक हल हैं।
हल :
दिए गए समीकरणों का निकाय है:
2x + 3y = 7
तथा (k + 1) x + (2k – 1)y = 4k + 1
जहाँ, a₁ = 2, b₁ = 3, तथा c₁ = – 7
और a₂ = (k + 1), b₂ = (2k – 1) तथा c₂ = – (4k + 1)
रैखिक समीकरणों के युग्म के अपरिमित रूप में अनेक हल होने के लिए शर्त

⇒ 4k – 2 = 3k + 3
4k – 3k = 3 + 2
k = 5
तथा 12k + 3 = 14k – 7
12k – 14k = – 7 – 3
– 2k = – 10
k = 5
अतः k = 5 है।

रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए :

प्रश्न (क)

1. दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण का आलेख सदैव एक ………………. रेखा को निरूपित करता है।
2. वह समीकरण युग्म जिसका हल अद्वितीय होता है, रैखिक समीकरणों का ………….. युग्म कहलाता है।
3. वह समीकरण युग्म जिसका कोई हल नहीं है, रैखिक समीकरणों का ………………… युग्म कहलाता है।
4. k का वह मान जिसके लिए समीकरण निकाय x + 2y = 3 तथा 5x + ky = 7 का कोई हल नहीं है, है ……………..
5. ………………… विधि में दोनों समीकरणों के दो चरों में से एक चर के गुणांक के समान करके विलुप्त कर दूसरे चर का मान ज्ञात करते हैं।

हल :

1. सरल,
2. संगत,
3. असंगत,
4. 10 या ± \(\frac{14}{3}\)
5. विलोपन

निम्न कथनों में सत्य / असत्य बताइए :

प्रश्न (ख)

1. दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण का आलेख सदैव एक सरल रेखा को निरूपित करता है।
2. x और y के मानों से सम्बद्ध कोई भी युग्म जो दोनों समीकरणों को सन्तुष्ट करता हो, युग्म का शून्यक कहलाता है।
3. प्रतिच्छेदी रेखाओं के अनन्त हल होते हैं।
4. संपाती रेखाओं का केवल एक हल होता है।
5. समांतर रेखाओं का निकाय असंगत होता है।

हल :

1. सत्य,
2. सत्य,
3. असत्य,
4. असत्य,
5. सत्य

(ग) बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न :

प्रश्न 1.
k का वह मान जिसके लिए समीकरण निकाय x + y – 4 = 0 तथा 2x + ky = 3 का कोई हल नहीं है, है:
(A) – 2
(B) ≠ 2
(C) 3
(D) 2
हल :
दिया है, निकाय का कोई हल नहीं है।

अत: सही विकल्प (D) है।

प्रश्न 2.
K का वह मान जिनके लिए रैखिक समीकरण युग्म kx + y = k² तथा x + ky = 1 के अपरिमित रूप से अनेक हल हैं, है:
(A) ± 1
(B) 1
(C) – 1
(D) 2
हल :
अपरिमित रूप से अनेक हल के लिए शर्त :

अतः सही विकल्प (A) है।

प्रश्न 3.
k का वहमान जिसके लिए रैखिक समीकरण निकाय x + 2y = 3, 5x + ky + 7 = 0 असंगत है, है :
(A) \(\frac{-14}{3}\)
(B) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
(C) 5
(D) 10
हल :
रैखिक समीकरण निकाय के लिए अंसगत होने के लिए शर्त्त :

अत: सही विकल्प (D) है।

प्रश्न 4.
रैखिक समीकरणों y = 0 तथा y = – 6 के युग्म का एक:
(A) अद्वितीय हल है
(B) कोई हल नहीं है
(C) अनेक हल हैं
(D) सिर्फ एक हल (0, 0) है
हल :
सही विकल्प (B) है।

प्रश्न 5.
रैखिक समीकरणों \(\frac{3 x}{2}+\frac{5 y}{3}\) = 7 तथा 9x + 10y = 10 का युग्म :
(A) संगत है
(B) असंगत है
(C) संगत है तथा सिर्फ एक हल है।
(D) संगत है तथा अनेक हल हैं
हल :

अतः सही विकल्प (B) है।

प्रश्न 6.
k का मान जिसके लिए समीकरण 3x – y + 8 = 0 तथा 6x + ky = – 16 संपाती रेखाओं को व्यक्त करें, है:
(A) –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(C) 2
(D) – 2
हल :
∵ संपाती रेखाओं के लिए शर्त :

अत: सही विकल्प (D) है।

प्रश्न 7.
यदि रैखिक समीकरणों का कोई युग्म संगत हो, तो इसके आलेख की रेखाएँ होंगी :
(A) समांतर
(B) सदैव संपाती
(C) प्रतिच्छेदी या संपाती
(D) सदैव प्रतिच्छेदी
हल :
सही विकल्प (C) है।

प्रश्न 8.
समीकरण x = a और y = b का युग्म आलेखीय रूप से वे रेखाएँ निरूपित करता है, जो :
(A) समांतर हैं-
(B) (b, a) पर प्रतिच्छेद करती हैं।
(C) संपाती हैं
(D) (a, b) पर प्रतिच्छेद करती हैं
हल :
सही विकल्प (D) हैं।

प्रश्न 9.
आश्रित रैखिक समीकरणों के युग्म का एक समीकरण – 5x + 7 = 2 है। दूसरा समीकरण हो सकता है –
(A) 10x + 14y + 4 = 0
(B) – 10x – 14y + 4 = 0
(C) – 10x + 14y + 4 = 0
(D) 10x – 14y = – 4
हल :
सही विकल्प (D) है।

प्रश्न 10.
मेरी आयु पुत्र की आयु की तिगुनी है। 13 वर्ष बाद मेरी आयु पुत्र की आयु की दुगुनी रह जाएगी। मेरी और मेरे पुत्र की आयु बताइए-
(A) 39 वर्ष, 13 वर्ष
(B) 45 वर्ष, 15 वर्ष
(C) 30 वर्ष, 10 वर्ष
(D) 36 वर्ष, 12 वर्ष ।
हल :
मान लीजिए मेरी आयु (वर्षो में) x और मेरे पुत्र की आयु (वर्षो में) y है ।
प्रश्नानुसार, x = 3y ⇒ x – 3y = 0 … (i)
और x + 13 = 2(y + 13)
अर्थात् x – 2y = 26 – 13
⇒ x – 2y – 13 = 0
वज्रगुणन द्वारा समी. (i) व (ii) को हल करने पर

अर्थात् मेरी आयु 39 वर्ष और मेरे पुत्र की आयु 13 वर्ष है।
अत: सही विकल्प (A) है।

प्रश्न 11.
दो अंकों वाली संख्या के अंकों का योगफल 7 है। अंकों का क्रम उलट देने पर प्राप्त संख्या पहली संख्या से 9 अधिक है। वह संख्या ज्ञात कीजिए :
(A) 43
(B) 34
(C) 52
(D) 25
हल :
मान लीजिए दी हुई संख्या में दहाई अंक x और इकाई अंक y है। तब
दी हुई संख्या = 10x + y
अंकों का क्रम उलटने पर संख्या = 10y + x
प्रश्नानुसार, x + y = 7 ⇒ x + y – 7 = 0 ………….(i)
और (10x + y) + 9 = 10y + x
और 9x – 9y + 9 = 0
या x – y + 1 = 0 ……(ii)
समी. (i) व (ii) को वज्रगुणन द्वारा हल करने पर,

अतः अभीष्ट संख्या = 10x + y = 10 × 3 + 4 = 30 + 4 = 34 है।
सही विकल्प (B) है।

प्रश्न 12.
एक लड़के की आयु अभी अपनी माता की आयु की एक तिहाई है। यदि माता की वर्तमान आयु x वर्ष है तो 12 वर्ष बाद लड़के की आयु होगी :
(A) \(\frac{x}{3}\) + 12
(B) \(\frac{x+12}{3}\)
(C) x + 4
(D) \(\frac{x}{3}\) – 12
हल :
यहाँ माता की वर्तमान आयु = x वर्ष
माना पुत्र की वर्तमान आयु = y वर्ष
लेकिन प्रश्नानुसार, y = x × \(\frac{1}{3}\)
y = \(\frac{x}{3}\)
पुत्र की 12 वर्ष पश्चात् आयु = (y + 12) वर्ष
y = \(\frac{x}{3}\) रखने पर
अतः 12 वर्ष बाद लड़के की आयु = \(\frac{x}{3}\) + 12
सही विकल्प (A) है।

प्रश्न 13.
C के किस मान के लिए समीकरण युग्म Cx – y = 2 तथा 6x – 2y = 3 के अनन्त हल हैं:
(A) 3
(B) – 3
(C) – 12
(D) कोई मान नहीं
हल :
समीकरण युग्म को निम्न प्रकार लिखा जा सकता है :
Cx – y – 2 = 0 ……………(i)
तथा 6x – 2y – 3 = 0 ……………(ii)
समीकरण युग्म के अनन्त हल के लिए प्रतिबन्ध

अत: विकल्प (D) सही है।

प्रश्न 14.
k के किस मान के लिए समीकरण युग्म 4x – 3y = 9, 2x + ky = 11 का कोई हल नहीं है-
(A) \(\frac{9}{11}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(C) \(\frac{-3}{2}\)
(D) \(\frac{-2}{3}\)
हल :
दिया गया समीकरण युग्म है :
4x – 3y – 9 = 0, 2x + ky – 11 = 0
कोई हल न होने के लिए प्रतिबन्ध

⇒ k = \(\frac{-3}{2}\) या k ≠ \(\frac{-11}{3}\)
अतः k = \(\frac{-3}{2}\)
अत: सही विकल्प (C) है।

प्रश्न 15.
यदि समीकरणों 5x + 2y = 16 और 3x + \(\frac{6}{5}\)y = 2 का हल होगा :
(A) संगत
(B) असंगत
(C) दोनों (A) और (B)
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
हल :
दिए गए समीकरण युग्म की निम्न प्रकार से भी लिख सकते हैं-
5x + 2y – 16 = 0 ……….(i)
15x + 6y – 10 = 0 ……….(ii)

अतः दिए गए समीकरण युग्म का कोई हल नहीं है। दिया गया समीकरण युग्म असंगत है ।
सही विकल्प (B) है।

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Trigonometry Ex 8.4 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Trigonometry Exercise 8.4

Question 1.
Express the trigonometric ratios sin A, sec A and tan A in terms of cot A.
Solution :
(i) We know that, cosec²A = 1 + cot² A ⇒ cosec A = \(\sqrt{1+\cot ^2 \mathrm{~A}}\)

Question 2.
Write all the other trigonometric ratios of ∠A in terms of sec A.
Solution :
(i) sin A sin² A + cos² A = 1
sin² A = 1 – cos² A

Question 3.
Evaluate:
(i) \(\frac{\sin ^2 63^{\circ}+\sin ^2 27^{\circ}}{\cos ^2 17^{\circ}+\cos ^2 73^{\circ}}\)
(ii) sin 25° cos 65° + cos 25° sin 65°.
Solution :
(i) \(\frac{\sin ^2 63^{\circ}+\sin ^2 27^{\circ}}{\cos ^2 17^{\circ}+\cos ^2 73^{\circ}}\)
sin (90 – θ) = cos θ
sin (90 – 27°) = cos 27°
sin 63° = cos 27°
sin² 63 = cos² 27°

cos (90 – θ) = sin θ
cos (90° – 73°) = sin 73°
cos (17°) = sin 73°
cos² 17° = sin² 73°

(ii) sin 25° cos 65° + cos 25° sin 65°
sin (90° – θ) = cos θ
sin (90° – 25°) = cos 25°
sin (90° – 65°) = cos 65°
sin 25° = cos 65°

cos (90° – θ) = sin θ
cos (90° – 65°) = sin 65°
cos 25° = sin 65°

sin 25° = cos 65°
cos 65° . cos 65° + sin 65° . sin 65°
∴ cos² 65 + sin² 65 = 1

Question 4.
Choose the correct option. Justify your choice.
(i) 9 sec² A – 9 tan² A=
(A) 1
(B) 9
(C) 8
(D) 0
Solution :
9 sec² A – 9 tan² A
9(1 + tan² A) – 9 tan² A
9 + 9 tan² A – 9 tan² A = 9.
∴ 9 sec² A – 9 tan² A = 9.

(ii) (1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot 0 – cosec θ) =
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) – 1
Solution :

(iii) (sec A + tan A) (1 – sin A) =
(A) sec A
(B) sin A
(C) cosec A
(D) cos A
Solution :

(iv) \(\frac{1+\tan ^2 A}{1+\cot ^2 A}\) =
(A) sec² A
(B) – 1
(C) cot² A
(D) tan² A
Solution :

Question 5.
Prove the following identities, where the angles involved are acute angles for which the expressions are defined.
Solution :

(viii) (sin A + cosec A)² + (cos A + sec A)² = 7 + tan² A + cot² A.

LHS = sin² A + cosec² A + 2 sin A cosec A + cos² A + sec² A + 2 cos A sec A [∵ (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab]
= (sin² A + cos² A) + (1 + cot² A) + 2 sin A . \(\frac{1}{sin A}\) + (1 + tan² A) + 2 cos A . \(\frac{1}{cos A}\) (∵ 1 + cot² A = cosec² A and sec² A = 1 + tan² A)
= 1 + 1 + cot² A + 2 + 1 + tan² A + 2 (∵ sin² A + cos² A = 1)
= 7 + tan² A + cot² A = RHS.

(ix) (cosec A – sin A) (sec A – cos A) = \(\frac{1}{\tan A+\cot A}\)
Solution :
[Hint: Simplify LHS and RHS separately].
LHS = (cosec A – sin A) (sec A – cos A)

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 11 Constructions Ex 11.1 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 11 Constructions Exercise 11.1

In each of the following, give the justification of the construction also:

Question 1.
Draw a line segment of length 7.6 cm and divide it in the ratio 5 : 8. Measure the two parts.
Solution :

Steps of construction:
1. Draw the line segment AB = 7.6 cm.
2. At A, below AB, make an angle BAx = 30°.
3. At B, above AB, make an angle ABy = 30°.
B\(\hat{A}\)x = A\(\hat{B}\)y = 30°
These are alternate angles. ∴ Ax || By.
4. With a convenient radius cut off five equal parts
AA₁ = A₁A₂ = A₂A₃ = A₃A₄ = A₄A₅ in Ax.
5. With the same radius cut off eight equal parts.
BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ = B₃B₄ = B₄B₅ = B₅B₆ = B₆B₇ = B₇B₈.
6. Join A₅B₈. Let it cut AB at C.
AC : CB = 5 : 8.

In ΔACA₅ and CBB₈
1. A\(\hat{C}\)A₅ = B\(\hat{C}\)B₈ (V.O.A.)
2. C\(\hat{A}\)A₅ = A\(\hat{B}\)B₈ (Alternate angles)
3. C\(\hat{A}\)₅A = B\(\hat{B}\)₈C (Alternate angles)
Δs are equiangular.
∴\(\frac{\mathrm{AA}_5}{\mathrm{BB}_8}=\frac{\mathrm{CA}_5}{\mathrm{AB}_8}=\frac{\mathrm{CA}}{\mathrm{BC}}\)
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{CA}}{\mathrm{BC}}=\frac{\mathrm{AA}_5}{\mathrm{BB}_8}=\frac{5}{8}\)

Question 2.
Construct a triangle of sides 4 cm, 5 cm and 6 cm and then a triangle similar to it whose sides are \(\frac{2}{3}\) of the corresponding sides of the first triangle.
Solution :

Steps of construction:

1. Construct ΔABC given AB = 4 cm, BC = 5 cm, AC = cm.
2. At B, make an acute angle CBx.
3. Divide Bx into three equal parts with a convenient radius.
4. Join B₃C.
5. From B₂ draw a parallel to B₃C.
6. Let it cut BC at C’.
7. At C’ make angle A’C’B = ACB.

Join A’C’.
∴ ΔABC ||| A’BC’.

In ΔABC and ΔA’BC’,
1.A\(\hat{B}\)C = A’\(\hat{B}\)C’ (Common angle)
2. A\(\hat{C}\)B = A’\(\hat{C’}\)B (Corresponding angles)
3. B\(\hat{A}\)C = B\(\hat{A’}\)C’ (Remaining angles)
Δs are equiangular.
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{AC}}{\mathrm{A}^{\prime} \mathrm{C}^{\prime}}=\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{A}^{\prime} \mathrm{B}^{\prime}}=\frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{BC} \mathrm{C}^{\prime}}\) = \(\frac{3}{2}\) ∴ [latex]\frac{BC’}{BC}=\frac{2}{3}[/latex]

Question 3.
Construct a triangle with sides 5 cm, 6 cm and 7 cm and then another triangle whose sides are \(\frac{7}{5}\) of the corresponding sides of the first triangle.
Solution :
Steps of construction:

1. Construct a triangle ABC given BC= 7 cm, AB = 5 cm, AC = 6 cm.
2. At B, below BC, make an acute angle CBx.
3. With a convenient radius cut off seven equal parts BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ = B₃B₄ = B₄B₅ = B₅B₆ = B₆B₇.
4. Join B₅C.
5. From B₁ draw a parallel to B₅C to cut BC produced at C’.
6. At C’ draw a parallel to CA to meet BA produced at A’.

A’BC’ is the required triangle.
In ΔABC and ΔA’BC’

Question 4.
Construct an isosceles triangle whose base is 8 cm and altitude 4 cm and then another triangle whose sides are 1\(\frac{1}{2}\) times the corresponding sides of the isosceles triangle.
Solution :

Steps of construction:

1. Draw a line segment BC = 8 cm.
2. Draw its perpendicular bisector.
3. Cut off DA = 4 cm. (altitude given)
4. Join AB and AC. ABC is the required triangle.
5. At B, below BC, draw an acute angle CBx.
6. With a convenient radius cut off three equal parts BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃.
7. Join B₂C.
8. At B₃ draw a parallel to B₂C to meet BC extended at C’.
9. At C’ draw a parallel to CA to meet BA produced at A’.
10. Join A’C’. A’BC’ is the required triangle similar to ΔABC.

In ΔA’BC’ and ABC
1. A’\(\hat{B}\)C’ = A\(\hat{B}\)C (Common angle)
2. B\(\hat{A}\)‘C’ = B\(\hat{A}\)C (Corresponding angles)
3. A’\(\hat{C}\)‘B = A\(\hat{C}\)B
Δs are equiangular.
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{A}^{\prime} \mathrm{C}^{\prime}}{\mathrm{AC}}=\frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{BC}}=\frac{\mathrm{A}^{\prime} \mathrm{B}}{\mathrm{AB}}\)
\(\frac{BC’}{BC}\) = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
BC = 8 cm, BC’ = 8 × \(\frac{3}{2}\) = 12 cm.
BA = CA = 5.6 cm ∴ A’B = A’C’ = 5.6 × \(\frac{3}{2}\) = 8.4 cm.

Question 5.
Draw a triangle ABC with side BC = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm and ∠ABC = 60°. Then construct a triangle whose sides are \(\frac{3}{4}\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle ABC.
Solution :

Steps of construction:

1. Construct ΔABC given BC = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm, A\(\hat{B}\)C = 60°.
2. At B, below BC, make an acute angle CBx.
3. In Bx cut off four equal parts BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ = B₃B₄
4. Join B₄C.
5. From B₃ draw a parallel to B₄C to meet BC at C’.
6. At C’ draw a parallel to CA to meet CA at A’.

A’BC’ is the required triangle similar to ΔABC.
In Δs A’BC’ and ABC

Question 6.
Draw a triangle ABC with side BC = 7 cm, ∠B = 45°, ∠A = 105°. Then, construct a triangle whose sides are \(\frac{4}{3}\) times the corresponding sides of ΔABC.
Solution :

\(\hat{A}\) + \(\hat{B}\) + \(\hat{C}\) = 180°
\(\hat{A}\) + \(\hat{B}\) = 150° (105° + 45°)
∴ \(\hat{C}\) = 30°
Steps of construction:
1. In ΔABC, BC = 7 cm.
\(\hat{B}\) = 45°, \(\hat{C}\) = 105°
∴ \(\hat{A}\) = 180° – 45° – 105°
= 180° – 150° = 30°.
Construct ΔABC given BC = 7 cm, \(\hat{B}\) = 45°, \(\hat{C}\) = 30°.
2. At B draw an acute angle CBx.
3. In Bx cut off four equal parts BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ = B₃B₄ with a convenient radius.
4. Join B₃C.
5. At B₄ draw a parallel to B₃C to meet BC produced at C’.
6. At C’ make angle of 30° equal to A\(\hat{C}\)B. Let it meet BA produced at A’.
A’BC’ is the required triangle similar to ΔABC.
In ΔC’BB₄ CB₃ || C’B₄

Question 7.
Draw a right triangle in which the sides (other than hypotenuse) are of lengths 4 cm and 3 cm. Then construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac{5}{3}\) times the corresponding sides of the given triangle.
Solution :

BC’ = \(\frac{5}{3}\) × BC = \(\frac{5}{3}\) × 3 = 5 cm
BA’= \(\frac{5}{3}\) × 4 = \(\frac{20}{3}\) = 6.6 cm
A’C’ = \(\frac{5}{3}\) × 5 = \(\frac{25}{3}\) = 8.3 cm.

Steps of construction:

1. Construct ΔABC given BC= 3 cm, \(\hat{B}\) = 90°, BA = 4 cm.
2. At B, make an acute angle CBx.
3. Cut off five equal parts BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ = B₃B₄ = B₄B₅ along Bx with a convenient radius.
4. Join B₃C.
5. At B₅ draw a parallel to B₃C to meet BC produced at C’.
6. At C’ draw a parallel to CA to meet BA produced at A’.

A’BC’ is the required triangle similar to ΔABC.
BC’ : BC = BB₅ = BB₃
\(\frac{\mathrm{BC}^{\prime}}{\mathrm{BC}}=\frac{\mathrm{BB}_5}{\mathrm{BB}_3}\) = \(\frac{5}{3}\)

In Δs A’BC’ and ABC
1. A’\(\hat{B}\)C’ = A\(\hat{B}\)C = 90°
2. B\(\hat{A}\)‘C’ = B\(\hat{A}\)C (Corresponding angles)
3. B\(\hat{C}\)‘A’ = B\(\hat{C}\)A
Δs are equiangular.
∴ \(\frac{A’C’}{AC}\) = \(\frac{BC’}{BC}\) = \(\frac{BA’}{BA}\) = \(\frac{5}{3}\)

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 6 Population

I. Objective Type Questions

1. What is the counting of people in a country known as?
(a) census
(b) migration
(c) birth rate
(d) death rate.
Answer:
(a) census

2. Which of the following is calculated as the number of persons per unit area?
(a) population distribution
(b) population density
(c) total population
(d) None of the these.
Answer:
(b) population density

3. The population is generally grouped into which of the following categories?
(a) Aged (Above 59 years)
(b) Children (generally below 15 years)
(c) Working Age (15-59 years)
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

4. From which of the following years, the birth rates started declining, resulting in a gradual decline in the birth of India?
(a) 1976
(b) 1990
(c) 1981
(d) 1988.
Answer:
(c) 1981

5. Which of the following along with basic sanitation amenities is available to only one- third of the rural population?
(a) Food Security
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) Safe Drinking Water.
Answer:
(d) Safe Drinking Water.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is census?
Answer:
The census is the process of collection, compilation and publication of information relating to different aspects of people living in a country at a specific point of time.

Question 2.
When was the first census held in India?
Answer:
The first census in India (on a limited scale) was held in 1872. The first complete census was taken in 1881 and subsequently it has been taken every 10 years.

Question 3.
What is the total population of India according to 2011 Census?
Answer:
1,210.6 million.

Question 4.
What is India’s share in world population?
Answer:
About 17.5%.

Question 5.
Name the state having highest population in India.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 6.
Which are the most populated and least populated states in India?
Answer:
The most populated state in India is Uttar Pradesh and least populated is Sikkim.

Question 7.
Almost 50% of India’s population lives in five states. Write their names.
Answer:
Almost 50% of India population lives in the five states of Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 8.
Name the less populated states of India.
Answer:
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Assam, Tripura, Naga-land, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 9.
Name the states of India having high density of population.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What is the population density of India according to 2011 Census?
Answer:
It is 382 persons per square kilometre.

Question 11.
What is the major reason for the state of Kerala having a very high population density?
Answer:
Kerala has a very high population density because it has fertile soil and gets abundant rainfall, thus resulting in good prospects for agriculture.

Question 12.
What is called as annual growth rate?
Answer:
The rate or the pace of population increase per annum is called as the annual growth rate.

Question 13.
Mention the factors responsible for the population change.
Answer:

1. Death Rate,
2. Birth Rate,
3. Migration.

Question 15.
What kind of migration does not change the size of the population in a country?
Answer:
Internal migration from one city to another or from rural areas to urban areas within a country does not change the size of the population.

Question 16.
What type of migration leads to changes in the distribution of population within the nation?
Answer:
Internal migration leads to changes in the distribution of population within the nation.

Question 17.
What are the three divisions of age composition?
Answer:

1. Children (0-14 years age group),
2. Working Age (15-59 years), and
3. Aged (Above 59 years).

Question 18.
What is the sex-ratio in India according to 2011 Census?
Answer:
It is 943 females per 100 males.

Question 19.
Which states of India have the highest and the lowest sex ratio?
Answer:
Kerala has the highest sex ratio of 1084 and Haryana has the lowest sex ratio of 877 (as per the 2011 census).

Question 20.
In which state of India the sex ratio is favourable to women?
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 21.
Who is called a literate?
Answer:
A person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate. ‘

Question 22.
What is the literacy rate for the country as a whole?
Answer:
It is about 73 per cent.

Question 23.
What is the male and female literary rate and the general literacy level in India as per census 2011?
Answer:
As per census of 2011, the male literacy rate is 80.90% female literacy rate is 64.6% and general literacy rate is 74.04%.

Question 24.
Name the state having the highest literacy rate in India.
Answer:
Kerela.

Question 25.
What is known as occupational structure?
Answer:
The distribution of working population of an economy according to different occupations is known as occupational distribution of population or occupational structure.

Question 26.
What are the three sectors of occupations?
Answer:

1. Primary sector,
2. Secondary sector,
3. Tertiary sector.

Question 27.
What are primary activities?
Answer:
Primary activities include agriculture, animal husbandary, forestry, fishing, mining and quarrying etc.

Question 28.
What are secondary activities?
Answer:
Secondary activities include manufacturing industry, building and construction work etc.

Question 29.
What are tertiary activities?
Answer:
Tertiary activities include transport, communication, commerce, banking, administration and other services.

Question 30.
What is adolescent population?
Answer:
Adolescents are generally grouped in the age-group of 10 to 19 years. It constitutes one-fifth of the total population of India.

Question 31.
When was the comprehensive Family Planning Programme launched?
Answer:
In 1952.

Question 32.
When did the National Population Policy come into effect?
Answer:
The National Population Policy come into effect in the year 2000.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the three major aspects of population study?
Answer:
1. Population size and distribution:
First of all, we have to see how many people are there in India and where they are located. Then we have to see which states are the most populated states and which are sparsely populated states.

2. Population growth and processes of population change: The second major aspect of population study is how the population has grown and how it has changed overtime.

3. Characteristics or qualities of the population: It includes the study of age, sex composition, literacy, occupational structure and health conditions of the people.

Question 2.
How is population density calculated? Where does India stand as compared to other countries with respect to population?
Answer:
The population density is calculated as the number of persons per unit of area. India’s stand in population density with respect to other countries is discussed below: India is one of the most densely-populated countries in the world.

As per census report 2011, the population density of India was 382 persons per sq. km. Due to change in climatic conditions, economic opportunities and other geographical factors, India has very regular distribution of population ranging from 1102 persons per sq. km. in Bi’ ar to only 17 persons per sq. km in Arunachal Pradesh. India is the third most dense country in the world after Bangladesh and Japan.

Question 3.
What is the growth of population?
Answer:
Growth of population refers to the change in the number of inhabitants of a country territory during a specific period of time, say during the last ten years. It can be expressed in two ways:

1. In terms of absolute numbers,
2. In terms of percentage change per year.

Question 4.
Describe the term annual growth rate of population. How is it affected by the birth rate?
Answer:
1. Annual Growth Rate: The rate at which the number of individuals in a population increase in one year as a fraction of the initial population is called annual growth rate of population. Effects of Birth

2. Rate on Annual Growth Rate: The annual growth rate is affected by the birth rate in the following ways.

1. With the increase in birth rate, the annual growth rate generally increases.
2. For a larger population even having a lower birth rate, the annual growth rate keeps on increasing.
3. For example, since 1981, the birth rate declined rapidly; still, 182 million people were added to the total population in 1990s alone. If we calculate annual growth rate based on this data, it becomes very high.

Question 5.
What are the causes of migration in India from rural to urban areas?
Answer:
Migration from rural to urban areas in India has taken place mainly due to:

1. Rising population in rural areas.
2. Poverty and unemployment in rural areas.
3. Lack of demand for labour in agriculture.
4. Increased employment opportunities, better education and living standard in urban areas.
5. Expansion of industrial and service sectors in the urban areas.

Question 6.
Explain the categorisation of the population of a nation on the basis of age composi¬tion.
Answer:
The population of a nation is generally grouped into three categories :

1. Children (below 15 years), who are economically unproductive and need to be provided with food, clothing, education and healthcare.
2. Working age (15 to 59 years), who are economically productive and biologically reproductive. They comprise the working population.
3. The aged or elderly (60 years and above), who can be economically productive though they may have retired. They may be working voluntarily, but they are not available for employment through recruitment.

Question 7.
What is the relationship between age composition and dependency ratio ? Briefly explain.
Answer:
Relationship between age composition and dependency ratio is as follows :

1. Children below 15 years of age are economically unproductive and people aged above 59 years do not get employment through recruitment.
2. The percentage of children and the aged affects the dependency ratio because these groups are not producers but are usually only consumers.

Question 8.
What are the reasons for low literacy rate among women in India?
Answer:

1. In India, women generally look after domestic work and are left with no time to get education, which leads to low literacy rate among them, mostly in rural areas of the country.
2. Lack of awareness and economic backwardness are other reasons for low literacy rate among women.

Question 9.
What do you understand by occupational structure? Briefly describe the occupational structure of India.
Answer:
1. Occupational structure: The distribution of population according to different types of occupations is referred to as the occupational structure.

2. Occupational Structure of India: In India, about 64 percent of the population is engaged only in agriculture. The proportion of population dependent on secondary and tertiary sectors is about 13 and 20 percent respectively. There has been an occupational shift in favour of secondary and tertiary sectors because of growing industrialisation and urbanisation in recent times.

Question 10.
Into how many categories are occupations generally classified?
Answer:
Occupations are generally classified into three categories:

1. Primary occupations: These include agriculture, animal husbandry, forestry, fishing, mining and quarrying etc.
2. Secondary occupations: These include manufacturing industry, building and construction works etc.
3. Tertiary occupations: These include transport, communication, commerce, banking, administration and other services.

III. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write an essay on the population distribution in India.
Answer:
Population of our country is not evenly distributed. Some regions have high density of population. The population density of India in 2011 was 382 persons per sq. km. Bihar has the highest density of population about 1,102 per sq. km, whereas Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest density of population, i.e. 17 persons per sq.km.

1. Densely Populated Areas: These are those areas which have population of more than 300 persons per sq. km. The population is dense in these areas due to fertile soil and good rainfall.
   • Areas: Sutlej and Gangetic plain; Malabar coastal plain, Coromandel coast.
   • States: Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Tamil Nadu.
2. Medium Density:
   These are those areas which have population about 100-300 persons per sq. km.
   • Areas: Brahmaputra valley, industrial areas, areas around the main ports.
   • States: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
3. Thinly or Sparsely Populated Areas:
   These are areas which have population less than 100 persons per sq. km. These are the areas of low unreliable and of hilly terrain where there is less levelled land for agriculture.
   • Areas: Great Indian Desert, Hills of north-eastern states.
   • States: Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Assam, Tripura, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 2.
What is age composition ? Why does it affect the population’s social and economic structure?
Answer:
The age composition of a population refers to the number of people indifferent age groups in a country. It affects the population’s social and economic structure because:

1. Children (0-14 years) do not contribute to the economy in any way. They require resources for their health, education etc.
2. Adults (15-59 years) contribute to the nation’s economy by earning money. They are the working population as they feed and look after the two age groups.
3. Aged (60 + years) do not contribute to the economy in any way. The depend on their children or their own saving. However, sometimes people belonging to this age group do work, but it is for private agencies as they are not considered for recruitment after that age.

Question 3.
What is sex ratio? Why has sex ratio been unfavourable to females? Explain it.
Answer:
Sex ratio: It is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the population. This information is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given time.
Reasons for unfavourable sex ratio for females:

1. The infant mortality rate in India is high and female infant mortality rate is still higher.
2. Preferential treatment is given to a male child and female children get neglected in most Indian homes.
3. People go though prenatal sex determination test. In case of a girl child, they abort the child.
4. Women generally have lower social political and economic status in the Indian society. We find dowry, murder, opposition to widow remarriage and low nutritional levels in women.
5. Lack of social awareness programmes among females, especially in rural areas.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘literate’. Describe the features of literacy rate in India.
Answer:
Definition of Literate: According to the census of 2001, a person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language, is termed as literate. Features of Literacy Rate in India

1. The literacy rate is steadily improving in India.
2. As per census 2011, the literacy rate of India is 74.04 per cent.
3. The male literacy rate is 80.9 per cent.
4. The female literacy rate is 64.6 per cent.
5. India has a large gap in literacy rate between male and female population.
6. It also exhibits social inequality between males and females.
7. This gap in literacy rate is further increased by the declining sex ratio. Literacy is an important quality of population. For overall development and economic progress of the country, there should be high literacy rate among both males and females.

Question 5.
What is the health status of people at present? What measures have been taken to improve the health of the people? Why is the health situation still an issue of major concern for India?
Answer:
Health is an important component of population and composition, which affects the process of development. Following efforts of government programmes have registered significant improvement in the health conditions of the people :

1. Death rate has declined from 25 per 1000 population in 1951 to 7.2 per 1000 in 2011.
2. Life expectancy at birth has increased from 36.7 years in 1951 to 67.9 years in 2012.
3. This substantial improvement is the result of many factors, including improvement in public health, prevention of infectious diseases and application of modern medical practices in diagnosis and treatment of ailments.

However, despite considerable achievements, the health situation is still an issue of major concern for India due to the following reasons:
(a) The per capita calorie consumption is much below the recommended levels and malnutrition affects a large percentage of our population.

(b) Safe drinking water and basic sanitation amenities are available to only one- third of the rural population.

(c) These problems need to be tackled through an appropriate population policy.

Question 6.
Explain any six significant characteristics of the adolescent population of India.
Answer:
Six significant characteristics of the adolescent population of India are as follows:

1. Adolescent population is generally categorised in the age group of 10 to 19 years.
2. They constitute one-fifth of the total population of India.
3. They are the most important future resource.
4. Nutritional requirements of adolescents are higher than those of normal children or adults.
5. In India, a large number of adolescent girls suffer from anaemia.
6. The adolescent girls have to be sensitised to the problems they confront.

Question 7.
What is the National Population Policy (NPP 2000) ? Why was NPP 2000 initiated by the government?
Answer:
National Population Policy (NPP 2000) It is a comprehensive family planning programme initiated by the government of India. It provides a reliable and relevant policy framework for improving family welfare services and for measuring and monitoring the delivery of family welfare services and their demographic impact in future.
Reasons for Initiations NPP 2000: It was initiated by the government:

1. To improve healthcare quality and coverage, measuring and monitoring the delivery of family welfare programme.
2. To enable the increasingly literate and aware families to achieve their reproductive goals in the country.
3. To achieve rapid population stabilisation.
4. To promote synergy with the on-going educational, info-technology and socio¬economic transition.
5. To achieve rapid population stabilisation and sustainable development as well as improvement in economic, social and human development in the new millennium.

Question 8.
Write a note on National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 and Adolescents.
Answer:
NPP 2000 identified adolescents as one of the major sections of the population that need greater attention. Besides nutritional requirements, the policy provides greater emphasis on other important needs of adolescents, including protection from unwanted pregnancies and Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) like AIDS.

It called for programmes that aim towards encouraging delayed marriage and child bearing, education of adolescents about the risks of unprotected sex, making contraceptive services accessible and affordable, providing food supplements, and strengthening legal measures to prevent child marriages.

Location and Labelling
1. The state having highest and lowest density population.
2. The state having highest and lowest sex ratio.
3. Largest and smallest state according to area.
Answer:
1. (a) The state having the highest density of population is Bihar.
(b) The state having the lowest density of population is Arunachal Pradesh.

2. (a) The state having highest sex ratio-Kerala.
(b) The state having lowest sex ratio-Haryana.

3. (a) Largest state – Rajasthan.
(b) Smallest state – Goa.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions