Month: October 2024

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Life Processes Important Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Life Processes

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between :
(1) Gastric juice and Bile
Answer:

Gastric juice	Bile
1. It is a mixture of secretions from gastric glands located in the inner wall of the stomach.	1. It is secreted from the liver cells.
2. It is not stored anywhere in stomach.	2. It is stored in the sac-called gall bladder.
3. It is secreted from the gastric glands in stomach and acts in the stomach itself.	3. It is secreted from the liver cells and acts in the duodenum (small intestine).
4. It is an acidic digestive juice.	4. It is an alkaline digestive juice.
5. It contains dil. HCl, enzyme pepsin and mucus.	5. It does not contain any enzyme.

(2) Herbivores animals and Carnivores animals
Answer:

Herbivores animals	Carnivores animals
1. These animals take in only plant material as food.	1. These animals take in only animal flesh and bones as well as blood as their food.
2. Their small intestine is relatively much longer than in carnivores.	2. Their small intestine is relatively much shorter than in herbivores.
3. They are consumers of the first order.	3. They are consumers of the second and third order.
4. The digestion of cellulose of the plant cells is quite complex and takes time.	4. The digestion of flesh of the animals is quite easy and rapid.
5. Example: rabbit, cow, buffalo, goat, etc.	5. Example: tiger, lion, leopard, wolf, etc.

(3) Respiration in plants and Respiration in animals
Answer:

Respiration in plants	Respiration in animals
1. In plants, exchange of gases is carried out individually by different organs (roots, stem and leaves in the process of respiration.)	1. In animals, exchange of gases is carried out by some definite parts or organs of the body, meant for respiration.
2. The flow of respiratory gases from one part of the body to the other, is a slow process.	2. The flow of respiratory gases from one part of the body to the other, is a rapid process.
3. The respiration in plants is slow.	3. The respiration in animals is quite rapid.
4. In anaerobic respiration in plants the end product is ethanol and CO2.	4. In anaerobic respiration in animals the end product is lactic acid.

(4) Xylem tissue and Phloem tissue
Answer:

Xylem tissue	Phloem tissue
1. It transports water and mineral Ions absorbed by the roots to different parts of the plant.	1. It transports organic products of photosynthesis from the leaves to different parts of the plant.
2. The principal conducting elements of xylem are tracheids and tracheae (vessels).	2. The principal conducting elements of phloem are sieve cells and sieve tubes with companion cells.
3. The conduction occurs only in upward direction.	3. The conduction occurs in both upward and downward directions.
4. It conducts only water and mineral ions.	4. Along with the sugars it conducts amino acids, plant hormones and several other substances.
5. For conduction of water In the xylem, the suction force due to transpiration is the principal force.	5. For conduction of organic food substances the energy required is obtained from ATP.

(5) Conduction of water in plants and Translocation of food in plants
Answer:

Conduction of water in plants	Translocation of food in plants
1. It occurs through the xylem tissue.	1. It occurs through the phloem tissue.
2. It occurs from the roots to the stem, leaves and flowers.	2. It occurs from the leaves to different parts of the plant.
3. It occurs only from below upwards.	3. It occurs from above downwards as well from below upwards.
4. A continuous water column is formed in the plant from root upwards which is pulled up due to suction force.	4. No food column is formed but the difference of pressure causes translocation which requires energy from ATP.

(6) Atria and Ventricles
Answer:

Atria	Ventricles
1. The upper two chambers of the heart are atria.	1. The lower two chambers of the heart are ventricles.
2. They are relatively thin-walled.	2. They are quite thick-walled.
3. Atria receive blood from different parts of the body and is poured in the ventricles.	3. Ventricles receive blood from the auricles and force the blood towards different parts of the body.
4. In atrium, the blood pressure is relatively low.	4. In ventricles, the blood pressure is quite high.

(7) Artery and Vein
Answer:

Artery	Vein
1. The blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to different organs is called an artery.	1. The blood vessel that carries blood from any organ towards the heart is called a vein.
2. In artery, the blood flows under higher pressure.	2. In vein, the blood flows under somewhat low pressure.
3. The wall of the artery is relatively thick and elastic.	3. The wall of the vein is relatively thin and less elastic.
4. The artery divides into several arterioles and numerous fine blood capillaries in the organs and tissues.	4. In the organs and tissues, the veins are formed by the union of numerous blood capillaries and several venules.
5. Arteries carry oxygenated blood (exception -Pulmonary artery).	5. Veins carry deoxygenated blood (exception -Pulmonary vein).

(8) Blood and Lymph
Answer:

Blood	Lymph
1. It is red coloured fluid connective tissue.	1. It is a colourless liquid connective tissue.
2. It contains liquid blood plasma and freely floating blood corpuscles.	2. It contains a certain amount of blood plasma, proteins and some blood cells (except red blood corpuscles).
3. It flows in the heart, arteries, veins and blood capillaries.	3. It flows in the intercellular spaces, larger lymph capillaries and in lymph ducts.
4. It is an independent liquid connective tissue.	4. It arises by the diffusion from the thin walls of the blood capillaries and after circulation in the body, it is poured back in the blood.

(9) Breathing and Respiration
Answer:

Breathing	Respiration
1. It is a physical / mechanical process.	1. It is a physiological process.
2. It occurs through the respiratory organs aided by accessory respiratory organs.	2. It occurs in each and every living cell of the body.
3. The mechanism of breathing is not necessarily found in all the living organisms.	3. The process of respiration occurs invariably in each and every living cell of all the living organisms.
4. It includes the physical processes of inhalation or inspiration expelled (taking in of atmospheric air) and exhalation or expiration (throwing out air contaihing CO2, into the atmosphere).	4. It includes the physiological (biochemical) processes of glycolysis and Krebs cycle and also oxidative phosphorylation.
5. There are no subtypes of breathing.	5. Aerobic and anaerobic respiration are the two different types of respiration.
6. Energy is utilized in this process.	6. Energy is released in this process.

Question 2.
Give scientific reasons for the following statements:
(1) Proper transportation (conducting) system is necessary in higher plants.
Answer:
The green leaves of plants obtain CO₂ from the atmosphere and synthesize carbohydrates. The plants, through their roots, absorb water and other raw mineral elements essential for the constitution of the body, from the soil.

In higher plants the distance between the roots and the leaves being more, the water, mineral elements and the products of photosynthesis cannot be sent to all the different parts of the plant body, merely by diffusion from cell to cell. Therefore, in order to distribute all these substances rapidly and timely, a proper transportation (conducting) system is necessary in higher plants.

(2) In very tall plants, the suction force created due to transpiration is the main conducting force for water and mineral ions through the xylem.
Answer:
The xylem tissue in all the organs of a plant remains connected to each other and forms a continuous path for the flow of water, etc. Thus, a continuous water column is formed therein.

Mere root pressure, created in small herbs, is not sufficient to push water and minerals to the great height of very tall plants. The plants adopt another way to reach the target of fulfilling the water requirement. Evaporation of water molecules in the form of vapour occurs through stomata.

Due to that a suction force arises in the cells of leaves. This suction force comes into being from the cells of the leaves and is gradually experienced in the xylem of roots. As a result, the water column in the xylem rises up. Hence in very tall plants, the suction force created due to transpiration is the main conducting force for water and mineral ions through the xylem.

(3) Translocation in the phloem takes place in both upward and downward directions.
Answer:
The phloem transports amino acids, various plant hormones and other organic substances in addition to the products of photosynthesis.

Carbohydrates are synthesized in the leaves due to photosynthesis. These carbohydrates are transported to the roots and stem through phloem. The plant hormones synthesized in shoot apex flow downwards through the phloem and the plant hormones synthesized in the root apex and the food reserve stored in roots are transported upwards through the phloem. Thus, the translocation in the phloem takes place in both, upward and downward directions.

(4) The right side chambers of the heart have deoxygenated blood and left side chambers have oxygenated blood in them.
Answer:
The four-chambered heart, in man, is formed of two atria and two ventricles. All the four chambers of the heart are separated from each other by septa.

Deoxygenated blood from different organs of the body (except lungs) is brought through s superior and inferior vena cava and poured in the right atrium and then into the right ventricle, Similarly oxygenated blood from the two lungs is brought through pulmonary veins and poured in the left atrium and then into the left ventricle.

The four-chambered heart prevents the mixing of oxygenated blood with deoxygenated blood. Hence, the right side chambers of the heart have deoxygenated blood and the left side chambers have oxygenated blood in them.

(5) Lymph separates from the blood and remixes with the blood.
Answer:
The lymph oozes out through the pores in thin walls of the blood capillaries, as a fluid from the blood flowing through the capillaries. It flows very slowly in the intercellular spaces between the tissue cells. The intercellular spaces have no walls of their own and are called lymph capillaries.

These lymph capillaries meet and join with each other to form larger ones which finally open in a vein to pour its contents. Thus, lymph, as a colourless watery fluid collects in a large lymph vessels that finally open in particular veins S in the body to pour its contents back in blood.

(6) The wall of the artery is thick and elastic while that of vein is relatively thin.
Answer:
The arteries carry blood from the heart towards different organs. When the ventricles contract, the blood is pushed in the arteries under high pressure. In order to withstand this pressure, the arteries must have thick and elastic walls. The veins receive blood from different organs and carry it to the heart. The blood in the veins flows at relatively low pressure. Hence, the wall of the veins is relatively thin and less elastic.

(7) The organisms possessing chlorophyll are autotrophs.
Answer:
The organisms, possessing chlorophyll, can trap and utilize the solar energy to synthesize their own food using CO₂ and water. This process of trapping the solar energy for synthesis of ones own food is called photosynthesis and the mode of nutrition of such organisms is called autotrophic. In photosynthesis, the food synthesized is the simplest hexose sugar-glucose, which is utilized for obtaining energy. The surplus glucose is stored as reserve food in the form of starch. Hence, the organisms possessing chlorophyll are autotrophs.

(8) The stomata in leaves keep on opening and closing.
Answer:
On one or both the surfaces of the leaves of flowering plants, there are numerous stomata as minute pores. Each of these pores is guarded by a pair of guard cells. The opening and closing of the stomata is controlled by these guard cells, which contain chloroplasts.

When water enters the guard cells, the latter swell and cause the opening of stomata and when the guard cells lose water, the guard cells contract and cause the closing of stomata. Thus, the stomata in leaves keep on opening and closing due to entry and exit of water in the guard cells.

(9) The parasitic mode of nutrition is harmful for the host organism.
Answer:
In parasitic nutrition, one organism depends fully for obtaining its nutritional needs, directly on other living organism. The latter is called a host from whom the parasite directly obtains food. The parasitic organism keeps close contact with the host and sucks or absorbs nutrients from its body. The host goes on becoming weaker physically and physiological. The health of host thus is affected. Thus, the parasitic mode of nutrition is harmful for the host organism.

(10) HCl (Hydrochloric acid) is an important constituent of gastric juice.
Answer:
For the chemical digestion of food in stomach, the stomach secretes gastric juice from its gastric glands. HCl is one of the constituents of gastric juice.

HCl destroys the bacteria and other micro¬organisms entering along with the ingested food and thereby prevent the decay of food in stomach. HCl provides acidic medium for the action of gastric enzyme. HCl converts inactive enzyme pepsinogen into an active enzyme pepsin. Pepsin acts in acidic medium on proteins and starts their digestion and convert them into preoteoses and peptones. Thus, HCl is an important constituent of gastric juice.

(11) The length of small intestine of herbivorous is relatively much longer than that of carnivorous.
Answer:
The length of small intestine is different in different animals and that depends upon the nature of food taken by the animal. The carnivorous eat flesh. The digestion of flesh as food is quite easy and rapid and there is very small amount of roughage.

Hence these animals have short small intestine. The herbivorous eat grass and other vegetation. The cellulose of the plant cells is a complex substance and its complete digestion needs more space and time and hence longer small intestine and longer large intestine. Hence, the length of small intestine of herbivorous is relatively much longer than that of carnivorous.

(12) Bile is an important digestive juice though it does not contain any digestive enzymes.
Answer:
Bile is a greenish yellow alkaline digestive juice secreted from the liver cells. Bile contains bile salts, certain bile pigments but does not contain any digestive enzymes.

The bile salts turn the acidic food from stomach, alkaline and thereby provide alkaline medium for further reactions in intestine. Pancreatic enzymes and intestinal enzymes need alkaline medium. Bile salts emulsify the large fat globules into a very large number of very minute fat droplets and thereby greatly increase the exposed surface area of fat for the rapid action of lipases. Hence bile is an important digestive juice though it does not contain any digestive enzymes.

(13) Respiration is important to keep the organism in living state.
Answer:
The living cells of the body need energy for performing various vital functions. The energy is obtained by the biological oxidation of organic nutrients in the cell.

The process of breakdown of food sources for cellular needs either using oxygen or without oxygen is called respiration. The energy, so released is for continuation of various functions and thereby ‘ maintaining the living state of the organism. Thus, respiration is essential for life.

Question 3.
Carefully observe the given diagram and answer the questions related with it:

Questions :

1. Identify label x and state any two process that occur through it.
2. Identify label y and state the name of process and equation that occurs in it.
3. Identify label z and which situation you think for the given diagram?
4. What you think about transportation during day from label x in given diagram?

Answer:

1. x – stomatal pore, exchange of gases and transpiration occur through it.
2. y – chloroplast, photosynthesis process occurs in it.
   
3. z – guard cells, the guard cells swell when water flows into them, causing the stomatal pore to open.
4. During the day when stomata are open, the transpiration pull becomes the major driving force in the movement of water in xylem.

Questions :

1. Identify x and state the name of enzyme secreted in it and a medium required for its action.
2. Which juice is secreted from y? Where does it show its action and state the name of process which occurs by it?
3. State the name of specific finger-likc projections located in z and its functions.
4. Which other finger-like projection do you know and where can you observe it?

Answer:

1. x – stomach, name of enzyme is pepsin and acidic medium is required for its action.
   Bile juice secreted from y. It shows its action in small intestine and emulsification (breakdown of fat globules) process occurred by it.
2. Specific finger-like projections in the walls of z are villi. It increases surface area for absorption of food.
3. We know other finger-like projections are pseudopodia. We can observe it on the cell surface of amoeba.

Questions :

1. Which type of blood circulation you see in this diagram, what it means?
2. Which type of blood flows through x? Which one is exceptional for this?
3. Which type of blood flows through y? Why?
4. How our body gets highly efficient supply of oxygen?

Answer:

1. Double circulation. It means blood goes through the heart twice during each cycle.
2. Oxygenated blood flows through x. Pulmonary artery is exceptional because it transports deoxygenated blood.
3. Oxygenated blood flows through y. Because it carries blood from lungs to heart and in lungs blood becomes oxygenated.
4. The separation of the right side and the left side of the heart is useful to keep oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing.

Questions:

1. Which structure is shown in the above diagram? Which nitrogenous wastes is removed from blood by this structure?
2. Identify x and mention its shape and function.
3. Identify y and z.
4. Compare the blood flowing through u and v blood vessles.

Answer:

1. Structure of nephron shown in the diagram. Nitrogenous wastes such as urea and uric acid are removed from blood by it.
2. x – Bowman’s capsule. It is cup-shaped and collects the filtrate.
3. y – collecting duct, z – glomerulus.
4. u – It transports oxygenated blood containing more nitrogenous wastes, v – It transports deoxygenated blood with lesser nitrogenous wastes due to filtration.

Objective Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following questions in short:
(1) Which inorganic substances are used as raw materials by autotrophic organisms?
Answer:
Water and CO₂ are the inorganic substances used as raw material for the synthesis s of organic food by autotrophic organisms.

(2) What is the mode of nutrition in fungi?
Answer:
The fungi show heterotrophic nutrition, in which breakdown the food material outside the body and then absorb it.

(3) Name one organism each, having saprophytic, parasitic and holozoic modes of nutrition.
Answer:

Mode of nutrition	Name of organism
Saprophytic	Most of fungi
Parasitic	Tapeworm, Ascaris
Holozoic	Amoeba, Human

(4 ) In addition to carbon dioxide and water, state two other conditions necessary for the process of photosynthesis.
Answer:
Presence of chlorophyll in the cells and <: the presence of sunlight are also necessary, in addition to CO₂ and water, for photosynthesis.

(5) Why there is a controversy about whether viruses are truly alive or not?
Answer:
There is a controversy about whether viruses are truly alive or not, because viruses do not show any molecular movement in them unless they infect specific host cell.

(6) Why are molecular movements needed for life?
Answer:
Molecular movements are needed for life because all the structures of living cells are made up of molecules and they must move molecules around all the time.

(7) On what the survival of heterotrophs depend? Give example of heterotrophic organisms?
Answer:
The survival of heterotrophs depends directly or indirectly on autotrophs.
Example of heterotrophic organisms : Animals and fungi.

(8) Which form of carbohydrate is stored in green plants and in human beings?
Answer:
Carbohydrates in the form of starch is stored in green plants while in human beings it is stored as glycogen.

(9) How desert plants perform process of photosynthesis?
Answer:
Desert plants take up carbon dioxide at night and prepare an intermediate which is acted upon by the energy absorbed by the chlorophyll during the day.

(10) Where does the exchange of gases occur in plants other than stomatal pores?
Answer:
The exchange of gases occurs across the surface of stems, roots and leaves other than in stomatal pores of plants.

(11) What is the function of guard cells?
Answer:
The opening and closing of the stomatal pore is a function of the guard cells.

(12) What is the essentiality of nitrogen element?
Answer:
Nitrogen is an essential element in the synthesis of protein and other compounds.

(13) Give the name of organisms that use parasitic nutritive strategy.
Answer:
The name of organisms that use parasitic nutritive strategy are cuscuta, ticks, lice, leech, tapeworm, etc.

(14) How a food vacuole is formed in amoeba?
Answer:
Amoeba takes in food using temporary finger-like extensions called pseudopodia of the cell surface which fuse over the food particle forming a food vacuole.

(15) What is peristaltic movement?
Answer:
The rhythmic movement shown by the contractions of the muscles of lining of alimentary canal which push the food only in one direction is called peristaltic movement.

(16) What causes acidity in adults?
Answer:
Acidity is caused due to excess secretion of hydrochloric acid in stomach.

(17) State the name of enzyme involved in digestion of protein and its location.
Answer:

Name of enzyme involved in digestion of protein	Location
(1) Pepsin	Gastric juice
(2) Trypsin	Pancreatic juice

(18) In which type of respiration more energy is released?
Answer:
In aerobic respiration more energy is released.

(19) Which part of root is involved in the exchange of respiratory gases?
Answer:
The root hairs, formed from the epidermal cells of the root, are involved in the exchange of respiratory gases.

(20) Name the respiratory organ of fish.
Answer:
The fish possesses pharyngeal gills as respiratory organs.

(21) In which pathway of breakdown of glucose CO₂ is not produced?
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration in our muscle cells

(22) Why the air passage does not collapse in our body?
Answer:
Rings of cartilage are present in the trachea so that the air passage does not collapse in our body.

(23) What are the characteristics of respiratory surface?
Answer:
Respiratory surface is very fine, delicate, moist and contains an extensive network of blood vessels and it remains in contact with atmosphere.

(24) Why the lungs always contain a residual volume of air?
Answer:
Thle lungs always contain a residual volume of air so that there is sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and for carbon dioxide to be released.

(25) Give the name, location and function of respiratory pigment in human beings.
Answer:
In human beings, respiratory pigment

(26) What is called single circulation?
Answer:
Blood goes only once through the heart in the fish body during the once circulation.

(27) What is the function of blood capillaries?
Answer:
Exchange of material between blood and the surrounding cells takes place across the thin wall of blood capillaries.

(28) What is the significance of lymph?
Answer:
Lymph carries digested and absorbed fat from small intestine and drains excess fluid from intercellular space back into the blood.

(29) Who forms conducting tubes in higher plants? What are transported through it?
Answer:
Xylem and phloem forms conducting tubes in higher plants. Xylem transports water and minerals, phloem transports products of photosynthesis.

(30) How sunction is created in xylem? What is it significance?
Answer:
Evaporation of water molecules from the cells of a leaf creates a sunction in xylem. It pulls water from the xylem cells.

(31) State any two points of importance of transpiration in plants?
Answer:
Importance of transpiration in plants:

• It helps in the absorption and upward movement of water and minerals dissolved in it from roots to the leaves.
• It helps in temperature regulation.

(32) State the name of forces important for the movement of water in the xylem during day and at night respectively?
Answer:
Transpiration pull during day and root pressure at night are important forces for the movement of water in the xylem.

(33) Which substances are transported through phloem?
Answer:
Sucrose, amino acids and other substances are transported through phloem.

(34) Which component of phloem shows translocation of food? In which direction does s it take place?
Answer:
The translocation of food takes place in the sieve tubes with the help of adjacent companion cells of phloem and in both upward and downward directions.

(35) Explain translocation of sugar in the spring season in plants.
Answer:
In the spring season, sugar stored in root or stem tissue is translocated to the buds which need energy to grow.

(36) Which substances are selectively reabsorbed from initial filtrate in the tubular part of nephron?
Answer:
Glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount of water are selectively reabsorbed from initial filtrate in the tubular part of nephron.

(37) Until when urine is stored in the urinary bladder?
Answer:
Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until the pressure of the expanded bladder leads to the urge to pass it out through the urethra.

(38) Why we can usually control the urge to urinate?
Answer:
We can usually control the urge to urinate because the bladder can store urine and it is under voluntary nervous control.

(39) State name and location of any three structures which are richly supplied with blood vessels.
Answer:

Structure	Location
(1) Villi	Wall of intestine
(2) Alveoli	Terminale of bronchioles in lungs
(3) Nephron	In the kidneys

Question 2.
Define : OR Explain the terms :
(1) Nutrition
Answer:
A process of transfer of a source of energy from outside the body of the organism to the inside is called nutrition.

(2) Photosynthesis
Answer:
A process of synthesis of simple form of carbohydrate, i.e. glucose with the use of solar energy, water and carbon dioxide in presence of chlorophyll is called photosynthesis.

(3) Autotrophs
Answer:
Those organisms which utilise simple inorganic sources in the form of carbon dioxide and water and synthesise complex food are called autotrophs.

(4) Heterotrophs
Answer:
Those organism which utilise complex food material prepared by other organisms are called heterotrophs.

(5) Digestion
Answer:
A process by which complex food components are transformed into simple, soluble and absorbable form with the help of enzymes is called digestion.

(6) Respiration
Answer:
A process of breakdown of food source such as glucose, in presence or in absence of oxygen inside the living cell to provide energy for cellular need is called respiration.

(7) Breathing
Answer:
A process of inhalation and exhalation is called breathing.

(8) Transpiration
Answer:
A process of loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the plant is known as transpiration.

(9) Excretion
Answer:
The biological process involved in removal of nitrogenous metabolic wastes from the body is called excretion.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks :

1. The substance, used in cellular respiration, is ………………..
2. The effect of ……………….. in transport of water is more important at night.
3. Carbohydrate is synthesized by the reduction of COa in the process of ………………..
4. The secretions from the liver and pancreas are poured in the ………………..
5. Human beings show ……………….. mode of nutrition.
6. The enzyme ……………….. digests starch and converts it into maltose.
7. Pepsin is an enzyme that can act only in ……………….. medium.
8. The digestion of food particle in Amoeba occurs in ………………..
9. The ……………….. in the wall of small intestine greatly increase the surface area for absorption.
10. The conversion of glucose into ……………….. during the first phase of the respiratory process occurs in the cytoplasm.
11. The conduction of the photosynthetic products is called ………………..
12. The ……………….. increases when the sucrose is transported through the phloem tissue.
13. The suction force created due to ……………….. is the main force for the conduction of water in the xylem.
14. The artery emerging from the left ventricle is called ………………..
15. There is always ……………….. blood in the right auricle.
16. As compared to blood the lymph contains ……………….. proteins.
17. The exchange of materials between the blood and tissue cells of the body takes place through ………………..
18. The terminal end of the excretory unit opens in the ………………..
19. The wall of the arteries are thick and ………………..
20. ……………….. During photosynthesis, ……………….. is evolved as by-product.

Answer:

1. glucose
2. root pressure
3. photosynthesis
4. small intestine
5. heterotrophic
6. amylase
7. acidic
8. food vacuole
9. vIlli
10. pyruvate
11. translocauon
12. osmotic pressure
13. transpiraüon
14. aorta
15. deoxygenated
16. less
17. capillaries
18. collectIng duct
19. elastic
20. oxygen

Question 4.
State whether the following statements are true or false:

1. Euglena is an autotrophic animal.
2. In human body the carbohydrates are stored in the form of glycogen.
3. In photosynthesis the carbon dioxide is oxidized to form carbohydrates.
4. The control and regulation of the opening and closing of stomata is done by the chloroplasts.
5. Liver and pancreas produce digestive juices which help in digestion in small intestine.
6. The liver secretes acidic bile.
7. The cellulose in the cells of grass, can be digested by herbivores animals.
8. The inner wall of the stomach possesses tubular glands which secrete gastric juice.
9. Cuscuta is a plant, harmful for the host plant.
10. The rate of breathing in terrestrial animals is much faster than that seen in aquatic animals.
11. Cilia help in ingestion of food in paramoecium.
12. The enzymes pepsin and trypsin digest carbohydrates and fats respectively.
13. An artificial kidney is a device to remove nitrogenous wastes from the blood through dialysis.
14. The bronchus ends in the alveolus.
15. The diaphragm bends (moves) downwards at the time of expiration.
16. The blood flows from the heart to other organs under pressure.
17. In unicellular animals, the excretory substances are removed by diffusion in the surrounding water.
18. The blood vessels absorb fat through the villi of the ileum.
19. In certain plants, the useless waste substances are stored in cellular vacuoles.
20. The wall of the blood capillaries is bilayered and thick.
21. The body temperature is maintained by using energy in animals of classes Mammalia and Aves.
22. The pulmonary arteries cany oxygenated blood.
23. In plants, the conduction of water is in both upward and downward directions.
24. The phloem tissue transports carbohydrate, amino acids and plant hormones.
25. Blood is a red coloured, non-living liquid connective tissue.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False
11. True
12. False
13. True
14. False
15. False
16. True
17. True
18. False
19. True
20. False
21. True
22. False
23. False
24. True
25. False

Question 5.
Match the following:
(1)

Column I	Column II
1. Algae	p. Saprophytic nutrition
2. Cuscuta	q. Holozoic nutrition
3. Fungi	r. Autotrophic nutrition
4. Amoeba	s. Parasitic nutrition

Answer:
(1 – r), (2 – s), (3 – p), (4 – q).

(2)

Column I	Column II
1. Salivary glands	p. Beginning of protein digestion
2. Liver	q. Enzyme trypsin
3. Pancreas	r. Alkaline bile
4. Stomach	s. Secretion of amylase

Answer:
(1 – s), (2 – r). (3 – q). (4 – p).

(3)

Column I	Column II
1. Amoeba	p. Omnivores
2. Paramoecium	q. Gills
3. Human being	r. Pseudopodia
4. Fish	s. Cilia

Answer:
(1 – r), (2 – s), (3 – p), (4 – q).

(4)

Column I	Column II
1. Villi	p. Exchange of gases
2. Cartilagenous ring	q. Absorption
3. Alveolus	r. Helps in breathing
4. Diaphragm	s. Trachea

Answer:
(1 – r), (2 – s), (3 – p), (4 – q).

(5)

Column I	Column II
1. Phloem	p. Urine formation
2. Excretory unit	q. Upward and downward conduction
3. Pulmonary vein	r. Deoxygenated blood
4. Renal vein	s. Oxygenated blood

Answer:
(1 – q), (2 – p), (3 – s), (4 – r).

(6)

Column I	Column II
1. Human heart	p. Cup-shaped
2. Human kidney	q. Four-chambered
3. Nephron	r. Bean-shaped
4. Bowman’s capsule	s. Long-coiled tubule

Answer:
(1 – q), (2 – r), (3 – s), (4 – p).

(7)

Column I	Column II
1. Villi	p. Right auricle
2. Bowman’s capsule	q. Less protein
3. Lymph	r. Glomerulus
4. Vena cava	s. Small intestine

Answer:
(1 – s), (2 – r), (3 – q). (4 – p).

(8)

Column I	Column II
1. Chloroplast	p. Stomatal pore
2. Mitochondria	q. Digestion
3. Guard cells	r. Reduction of CO<sub>2</sub>
4. Food vacuole	s. Breakdown of pyruvate using O<sub>2</sub>

Answer:
(1 – r), (2 – s), (3 – p), (4 – q).

(9)

Column I	Column II
1. Photosynthesis	p. Temperature regulation
2. Respiration	q. Energy stored
3. Transpiration	r. Sucrose
4. Translocation	s. Energy released

Answer:
(1 – q), (2 – s), (3 – p), (4 – r).

Question 6.
Chart – diagram based questions:

Identify x in diagram and state which system of plant does it indicate.
Answer:
x-phloem, xylem vascular bundle, it indicates transportation system of plant.

2.

Why starch test is negative in any leaf of plant? What you conclude?
Answer:
Starch test is negative in any leaf of plant s because CO₂ is not available as the plant is in bell-jar in which KOH absorbed CO₂.
CO₂ is a raw material essential for s photosynthesis.

State the lable x and y in given diagram and also mention which life process do they indicate.
Answer:
x – pseudopodia, y – food vacuole
Life process : nutrition in amoeba

4. Fill the blanks in given table with reference to digestion process in human:

Answer:

1. Amylase
2. Protein
3. Trypsin
4. Fatty acid and glycerol

What change occurs in the solution in test tube? What is responsible for such change?
Answer:
The lime water in test tube turns milky.
We breath out CO₂ which is responsible for lime water to turn milky.

6. Fill the blanks in given chart:

Answer:

1. Xylem
2. Transpiration pull
3. Root pressure

7.

Observe the diagram and indicate which parts shows function of storage of urine and filtration of blood?
Answer:
y – kidney – filtration of blood
z – urinary bladder – storage of urine

Question 7.
Select the correct alternative from those given below each question:
1. Which of the following organism breaks down food material outside of body?
A. Mushroom
B. Cuscuta
C. Leech
D. Lice
Answer:
A. Mushroom

2. Where does the digestion of protein start in human being?
A. Mouth
B. Stomach
C. Small intestine
D. Colon
Answer:
B. Stomach

3. Which of the following type has longest small intestine?
A. Tiger
B. Human
C. Cow
D. Rat
Answer:
C. Cow

4. Which one of the following organisms can live without oxygen or air?
A. Amoeba
B. Leech
C. Green plant
D. Yeast
Answer:
D. Yeast

5. Which is the exact site for gaseous exchange s in human beings?
A. Brochus
B. Alveoli
C. Villi
D. Skin
Answer:
B. Alveoli

6. What is the product from glucose in the first phase of respiration?
A. Ethanol
B. Lactic acid
C. Pyruvic acid
D. CO₂
Answer:
C. Pyruvic acid

7. What is the ultimate purpose of digestion?
A. Transportation
B. Absorption
C. Respiration
D. Assimilation
Answer:
B. Absorption

8. Which cells surround the pore of the stomata?
A. Epidermal cells
B. Companion cells
C. Sieve cells
D. Guard cells
Answer:
D. Guard cells

9. Which organ stores bile?
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Small intestine
D. Gall bladder
Answer:
D. Gall bladder

10. The enzyme acting in acidic medium is ………………..
A. amylase
B. pepsin
C. trypsin
D. both B and C
Answer:
B. pepsin

11. In plants, photosynthetic products are transported through ………………..
A. vessel and sieve tube
B. tracheid and vessel
C. sieve tube and companion cell
D. sieve tube and tracheid
Answer:
C. sieve tube and companion cell

12. In which part of the body blood is oxygenated?
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Lungs
Answer:
D. Lungs

13. At which part the actual process of filtration of blood takes place in kidney?
A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Collecting duct
C. Tubular part of nephron
D. Capillaries of nephron
Answer:
A. Bowman’s capsule

14. From which part of the human heart only oxygenated blood always flows?
A. Both atria
B. Both ventricles
C. Left atrium and left ventricle
D. Right atrium and right ventricle
Answer:
C. Left atrium and left ventricle

15. As compared to blood, the lymph contains ………………..
A. fewer RBCs
B. less amount of water
C. less amount of metabolic waste
D. less amount of proteins
Answer:
D. less amount of proteins

16. Which of the following brings oxygenated blood into left atrium in heart?
A. Pulmonary vein
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Vena cava
D. Aorta
Answer:
A. Pulmonary vein

17. What happens in the process of photo-synthesis?
A. Transformation of solar energy into functional energy
B. Transformation of solar energy into chemical energy
C. Transformation of chemical energy into functional energy
D. Transformation of functional energy into chemical energy
Answer:
B. Transformation of solar energy into chemical energy

18. Which is the main force for the conduction of water through the xylem in plants?
A. Absorption of water through roots
B. Absorption of ions through roots
C. Sufficient availability of water from the soil
D. Suction due to transpiration
Answer:
D. Suction due to transpiration

19. Which of the following alternative shows the correct path of oxygenated blood flow in human beings?
A. Lungs → Pulmonary veins → Left auricle → Left ventricle → Various organs of the body
B. Lungs Pulmonary artery → Left auricle → Left ventricle → Various organs of the body
C. Lungs → Pulmonary artery → Right auricle → Right ventricle → Various organs of the body
D. Various organs of the body Right auricle → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery → Lungs
Answer:
A. Lungs → Pulmonary veins → Left auricle → Left ventricle → Various organs of the body

20. Select the correct pair :
A. Stomata – transpiration
B. Translocation – glucose
C. Villi – egestion of feaces
D. Trachea – cartilaginous rings
Answer:
A. Stomata – transpiration
D. Trachea – cartilaginous rings

21. Which process is important for osmoregulation?
A. Nutrition
B. Circulation
C. Breathing
D. Excretion
Answer:
D. Excretion

22. Which one is the false statement for arteries?
A. Arteries carry blood from the heart towards other organs.
B. In arteries the blood flows under high pressure.
C. All arteries carry oxygenated blood.
D. The arterial walls are thick and elastic.
Answer:
C. All arteries carry oxygenated blood.

23. Resin and gum are the substances of plants.
A. excretory
B. nutritive
C. constitutional
D. reserve
Answer:
A. excretory

24. Which is the circulatory pathway of blood in the human heart?
A. Right auricle → Left auricle → Lungs → Right ventricle → Left ventricle → Different organs
B. Right auricle → Right ventricle → Lungs → Left auricle → Left ventricle → Different organs
C. Right auricle → Right ventricle Different organs → Left auricles Left ventricle → Lungs
D. Right auricle → Left auricle → Different organs → Right ventricle → Left ventricle → Lungs
Answer:
B. Right auricle → Right ventricle → Lungs → Left auricle → Left ventricle → Different organs

25. Which substance does not get reabsorbed in nephron during urine formation?
A. Glucose
B. Urea
C. Amino acid
D. Uric acid
Answer:
B. Urea, Uric acid

26. In which of following process. ATP is used?
A. Translocation of food
B. To maintain body temperature in human
C. Respiration
D. Simple diffusion in human
Answer:
Translocation of food, To maintain body temperature in human

27. Statement A: The rate of breathing is much faster in fishes.
Reason R : The blood goes only once through the heart in the fish during one cycle of passage through the body.
Which is the correct option for Statement A and Reason R?
A. Both A and R correct and R is explanation of A.
B. Both A and R correct but R is not explanation of A.
C. A is correct, R is incorrect.
D. A is incorrect, R is correct.
E. Both A and R incorrect.
Answer:
A. Both A and R correct and R is explanation of A.

28. Statement A : ATP is the energy currency for cellular processes.
Reason R: Complete oxidation of pyruvate in presence of oxygen occurs in mitochondria.
Which is the correct option for Statement A and Reason R?
A. Both A and R correct and R is explanation of A.
B. Both A and R correct but R is not explanation of A.
C. A is correct, R is incorrect.
D. A is incorrect, R is correct.
E. Both A and R incorrect.
Answer:
B. Both A and R correct but R is not explanation of A.

29. Which animals tolerate some mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood streams?
A. Fishes
B. Birds
C. Mammals
D. Amphibians
Answer:
D. Amphibians

30. The diagram is labelled, which part secretes digestive juice?

A. 1, 3, 5, 7
B. 2, 4. 6, 8
C. 2, 3, 5, 8
D. 1, 4, 6, 8
Answer:
A. 1, 3, 5, 7

Question 8.
Answer as directed : (Miscellaneous)
(1) Which pigment has a very high affinity for oxygen? Where is it present in human body?
Answer:
Haemoglobin in red blood cells

(2) State the equation of photosynthesis.
Answer:

(3) Name of instrument used to measure blood pressure.
Answer:
Sphygmomanometer

(4) About which organism there is a controversy regarding whether it is a living being or non-living entity?
Answer:
Viruses

(5) Give the full form of ATP.
Answer:
Adenosine TriPhosphate

(6) Identify me : I am a cup-shaped structure with glomerulus and I carry out filtration.
Answer:
Bowman’s capsule

(7) Find mismatched pair :
1. One cell thick – blood capillary
2. Ring of cartilage – trachea
3. Phloem tissue – transport of sucrose
4. Platelet cells – transport of respiratory gases
Answer:
4. Platelet cells – transport of respiratory gases

(8) State the normal blood pressure of human.
Answer:
Systolic pressure 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure 80 mm Hg

(9) Identify me : A component of gastric juice protect the inner lining of the stomach from the action of hydrochloric acid under normal condition.
Answer:
Mucus

(10) Sketch the respiratory pathway which does not produce CO₂.
Answer:

(11) Which of the following organisms show parasitic nutritive strategy?
Lion, lice, bread mould, cuscuta, leech, yeast, tick
Answer:
lice, cuscuta, leech, tick

(12) Find mismatched pair:
1. Paramoecium – Fermentation
2. Peristaltic movement – All along the gut
3. Emulsifying action – Bile
4. Trachea – Windpipe
Answer:
1. Paramoecium – Fermentation

(13) Which treatment do you suggest to a patient whose both kidneys have stopped functioning?
Answer:
Hemodialysis

(14) Transpiration helps to create osmotic pressure for translocation of sucrose. State whether s this sentence true or false.
Answer:
False

Value Based Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Your younger brother complains about pain in teeth. You often notice that he frequently eats chocolates and pastries. Even he likes to eat sweets.
Questions:

1. What do you think about the pain in teeth?
2. Which advise will you give to your brother?
3. What will happen if this problem is untreated?

Answer:

1. Sugar content is very high in chocolates, pastries and sweets. Bacteria act on sugars and produce acidic substances. Acids soften? the enamel, i.e.. cause dental caries or tooth decay. Masses of bacterial cells together with food particles stick to the teeth to form dental plaque. This is responsible for pain in teeth.
2. Brushing the teeth after eating, will remove plaque.
3. If this problem is untreated, microorganisms may invade the gums causing inflammation and infection

Question 2.
Your uncle often complains about indigestion of after having oily food. He consults a doctor and? is diagnosed with stone in gall bladder. Doctor advised him to remove gall bladder surgically.
Questions:

1. What is the function of gall bladder?
2. Which process initiates the digestion of oils?
3. After surgery, which type of food should be given to uncle?

Answer:

1. Gall bladder stores bile juice.
2. Emulsification (i.e.. bile salts breakdown large 5 oil globules into fine small droplets) process initiate the digestion of oils.
3. After surgery, food with low fat content, i.e., less oil, ghee, butter, etc. is advisable.

Question 3.
Your neighbour is a chain-smoker. He often suffers from cough and lung infection. His relatives often tell him to leave smoking.

Questions:

1. How inhaled air is filtered in the upper part of respiratory tract?
2. Which is the effect of smoking on the upper part of respiratory tract?
3. Why do you call smoking as injurious to health?

Answer:

1. The upper part of respiratory tract is provided with small hair-like structures called cilia, which help to remove germs, dust and other harmful particles from inhaled air.
2. Smoking destroys hair like cilia due to which germs, dust, smoke and other harmful chemicals enter lungs and causes harm.
3. Smoking reduces the breathing efficiency of lungs, may cause various infection and even lung cancer. So, called it is injurious to health. Cigarette contains nicotine which can cause cancer to the respiratory organs.

Question 4.
Your subject teacher arranges a visit to a hospital, where you can observe haemodialysis.

Questions :

1. Which conditions may lead to kidney failure?
2. What is the use of artificial kidney?
3. Explain how artificial kidneys work?

Answer:

1. Several factors such as infections, injury or restricted blood flow to kidney reduce the activity of kidneys. This leads to accumulation of toxic nitrogenous substances, gradually may lead to kidney failure.
2. An artificial kidney is a device to remove s nitrogenous waste products from the blood through dialysis.
3. Artificial kidneys contain a number of tubes with a semi-permeable lining, suspended in a tank filled with dialysing fluid. This fluid has same osmotic pressure as blood but nitrogenous wastes are absent.

As shown in diagram, patient’s blood is passed through tubes. During this, nitrogenous waste products from blood pass into dialysing fluid by diffusion. The purified blood is pumped back into the patient’s vein.

Practical Skill Based Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Observe experiment arranged in your school laboratory as shown in figure.

Questions :

1. State the colour of the stem and veins of the leaves.
2. Does the volume of solution in the beaker get reduced? Why?
3. In the T.S. of stem, which part is observed to be reddish in colour? Why?
4. State your inference.

Answer:

1. Reddish
2. Yes, because plant absorbed solution from beaker through its roots.
3. Xylem tissue becomes reddish in colour in T.S. of stem because water moves up through xylem.
4. Water and minerals absorbed by root move in upward direction through xylem vessels.

Question 2.
Take a potted plant.

• Insert one of its branches in a large, thin and transparent plastic/polythene bag and tie the bag at its open end with the branch.
• Add adequate amount of water to the clay in the pot, and keep the pot exposed to sunlight for a few hours.
• Observe the inner side of the bag after a few hours.
  

Questions :

1. Why are small droplets of water seen on the inner surface of the plastic/polythene bag?
2. State the role played by sunlight in the formation of water droplets.
3. State the passage of flow of water droplets through the potted plant.

Answer:

1. Loss of water vapour from leaves condense and show water droplets.
2. Sunlight is responsible for transpiration. Water is lost in the form of vapour, which creates suction and transpiration pull in upward direction.
3. Soil root xylem → stem-xylem → leaf xylem → stomata → water vapour

Question 3.
Place two fingers of your right hand on the left wrist and feel the pulse beats.

• Count the number of pulse beats felt by your right hand fingers in exactly one minute.
• Repeat the counting of pulse beats twice or thrice for accuracy. Find out the mean of all readings.
• Now run fast for a short distance for about one or two minutes, or climb the steps of a staircase quite rapidly twice or thrice.
• And thereafter, again measure your pulse s beats.

Questions:

1. State the normal pulse rate.
2. State the relation of pulse rate with the rate of heart beats.
3. State the number of pulse beats after a little running or climbing the staircase.
4. What is the change found in the pulse rate after running, as compared to the normal pulse rate? Why?

Answer:

1. 60- 100
2. The pulse rate is similar to heart beats.
3. 120 to 130 times in a minute.
4. Pulse rate increases after riming because body requires more oxygen and to fullfil it, heart beats increase.

Memory Map:

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Jharkhand Board Class 10 Science Periodic Classification of Elements Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to right across the periods of periodic table :
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
(b) The number of valence electrons increases.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
(d) The oxides become more acidic.
Answer:
The atoms lose their electrons more easily.

Question 2.
Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl₂, which is a solid with a high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the periodic table as…
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Si
Answer:
Mg

Question 3.
Which element has
(a) two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?
(b) the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2?
(c) a total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell?
(d) a total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell?
(e) twice as many electrons in its second? shell as in its first shell?
Answer:
(a) Neon (2, 8)
(b) Magnesium (2, 8, 2)
(c) Silicon (2, 8, 4)
(d) Boron (2, 3)
(e) Carbon (2, 4)

Question 4.
(a) What property do all elements in the same column of the periodic table as boron have in common?
(b) What property do all elements in the same column of the periodic table as fluorine have in common?
Answer:
(a) In the modern periodic table, Boron is an element of group 13. Its valency is 3. Thus, all other elements of this group have valency 3.

(b) In the modern periodic table, fluorine is an element of group 17. All the elements of this group have 7 electrons in their valence shells. Therefore, the valency of all elements of this group is 1.

Question 5.
An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7.
(a) What is the atomic number of this element?
(b) To which of the following elements would it be chemically similar? (Atomic numbers are given in parentheses.)
N (7) F (9) P (15) Ar (18)
Answer:
(a) The atomic number of this element is 17(2 + 8 + 7).
(b) F (9) [ ∵ Electronic configuration of F is 2, 7.]

Question 6.
The position of three elements A, B and C in the periodic table are shown below:

Group	Group 17
–	–
–	A
–	–
B	C

(a) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.
(b) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive than A.
(c) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B?
(d) Which type of ion, cation or anion, will be formed by element A?
Answer:
(a) Element A is an element of group 17. There are 7 electrons in their valence shell and thus by gaining one more electron it acquire a complete octet. Thus, an element A is a non-metal.

(b) On going down in a group, the atomic s size increases. Therefore, the force of attraction of the nucleus on the incoming electron decreases. As a result, reactivity decreases down the group. Since element C has larger atomic size than A, the element C is less reactive than the element A. In reference of forming positive ion, element C is more reactive than the element A.

(c) Elements B and C belong to the same period. On moving left to right in a period, atomic size (volume) decreases. Thus, the atomic size of C is smaller than B.

(d) Since element A has 7 electrons in the valence shell, it has a tendency to gain one electron to complete its octet. Thus, element A forms an anion.
A + \(\overline{\mathrm{e}}\) → A^–

Question 7.
Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic number 15) belong to group 15 of the periodic table. Write the electronic configuration of these two elements. Which of these will be more electronegative? Why?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of nitrogen and phosphorus are as follows:

Element	Atomic number	Electronic configuration
		K	L	M
Nitrogen (N)	7	2	5	–
Phosphorus (P)	15	2	8	5

Nitrogen is more electronegative than phosphorus because electronegative character decreases on moving down a group.

Question 8.
How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the modern periodic table?
Answer:
In the periodic table, position of an element depends on its electronic configuration. The position of an element can be determined by knowing the number of valence electron in its electronic configuration.
For example,

Possesses one electron in its valence shell. Hence, it belongs to group 1.
→ The number of shells in the electronic configuration of an element determines its position in a period.
For example,

has three shells (K, L and M). So, it belongs to 3rd period of the periodic table.

Question 9.
In the modern periodic table, calcium (atomic number 20) is surrounded by elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these have physical and chemical properties resembling calcium?
Answer:

Element	Atomic number	Electronic configuration
		k	L	M	N	O
Calcium	20	2	8	8	2	–
Magnesium	12	2	8	2	–	–
Potassium	19	2	8	8	1	–
Scandium	21	2	8	8	3	–
Strontium	38	2	8	18	8	–

Elements with atomic number 12 and 38 have 2 electrons in their last shell like calcium. So, they will resemble Ca in their chemical properties.

Question 10.
Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in Mendeleev’s periodic table and the modern periodic table.
Answer:

Mendeleev’s periodic table	Modern periodic table
1. Mendeleev’s periodic table consists of seven periods and eight groups.	1. Modern periodic table consists of seven periods and eighteen groups.
2. Transition elements are not separated in the Mendeleev’s periodic table.	2. Transition elements are placed in a separate groups in the modern periodic table.
3. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic masses.	3. In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers.
4. Period number and group number of an element cannot be predicted.	4. Period number and group number of an element can be determined easily.
5. Mendeleev’s periodic table has descripancies and limitations.	5. Modern periodic table is almost errorless.
6. Periodicity in the properties of elements cannot be explained.	6. Periodicity in the properties of elements can be explained.

Jharkhand Board Class 10 Science Periodic Classification of Elements InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Did Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of Newlands’ octaves? Compare and find out.
Answer:
Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of Newlands’ octaves.

• Lithium, sodium and potassium forms a Dobereiner’s triad.
• Lithium, the first element of this triad is considered as the first element as Newlands’ octave, then the eighth element from it is sodium. These elements possesses similar properties according to the law of triads and the law of octaves.
• Similarly, if sodium is considered as the first element then the eighth element from it is potassium.  Moreover, sodium and potassium possess similar properties according to both the laws.
• Apart from these, some other elements beryllium (Be), magnesium (Mg) and calcium (Ca) obeys law of triads and the law of octaves.
• Thus, Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of Newlands’ octaves.

Question 2.
What were the limitations of Dobereiner’s classification?
Answer:
The limitations of Dobereiner’s classification are as follows:

• All the elements known at that time could not be arranged as Dobereiner’s triad. Hence this method of classification of elements into triads was not found to be successful.
• Three elements nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and arsenic (As) were then known elements, but these elements could not be classified as Dobereiner’s triad.

Question 3.
What were the limitations of Newlands’ law of octaves?
Answer:

• Newlands’ law of octaves was applicable only to lighter elements having atomic masses up to 40 u.
  The law of octaves was applicable only s upto calcium, because after calcium every eighth element did not possess properties similar to that of the first element.
• Newlands assumed that only 56 elements s existed in nature and no new elements would be discovered in the future. But, later on, several new elements were discovered whose properties did not fit into the law of octaves.
• In order to fit elements into his table, Newlands adjusted two elements in the same slot, but also put some unlike elements under the same column.

For example, cobalt (Co) and nickel S (Ni) are placed in the same slot and these are placed in the same column as fluorine, chlorine and bromine which have very different properties S than these elements. Iron, which resembles cobalt and nickel in properties, has been placed far away from these elements.

Question 4.
Use Mendeleev’s periodic table to predict the formulae for the oxides of the following elements:
K, C, Al, Si, Ba
Answer:

Element	Group number (Valency)	Molecular formula of oxide
K	1	K<sub>2</sub>O
C	4	CO2
Al	3	Al2O3
Si	4	SiO2
Ba	2	BaO

Question 5.
Besides gallium, which other elements have since been discovered that were left by Mendeleev in his periodic table? (any two)
Answer:
Besides gallium, Mendeleev had left gaps for germanium and scandium in his periodic table.

Question 6.
What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his periodic table?
Answer:
The following criteria was used by Mendeleev in creating his periodic table :

• The properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic masses.
• Elements with similar properties are arranged in the same group.
• The formula of oxides and hydrides formed by an element.

Question 7.
Why do you think the noble gases are placed in a separate group?
Answer:
Noble gases like helium (He), neon (Ne) and argon (Ar) are chemically very inert and are present in extremely low concentrations in our atmosphere. Hence they are placed in a separate s group.

Question 8.
How could the modern periodic table remove various anomalies of Mendeleev’s periodic table?
Answer:
The modern periodic table removed three main anomalies of Mendeleev’s periodic table as discussed below:
(1) Position of isotopes : All the isotopes of an element have the same atomic number. Therefore, they are placed at one place in the same group of the periodic table.

(2) Anomalous position of some pairs of elements: In the Mendeleev’s periodic table, elements with similar properties are placed in the same group. For example, cobalt (atomic mass 58.9 u) placed first and nickel (atomic mass 58.7 u) placed later while in the modern periodic table elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers, therefore, cobalt with atomic number 27 placed first and nickel with atomic number 28 placed later.

(3) Uncertainty in discovery of new elements: Since atomic masses do not increase in a regular manner in going from one element to the next, therefore, in Mendeleev’s periodic table, it was not possible to predict as to how many new elements could be discovered between two known elements.

Since, modern periodic table is formed on the basis of atomic numbers of elements, discovery of new element become easy.

Question 9.
Name two elements you would expect to show chemical reactions similar to magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?
Answer:
In the modern periodic table, elements having same number of electrons in the valence shell show similar chemical properties.
Magnesium has two electrons in the valence shell, hence all the elements such as beryllium (Be), calcium (Ca) and strontium (Sr) having two electrons in the valence shell show similar chemical properties.

Elements of group 2
Element	Atomic number	Electronic configuration
		K	L	M	N	O
Beryllium (Be)	4	2	2
Magnesium (Mg)	12	2	8	2
Calcium (Ca)	20	2	8	8	2
Strontium (Sr)	38	2	8	18	8	2

Question 10.
Name :
(a) three elements that have a single electron in their outermost shells.
(b) two elements that have two electrons in their outermost shells.
(c) three elements with filled outermost shells.
Answer:
(a) Lithium (Li), sodium (Na) and potassium (K)
(b) Magnesium (Mg) and calcium (Ca)
(c) Neon (Ne), argon (Ar) and krypton (Kr)

Question 11.
(a) Lithium, sodium, potassium are all metals that react with water to liberate hydrogen gas. Is there any similarity in the? atoms of these elements?
(b) Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms have in common?
Answer:
(a) Lithium, sodium and potassium are alkali metals which react with water to form metal hydroxides with the release of hydrogen gas.
2M + 2H₂O → 2MOH + H₂
Where, M = Li, Na and K
All these metals have one electron in their respective valence shells.

(b) Helium and neon are noble gases. Both the elements have their outermost shells completely filled. Helium has only K shell which is complete with 2 electrons while neon has two shells, K and L. Both these shells are complete, i.e., K s shell has 2 electrons and L shell has 8 electrons.

Question 12.
In the modern periodic table, which are the metals among the first ten elements?
Answer:
The first ten elements of the modern periodic table are as follows :
₁H, ₂He, ₃Li, ₄Be, ₅B, ₆C, ₇N, ₈O, ₉F and ₁₀Ne.
Among these elements Li and Be are metals.

Question 13.
By considering their position in the periodic table, which one of the following elements would you expect to have maximum metallic characteristics?
Ga Ge As Se Be
Answer:
Among the given elements, Be and Ga will show maximum metallic characteristics.
The arrangement of given elements in different groups and periods is as follows :

Activity 5.1 [T. B. Pg. 84]

Looking at its resemblance to alkali metals and the halogen family, try to assign hydrogen a : correct position in Mendeleev’s periodic table.
To which group and period should hydrogen be assigned ?

Discussion:

• Hydrogen is an element having lowest atomic number (Z = 1) and lowest atomic mass (1.008 u).
• The electronic configuration of hydrogen resembles with alkali metals.
• Like alkali metals, hydrogen combines with halogens, oxygen and sulphur to form compounds having similar molecular formulae. Hence, hydrogen can be placed along with alkali metals of group (IA).
• Hydrogen exists as a diatomic molecule like halogens and it combines with alkali metals to form ionic compounds and with non-metals to form covalent compounds.
• Thus, hydrogen should be placed along with halogens in group (VII).

Conclusion :
The position of hydrogen in the periodic table is controversial, however, it would be more appropriate to place it in group I and period I.

Activity 5.2 [T. B. Pg. 85]

• Consider the isotopes of chlorine, Cl-35 and Cl-37.
• There are two known isotopes of chlorine : Cl-35 and Cl-37.
• The atomic number of these two isotopes is 17, hence they have similar electronic configuration and chemical properties, but their atomic masses are different.

Questions :

Question 1.
Would you place them in different slots because their atomic masses are different?
Answer:
According to Mendeleev’s periodic table, “The properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic masses.”

• According to Mendeleev, if these two isotopes are arranged in the order of increasing atomic masses, then their position should be before K(39.1u), but there is no vacant position available for Cl-37 in between Cl-35 and K(39.1u). Therefore they cannot be placed at the different position.

Question 2.
Would you place them in the same position because their chemical properties are the same?
Answer:
As they have similar chemical properties, they should be placed at the same position in group 17.

Activity 5.3 [T. B. Pg. 85]

Questions:

Question 1.
How were the positions of cobalt and nickel resolved in the modern periodic table?
Answer:

• In modern periodic table, elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers.
• The atomic number of cobalt and nickel are 27 and 28 respectively. Hence, on the basis of increasing order of their atomic numbers, cobalt is placed s in group 9 and nickel is placed in group 10.

Question 2.
How were the positions of isotopes of various elements decided in the modern periodic table?
Answer:
In the modern periodic table, positions of isotopes of different elements are not fixed separately. Since the various isotopes of an element have the same atomic number, they are assigned the same position in the modern periodic table.

Question 3.
Is it possible to have an element with atomic number 1.5 placed between hydrogen and helium?
Answer:

• The atomic number of an element is always definite and whole number.
• In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers.
• The atomic number cannot be represented in fraction number. Thus, an element with atomic number 1.5 cannot be placed between hydrogen S and helium.

Question 4.
Where do you think should hydrogen be placed in the modern periodic table?
Answer:
Hydrogen should be placed in period and group 1 in the modern periodic table, $ since it has atomic number one.

Activity 5.4 [T. B. Pg. 87]

Questions:

Question 1.
Look at the group 1 of the modern periodic table and name the elements present in it.
Answer:
The names of the elements present in group 1 are: hydrogen (H), lithium (Li), sodium (Na), potassium (K), rubidium (Rb), cesium (Cs) and francium (Fr).

Question 2.
Write down the electronic configuration of the first three elements of group 1.
Answer:
The electronic configuration of the first three elements are as follows :

Element	H	Li	Na
Shell	K	K, L	K, L, M
Electronic configuration	1	2, 1	2, 8, 1

Question 3.
What similarity do you find in their electronic configurations?
Answer:
These elements possesses same number of electrons in their valence shell.

Question 4.
How many valence electrons are present in these three elements?
Answer:
These three elements have one electron in their respective valence shell.

Activity 5.5 [T. B. Pg. 87]

Questions:

Question 1.
If you look at the modern periodic table, you will find that the elements Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F and Ne are present in the second period. Write down their electronic configurations.
Answer:

Element	3Li	4Be	5B	6C	7NN	8O	9F	10Ne
Shell	K, L	K, L	K, L	K, L	K, L	K, L	K, L	K, L
Electronic configuration	2, 1	2, 2	2, 3	2, 4	2, 5	2, 6	2, 7	2, 8

Question 2.
Do these elements also contain the same number of valence electrons?
Answer:
These elements do not contain the same number of valence electrons.

Question 3.
Do they contain the same number of shells?
Answer:
These elements contain the same number of shells (2, K and L).

Activity 5.6 [T. B. Pg. 88]

Questions :

Question 1.
How do you calculate the valency of an element from its electronic configuration?
Answer:
The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the outermost shell of the atom.
For elements of group 1, 2, 13 and 14, the valency is equal to the number of valence electrons and for elements of group 15, 16, 17 and 18, the valency is equal to 8 minus number of valence electrons.

Question 2.
What is the valency of magnesium with atomic number 12 and sulphur with atomic number 16?
Answer:
Electronic configuration of Mg with atomic number 12 is K L M 2 8 2
∴ Valency of Mg = 2
Electronic configuration of S with atomic number 16 is K L M 2 8 6
∴ Valency of S = 8 – 6 = 2

Question 3.
Find the valency of the first twenty elements.
Answer:

Element	Atomic number	Group number	Electronic configuration				Number of valence electrons	Valency of the element
			K	L	M	N
H	1	1	1				1	1
He	2	18	2				2	2-2 = 0
Li	3	1	2	1			1	1
Be	4	2	2	2			2	2
B	5	13	2	3			3	3
C	6	14	2	4			4	4
N	7	15	2	5			5	8-5 = 3
O	8	16	2	6			6	8-6 = 2
F	9	17	2	7			7	8-7=1
Ne	10	18	2	8			8	8-8 = 0
Na	11	1	2	8	1		1	1
Mg	12	2	2	8	2		2	2
Al	13	13	2	8	3		3	3
Si	14	14	2	8	4		4	4
P	15	15	2	8	5		5	8-5 = 3
S	16	16	2	8	6		6	8-6 = 2
Cl	17	17	2	8	7		7	8-7=1
Ar	18	18	2	8	8		8	8-8 = 0
K	19	1	2	8	8	1	1	1
Ca	20	2	2	8	8	2	2	2

Question 4.
How does the valency vary in a period on going from left to right?
Answer:
In a period, the valency first increases and then decreases. In a period, the valency first increases from 1 to 4 and then decreases from 4 to 0.

Question 5.
How does the valency vary in going down a group?
Answer:
On moving down the group, the valency does not change. It remains constant.

Activity 5.7 [T. B. Pg. 88]

Questions:

Question 1.
Atomic radii of the elements of the second period are given below:

Period II elements:	B	Be	O	N	Li	C
Atomic radius (pm):	88	111	66	74	152	77

Arrange them in decreasing order of their atomic radii.
Answer:
Decreasing order of the atomic radii:
Period II elements : Li > Be > B > C > N > O
Atomic radius (pm) : 152  111 88 77 74 66

Question 2.
Are the elements now arranged in the pattern of a period in the periodic table?
Answer:
Now, the above elements are arranged in the pattern of a period in the periodic table.

Question 3.
Which elements have the largest and the smallest atoms?
Answer:
Lithium (Li) has the largest and oxygen (O) has the smallest atoms.

Question 4.
How does the atomic radius change as you go from left to right in a period?
Answer:
The atomic radii decreases as we move from left to right in a period.

Activity 5.8 [T. B. Pg. 89]

Questions:

Question 1.
Study the variation in the atomic radii of ? first group elements given below and arrange them in an increasing order.

Group I elements :	Na	Li	Rb	Cs	K
Atomic radius (pm):	186	152	244	262	231

Answer:
Increasing order of the atomic radii:
Group I elements : Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
Atomic radius (pm): 152 186 231 244 262

Question 2.
Name the elements which have the smallest and the largest atoms.
Answer:
Lithium (Li) has the smallest atoms while Cesium (Cs) has the largest atoms.

Question 3.
How does the atomic size vary as you go down a group ?
Answer:
As we go down a group, the atomic size increases gradually.

Activity 5.9 [T. B. Pg. 89 ]

Questions:

Question 1.
Examine elements of the third period and classify them as metals and non-metals.
Answer:
The elements of the third period :

Question 2.
On which side of the periodic table do you find the metals?
Answer:
Metals are present on the left side of the periodic table.

Question 3.
On which side of the periodic table do you find the non-metals?
Answer:
Non-metals are present on the right side of the periodic table.

Activity 5.10 [T. B. Pg. 89]

Questions:

Question 1.
How do you think the tendency to lose electrons changes in a group?
Answer:
As we move from top to bottom in a group, the tendency to lose electrons increases.

Question 2.
How will this tendency change in a period?
Answer:
As we move from left to right in a period, the tendency to lose electrons decreases.

Activity 5.11 [T.B.Pg. 90]

Questions:

Question 1.
How would the tendency to gain electrons change as you go from left to right across a period?
Answer:
As we go from left to right across a period, the tendency to gain electrons increases.

Question 2.
How would the tendency to gain electrons change as you go down a group?
Answer:
As we go down a group, the tendency to gain electrons decreases.

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 15 Probability Exercise 15.1

Question 1.
Complete the following statements:
i) Probability of an event E+ Probability of the event ‘not E’ =
ii) The probability of an event that cannot happen is …………….. Such an event is called ……………
iii) The probability of an event that is certain to happen is …………. Such an event is called …………….
iv) The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary events of an experiment is ……………
v) The probability of an event is greater than or equal to ………………. and less than or equal to ………………
Solution:
i) 1,
ii) 0, impossible event,
iii) 1, sure or certain,
iv) 1,
v) 0, 1.

Question 2.
Which of the following experiments have equally likely outcomes? Explain.
i) A driver attempts to start a car. The car starts or does not start.
ii) A player attempts to shoot a basketball. She/he shoots or misses the shot.
iii) A trial made to answer a true-false question. The answer is right or wrong.
iv) A baby is born. It is a boy or a girl.
Solution:
(iii) and (iv) have equally likely outcomes. Only two possibilities are there in each of these cases.

Question 3.
Why is tossing a coin considered to be a fair way of deciding which team should get the ball at the beginning of a football game?
Solution:
When a coin is tossed, head or tail are equally likely possible events. So the result of an individual coin toss is unpredictable.

Question 4.
Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event:
A) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
B) -1.5
C) 15%
D) 0.7?
Solution:
(B) Because, probability of an event cannot be negative.

Question 5.
If P(E)= 0.05, what is the probability of ‘not E’?
Solution:
P(E) = 0.05.
[P(\(\overline{\mathrm{E}}\)) = Probability of not an event]
We know that P(E) + P(\(\overline{\mathrm{E}}\)) = 1
P(E) = 1 – 0.05 = 0.95.

Question 6.
A bag contains lemon flavoured candies only. Malini takes out one candy without looking into the bag. What is the probability that she takes out
i) an orange flavoured candy?
ii) a lemon flavoured candy?
Solution:
i) P(orange flavoured candy) = 0. Impossible event.
ii) P(Lemon flavoured candy) = 1. Sure event.

Question 7.
It is given that in a group of 3 students, the probability of 2 students not having the same birthday is 0.992. What is the probability that the 2 students have the same birthday?
Solution:
Let E = Event of 2 students not having the same birthday
∴ P(E) = 0.992
∴ P(E) + P(\(\overline{\mathrm{E}}\)) = 1
∴ 0.992 + P(\(\overline{\mathrm{E}}\)) = 1
⇒ P(\(\overline{\mathrm{E}}\)) = 1 – 0.992
= 0.008
So, the probability of two students having the same birthday is 0.008.

Question 8.
A bag contains 3 red balls and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that the ball drawn is (i) red? (ii) not red?
Solution:
Total number of balls, n(S) = 3 + 5 = 8.
Let E = Event of drawing 1 red ball
∴ n(E) = 3
(i) Probability of drawing a red ball = \(\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{8}\)
(ii) Probability of not drawing a red ball = 1 – P(Drawing a red ball)
= \(1-\frac{3}{8}=\frac{5}{8}\)

Question 9.
A box contains 5 red marbles, 8 white marbles and 4 green marbles. One marble is taken out of the box at random. What is the probability that the marble taken out will be
(i) red?
(ii) white?
(iii) not green?
Solution:
Total possible outcomes = 5 + 8 + 4 = 17.
P(R) = \(\frac{5}{17}\), P(W) = \(\frac{8}{17}\)
P(Not green) = P(R + W) = \(\frac{5}{17}+\frac{8}{17}=\frac{13}{17}\)

Question 10.
A piggy bank contains hundred 50 p coins, fifty Re. 1 coins, twenty Rs. 2 coins and ten Rs. 5 coins. If it is equally likely that one of the coins will fall out when the bank is turned upside down, what is the probability that the coin (i) will be a 50 p coin? (ii) will not be a Rs. 5 coin?
Solution:
Total possible outcomes: 100 + 50 + 20 + 10 = 180.
P(50 paise coin) = \(\frac{100}{180}=\frac{5}{9}\)
P(Not Rs. 5 coin) = \(\frac{100}{180}+\frac{50}{180}+\frac{20}{180}\)
= \(\frac{170}{180}=\frac{17}{18}\).

Question 11.
Gopi buys a fish from a shop for his aquarium. The shopkeeper takes out one fish at random from a tank containing 5 male fish and 8 female fish. What is the probability that the fish taken out is a male fish?
Solution:
Total number of fish in an aquarium = 5 male fish + 8 female fish = 13 fish
∴ Probability of taking out a male fish = \(\frac{\text { Number of male fish }}{\text { Total number of fish }}=\frac{5}{13}\)

Question 12.
A game of chance consists of spinning an arrow which comes to rest pointing at one of the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and these are equally likely outcomes. What is the probability that it will point at
i) 8?
ii) an odd number?
iii) a number greater than 2?
iv) a number less than 9?

Solution:
Total possible outcomes = 8.
i) P(8) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
ii) P(odd number) = \(\frac{4}{8}=\frac{1}{2}\)
iii) P(no. > 2) = \(\frac{6}{8}=\frac{3}{4}\)
iv) P(no. < 9) = \(\frac{8}{8}\) = 1

Question 13.
A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting
(i) a prime number, (ii) a number lying between 2 and 6, (iii) an odd number.
Solution:
Total possible outcomes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 = 6
P(Prime number) (2, 3, 5) = \(\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)
P(Number between 2 and 6) = \(\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)
P(Odd number) = \(\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 14.
One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting
i) a king of red colour
ii) a face card
iii) a red face card
iv) the jack of hearts
v) a spade
vi) the queen of diamonds.
Solution:
Total number of cards in one deck, n(S) = 52.
i) Let E₁ = Event of getting a king of red colour
∴ n(E₁) = 2
(∵ In a deck of cards, 26 cards are red and 26 cards are black. There are four kings in a deck in which two are red and two are black)
Probability of getting a king of red colour = \(\frac{n\left(E_1\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{2}{52}=\frac{1}{26}\)

ii) Let E₂ = Event of getting a face card
∴ n(E₂) = 12
(∵ In a deck of cards, there are 12 face cards – 4 king, 4 jack, 4 queen)
Probability of getting a face card = \(\frac{n\left(E_2\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{12}{52}=\frac{3}{13}\)

iii) Let E₃ = Event of getting a red face card
∴ n(E₃) = 6
(∵ In a deck of cards, there are 12 face cards – 6 red, 6 black)
Probability of getting a red face card = \(\frac{n\left(E_3\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{6}{52}=\frac{3}{26}\)

iv) Let E₄ = Event of getting a jack of hearts
∴ n(E₄) = 1
(∵ There are four jacks in a deck- 1 heart, 1 club, 1 spade, 1 diamond)
Probability of getting a jack of hearts = \(\frac{n\left(E_4\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{1}{52}\)

v) Let E₅ = Event of getting a spade
∴ n(E₅) = 13
(∵ In a deck of cards, there are 13 spades, 13 clubs, 13 hearts, 13 diamonds)
Probability of getting a spade = \(\frac{n\left(E_5\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{13}{52}=\frac{1}{4}\)

vi) Let E₆ = Event of getting a queen of diamond
∴ n(E₆) = 1
(∵ In 13 diamond cards, there is only one queen)
Probability of getting a queen of diamond = \(\frac{n\left(E_6\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{1}{52}\).

Question 15.
Five cards – the ten, jack, queen, king and ace of diamonds, are well shuffled with their face downwards. One card is then picked up at random.
i) What is the probability that the card is the queen?
ii) If the queen is drawn and put aside, what is the probability that the second card picked up is (a) an ace? (b) a queen?
Solution:
i) Total possible outcomes = 5
P(Queen card) = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
ii) If the queen card is put aside, total possible outcomes = 4.
iii) P(ace) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
iv) P(queen) = \(\frac{0}{2}\) = 0.

Question 16.
12 defective pens are accidentally mixed with 132 good ones. It is not possible to just look at a pen and tell whether or not it is defective. One pen is taken out at random from this lot. Determine the probability that the pen taken out is a good one.
Solution:
Total possible outcomes = 132 + 12 = 144
No. of good pens = 132.
P(good pen) = \(\frac{132}{144}=\frac{11}{12}\)

Question 17.
i) A lot of 20 bulbs contains 4 defective ones. One bulb is drawn at random from the lot. What is the probability that this bulb is defective?
ii) Suppose the bulb drawn in (i) is not defective and is not replaced. Now one bulb is drawn at random from the rest. What is the probability that this bulb is not defective?
Solution:
i) Total possible outcomes = 20
P(Defective bulbs) = \(\frac{4}{20}=\frac{1}{5}\)

ii) Total possible outcomes = 20 – 1 = 19
No. of defective bulbs = 4
No. of good bulbs = 15
P(Not defective bulb) = \(\frac{15}{19}\)

Question 18.
A box contains 90 dises which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears (i) a two-digit number, (ii) a perfect square number, (iii) a number divisible by 5.
Solution:
S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, … 90}
∴ Total possible outcomes n(S) = 90
i) Number of 2-digit numbers = 90 – 9 = 81
P(a 2-digit number) = \(\frac{81}{90}=\frac{9}{10}\)

ii) Event A = {A perfect square number}
A = (1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81) = n(A) = 9
Probability of the event P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{9}{90}\)

iii) A number divisible by 5, i.e., multiples of 5.
5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65, 70, 75, 80, 85, 90 = 18.
P(a no. divisible by 5) = \(\frac{18}{90}=\frac{1}{5}\).

Question 19.
A child has a die whose six faces show the letters as given below:

The die is thrown once. What is the probability of getting (i) A? (ii) D?
Solution:
Total possible outcomes = 6
No. of A’s = 2
No. of D’s = 1
P(A) = \(\frac{2}{6}=\frac{1}{3}\)
P(D) = \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 20.
A lot consists of 144 ball pens of which 20 are defective and the others are good. Nuri will buy a pen if it is good, but will not buy if it is defective. The shopkeeper draws one pen at random and gives it to her. What is the probability that
i) she will buy it?
ii) she will not buy it?
Solution:
Total number of possible outcomes = 144
No. of good pens = 144 – 20 = 124.
P(of buying) = \(\frac{124}{144}=\frac{31}{36}\)
P(of not buying) = \(\frac{20}{144}=\frac{5}{36}\)

Question 21.
(i) Two dice, one blue and one grey, are thrown at the same time. Write down all possible outcomes. What is the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing on the top of the dice is (i) 8, (ii) 13, (iii) less than or equal to 12? Complete the following table:

Solution:


1) Sum of 2 dice = 2 (1 + 1)
P(Sum 2) = \(\frac{1}{36}\)

2) Sum of 2 dice = 3 (1 + 2) (2 + 1)
P(Sum 3) = \(\frac{2}{36}\)

3) Sum 4 (1, 3) (2, 2) (3, 1)
P(Sum 4) = \(\frac{3}{36}\)

4) Sum 5 (1, 4) (2, 3) (3, 2) (4, 1)
P(Sum 5) = \(\frac{4}{36}\)

5) Sum 6 (1, 5) (2, 4) (3, 3) (4, 2) (5, 1)
P(Sum 6) = \(\frac{5}{36}\)

6) Sum 7 (1,6) (2, 5) (3, 4) (4, 3) (5, 2) (6, 1)
P(Sum 7) = \(\frac{6}{36}\)

7) Sum 8 (2, 6) (3, 5) (4, 4) (5, 3) (6, 2)
P(Sum 8) = \(\frac{5}{36}\)

8) Sum 9 (3, 6) (4, 5) (5, 4) (6, 3)
P(Sum 9) = \(\frac{4}{36}\)

9) Sum 10 (4, 6) (5, 5) (6, 4)
P(Sum 10) = \(\frac{3}{36}\)

10) Sum 11 (5, 6) (6,5)
P(Sum 11) = \(\frac{2}{36}\)

11) Sum 12 (6,6)
P(Sum 12) = \(\frac{1}{36}\)

ii) A student argues that ‘there are 11 possible outcomes 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12.
Therefore, each of them has a probability \(\frac{1}{11}\). Do you agree with this argument? Justify your answer.
Solution:
Total possible outcomes of throwing the two dice, S =
{(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6)
(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6)
(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)
(4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6)
(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6)
(6, 1), (6, 2), (6,3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
∴ n(S) = 36

a) Let E₁ = Sum of two dice is 3 = {(1, 2), (2, 1)}
n(E₁) = 2
∴ P(E₁) = \(\frac{n\left(E_1\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{2}{36}\)

b) Let E₂ = Sum of two dice is 4 = {(1, 3), (2, 2), (3, 1)}
n(E₂) = 3
∴ P(E₂) = \(\frac{n\left(E_2\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{36}\)

c) Let E₃ = Sum of two dice is 5 = {(1, 4), (2, 3), (3,2), (4, 1)}
n(E₃) = 4
∴ P(E₃) = \(\frac{n\left(E_3\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{4}{36}\)

d) Let E₄ = Sum of two dice is 6 = {(1, 5), (2, 4), (3, 3), (4, 2), (5, 1)}
n(E₄) = 5
∴ P(E₄) = \(\frac{5}{36}\)

e) Let E₅ = Sum of two dice is 7 = {(1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4,3), (5, 2), (6, 1)}
n(E₅) = 6
∴ P(E₅) = \(\frac{n\left(E_5\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{6}{36}\)

f) Let E₆ = Sum of two dice is 8 = {(2, 6), (3, 5), (4, 4), (5, 3), (6,2)}
n(E₆) = 5
∴ P(E₆) = \(\frac{n\left(E_6\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{5}{36}\)

g) Let E₇ = Sum of two dice is 9 = {(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6,3)}
n(E₇) = 4
∴ P(E₇) = \(\frac{n\left(E_7\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{4}{36}\)

h) Let E₈ = Sum of two dice is 10 = {(4, 6), (5, 5), (6, 4)}
n(E₈) = 3
∴ P(E₈) = \(\frac{n\left(E_8\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{36}\)

i) Let E₉ = Sum of two dice is 11 = {(6,5), (5, 6)}
n(E₉) = 2
∴ P(E₉) = \(\frac{n\left(E_9\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{2}{36}\)

j) Let E₁₀ = Sum of two dice is 12 = {(6, 6)}
n(E₁₀) = 1
∴ P(E₁₀) = \(\frac{n\left(E_{10}\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{1}{36}\)
No. The eleven events are not equally likely.

Question 22.
A game consists of tossing a one rupee coin 3 times and noting its outcome each time. Hanif wins if all the tosses give the same result i.e., three heads or three tails, and loses otherwise. Calculate the probability that Hanif will lose the game.
Solution:
Total possible outcomes (H + T)³
= H³ + 3H²T + 3HT² + T³
HHH HHT HTH THH HTT THT TTH TTT = 8.
Possible losses HHT HTH THH HTT THT TTH = 6
P(of losses) = \(\frac{6}{8}=\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 23.
A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that
(i) 5 will not come up either time? (ii) 5 will come up at least once?
[Hint: Throwing a die twice and throwing two dice simultaneously are treated as the same experiment].
Solution:
i) Total number of cases, n(S) = 6² = 36
Let \(\overline{\mathrm{E}}\) = Event that 5 will come up either time
= {(1, 5), (2, 5), (3, 5), (4, 5), (5, 5), (6, 5), (5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 6)}
⇒ n(\(\overline{\mathrm{E}}\)) = 11
and E = Event that 5 will not come up either time
n(E) = 36 – 11 = 25
∴ Probability that 5 will not come up either time = \(1-\frac{11}{36}=\frac{36-11}{36}\)
= \(\frac{25}{36}\)
ii) Probability that 5 will come up at least once = 12 – 1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\).

Question 24.
Which of the following arguments are correct and which are not correct? Give reasons for your answer.
i) If two coins are tossed simultaneously there are three possible outcomes – two heads, two tails or one of each. Therefore, for each of these outcomes, the probability is \(\frac{1}{3}\).
ii) If a die is thrown, there are two possible outcomes – an odd number or an even number. Therefore, the probability of getting an odd number is \(\frac{1}{2}\).
Solution:
i) Incorrect: We can classify the outcomes like this but they are not then ‘equally likely’. The reason is that ‘one of each’ can result in two ways – from head on first coin and tail on the second coin or from tail on the first coin and head on the second coin. This makes it twice as likely as 2 heads or 2 tails.

ii) Correct. The two outcomes considered in the question are equally likely. Both have the same probability. i.e., \(\frac{1}{2}\).

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

I. Objective Type Questions

India has which type of climate?
(a) Monsoon
(b) Tundra
(c) Savanna
(d) Mediterranean.
Answer:
(a) Monsoon

2. The major factor/factors controlling the climate of any region is/are:
(a) latitude
(b) altitude
(c) pressure and wind system
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.

3. The climate of India is strongly influenced by:
(a) local winds
(b) monsoon winds
(c) westerlies winds
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) monsoon winds

4. How many seasons can be indentified in India?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Two
(d) Six.
Answer:
(a) Four

5. Which is the most rainy place in the world?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Leh
(c) Mawsynram
(d) Mumbai.
Answer:
(c) Mawsynram

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define weather and climate.
Answer:
Weather refers to the state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time, while climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a longer period of time.

Question 2.
Define Monsoon.
Answer:
The word ‘Monsoon’ is derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’, which literally means season. Monsoon refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year. It reveals the rhythm of season and changes in direction of wind.

Question 3.
What is extreme climate?
Answer:
The climate which has high annual range of temperature and great variation in the amount of rainfall over the year is known as extreme climate. It is also called continental or interior climate. Example Jodhpur, Delhi.

Question 3.
Mention major factors affecting the climate of our country.
Answer:

1. Location,
2. Latitude,
3. Altitude,
4. Pressure and winds,
5. Relief.

Question 4.
Which physical feature of India acts as an influential climate divide between India and Central sea?
Answer:
The Himalayas.

Question 5.
Name the planatery winds that blow from the subtropical high pressure zone to the equatorial low pressure zone.
Answer:
Trade winds.

Question 6.
What are trade winds?
Answer:
Trade winds are planetary winds blowing constantly from the sub-tropical high pressure zones towards the ‘Equatorial low pressure zones’. Their direction is from North-east to South-west in the North Hemisphere and from South-east to Northwest in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 7.
Define the term season.
Answer:
The predominance of an element of weather, such as temperature, rainfall and cloudiness over a period of a few months is called season.

Question 8.
What do you understand by coriolis force?
Answer:
Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the earth’s rotation. The coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the Northern Hemisphere and towards the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This is also known as ‘Ferrel’s Law’.

Question 9.
Which are the most constant jet streams?
Answer:

1. Mid latitude jet stream,
2. Subtropical jet stream.

Question 10.
What are cyclones?
Answer:
Cyclones are the speedy elliptical wind arrangements having low pressure at their centre and the winds moving towards centre from outside.

Question 11.
From where the western disturbances originated?
Answer:
The western disturbances originated over the Mediterranean Sea.

Question 12.
What is ITCZ?
Answer:
The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a broad trough of low pressure in equatorial latitudes. This is where the north-east and the south-east trade winds converge. This convergence zone lies more or less parallel to the equator but moves north or south with the apparent movement of the sun.

Question 13.
What is the influence area of the monsoon?
Answer:
Regions between 20° N and 20° S latitudes.

Question 14.
How is the intensity of monsoons predicted?
Answer:
The difference in pressure over yahiti (Pacific Ocean, 18°S/14.9°W) and Darwin in Northern Australia (Indian Ocean, 12°30’S/131°E) is computed to predict the intensity of the monsoons. If the pressure differences are negative, it would mean below average and late monsoons.

Question 15.
Name the two branches in which the peninsular India divide the monsoon winds.
Answer:

1. The Arabian Sea Branch, and
2. The Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 16.
Name two branches in which the Bay of Bengal branch splits into.
Answer:

1. The western branch,
2. The north-east branch.

Question 17.
What is burst of monsoon?
Answer:
Burst or break of the monsoon is sudden setting-in of rainfall, the rainfall without warning. This occurs when the monsoon branches and the jet streams come into contact with each other all of a sudden.

Question 18.
Name the four seasons of India.
Answer:

1. Winter season (December to February)
2. Summer season (March to May)
3. Advancing monsoon (June to mid-September)
4. Retreating monsoon (mid-September to November).

Question 19.
Where is high pressure found during winter?
Answer:
In the Northern plains.

Question 20.
Name the winds that blow in India during winter.
Answer:
North-east trade winds.

Question 21.
Which hot wind blows during summers in the northern plains?
Answer:
Loo.

Question 22.
What is Loo?
Answer:
Loo are local hot winds which blow during summer afternoons in the north-west and the Ganga valley regions.

Question 23.
What is Kaal Baisakhi?
Answer:
Localised thunderstorms associated with violent winds, torrential downpour, and often accompanied by hails during summer months in West Bengal are known as Kaal Baisakhi, meaning calamity for the month of Baisakh.

Question 24.
What are mango showers?
Answer:
The pre-monsoon showers occuring on the coastal regions of Kerala and Karnataka which help early ripening of mango fruit, are called mango showers.

Question 25.
What type of rainfall does the North-east Branch cause?
Answer:
Heavy rainfall.

Question 26.
Define precipitation.
Answer:
Precipitation is the moisture shed by the moisture-laden winds on the surface of the earth. Precipitation includes rainfall, snowfall, hail, sleet etc.

Question 27.
Mention the two heaviest rainfall areas of the country.
Answer:

1. The windward slopes of the Western Ghats.
2. The Meghalaya plateau.

Question 28.
Name the place where the heaviest rainfall of the world occurs.
Answer:
Mawsynram (1080 cm).

Question 29.
Which monsoon winds cause rains generally on the Tamil Nadu coast?
Answer:
Retreating monsoon winds and north-east monsoon winds.

Question 30.
What is known as ‘October Heat’?
Answer:
Conditions of high temperature, humidity and lack of air movement lead to oppres¬sive weather conditions in the half of the October. This is known as October Heat.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the coriolis force? State its effects on the world climate.
Answer:
Meaning of Coriolis Force: It is an apparent force caused by the Earth’s rotation. It is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the Northern hemisphere and towards the left in the Southern hemisphere.

Effect of Coriolis Force on the World Climate: Under the effect of coriolis force, the trade winds moving from sub-tropical high-pressure belts to equatorial low-pressure belts become North-East trade winds in the Northern hemisphere and South-East trade winds in the Southern hemisphere. As a result, they bring heavy rainfall to the Eastern Coast, while the Western Coast remains dry.

Question 2.
The pressure and wind conditions over India are unique’. Explain.
Answer:

1. During winter, there develops a high pressure area in the north of the Himalayas, cold dry winds blow from this region to the low pressure areas over the ocean to the south.
2. In summer, a low pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over north western India. This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during sum¬mer. These winds are known as south-west monsoon winds. These bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India.

Question 3.
What are western cyclonic disturbances? Describe its effect on the Indian climate. Answer:The western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena brought in by westerly flow from the Mediterranean region. They occur in the month of winter and cause rainfall in North and North-Western part of India. They affect the climate of India in the following ways:

1. By causing cyclonic rainfall in the month of winter, which is otherwise dry, western disturbance influences the weather of the North and North-Western India.
2. Although the amount of rainfall is scant, it is highly favourable to the Rabi crops, especially wheat.
3. They cause snowfall in the mountains.

Question 4.
What do you understand by the southern oscillation?
Answer:
The pressure systems of Pacific Ocean and Indian Ocean are inter-related. When the surface pressure is high in the sub-tropical region of the Pacific Ocean, in the Northern Hemisphere, the pressure over the southern part of the Indian Ocean tends to be low and vice- versa.

This results in shifting of winds across the Equator. The south-eastern trade winds of the Southern Hemisphere are attracted towards the low pressure of Northern Tropics. These winds often crossing the Equator become south-western monsoons. This is called southern oscillation.

Question 5.
Distinguish between Wind and Jet Streams. Answer:Differences between Wind and Jet Streams are:

Wind	Streams
1. Winds are moving air from high pres¬sure to low pressure areas.	1. Jet streams are fast moving mass of air in the upper troposphere.
2. They move horizontally on the surface of the earth.	2. They move horizontally in the troposphere.
3. Their speed is upto 75 km per hour.	3. Their speed exceeds 200km/hour.
4. Winds are divided as dry winds, moist winds, cold winds and hot winds.	4. Jet streams are divided into western and eastern jet streams.

Question 6.
What is EL Nino? Mention two features of this.
Answer:
EL Nino: The periodic development of warm ocean current along the coast of Peru as a temporary replacement of the cold peruvian current is called EL-Nino. Features of EL-Nino:

1. The presence of the EL-Nino leads to an increase in sea surface temperatures.
2. It weakens the trade winds in the regions and causes heavy rainfall, floods or droughts in different regions of the world.

Question 7.
What is monsoon? Name the two branches of monsoon and briefly explain any one.
Answer:
Monsoon:
it refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year. Bay of Bengal Branch.
(a) This branch of monsoon moves along the Bay of Bengal. It advances rapidly and arrives in the North-Eastern part of the country in first week of june.

(b) The lofty mountains cause this branch of monsoon winds to deflect towards the west over the Ganga plain.

(c) It merges with the Arabian Sea branch over the North-Western part of the Ganga plains.

Question 8.
Differentiate between cold weather season and hot weather season of India.
Answer:
Differences between cold and hot weather season are:

Cold Weather Season	Hot Weather Season
1. It begins from mid November in northern India and stays till February.	1. It begins from March and stays till May.
2. The temperature decreases from South to North.	2. Experiences rising temperature and falling air pressure in North India.
3. Days are warm and nights are cold.	3. Hot and dry winds called ‘loo’ blow during the day.
Cold Weather Season	Hot Weather Season

Question 9.
Describe the features of the hot weather season.
Answer:
The main features of the hot weather season are as given under:

1. It lasts from March to May.
2. Intense low pressure develops over the north-western part of India at the end of this season.
3. High temperature around 48°C prevails in this season.
4. Hot dry winds, i.e., Loo blow in the afternoon. They may continue even up to midnight.
5. Dust stroms are common during May in Punjab, Haryana, eastern Rajasthan and western Uttar Pradesh.
6. Local storms of great intensity are also common. These local storms are associated with violent winds, torrential rains and even hailstorms, e.g., Kaal Bai- sakhi in West Bengal and Assam.

Question 10.
Define Kaal Baisakhi, Loo and Mango Showers.
Answer:

1. Kaal Baisakhi: These are the local thunderstorms associated with violent winds, torrential downpours, often accompanied by hail. They occur in West Bengal.
2. Loo: These are stormy, hot, dry winds blowing during the day over the North and North-Western India.
3. Mango Showers: The pre-monsoon showers which help in the ripening of mangoes in coastal Kerala and Karanataka are known as Mango Showers.

Question 11.
Why do Western Ghats receive more rainfall than Eastern Ghats?
Answer:
Western Ghats receive more rainfall than Eastern Ghats because Western Ghats receive rainfall from the Arabian Sea monsoon winds. They does not allow these winds to cross over without shedding their moisture on the western slopes. A part of these winds that reaches the Eastern Ghats is almost dry.

Question 12.
Describe the features of the Advancing Monsoon season.
Answer:
Advancing monsoon season is also known as the hot wet weather season or rainy season.
The features of the Advancing Monsoon season are:

1. It lasts from June to September.
2. 75% to 90% of the total annual rainfall is concentrated over this period.
3. Distribution of rainfall is very largely governed by the relief.
4. The monsoon rains occur in wet spells.
5. The wet spells are interspersed with rainless dry spells.
6. The alternation of dry and wet spells keeps on varying in intensity, frequency and duration.

Question 13.
Where is Mawsynram located? Why does it receive the highest amount of rainfall?
Answer:
Mawsynram is located in the Southern ranges of the Khasi hills in Meghalaya at a height of 1500 metre above the sea level. It receives the highest (annual 1140 cm) rainfall in the world. Mawsynram receives the highest amount of rainfall because:

1. This place is enclosed by hills on three sides.
2. The relief features give this place tunnel-shaped location.
3. The Bay of Bengal monsoon is trapped in these hills. These winds try to get out of there, but are forced to cause heavy rainfall there.

III. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the major controls of the climate of any place? Explain.
Answer:
There are six major controls of the climate of any place. They are:
1. Latitude:
Due to the curvature of the earth, the amount of solar energy received varies according to latitude. As a result, air temperature generally decreases from the equator towards the poles.

2. Altitude:
As one goes from the surface of the earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less dense and temperature decreases. The hills are therefore cooler during summers.

3. Pressure and wind system:
The pressure and wind system of any area depend on the latitude and altitude of the place. Thus, it influences the temperature and rainfall pattern.

4. Distance from the sea:
The sea exerts a moderating influence on climate. As the distance from the sea increases, its moderating influence decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions.

5. Ocean currents:
Ocean currents along with onshore winds affect the climate of the coastal areas. For example, any coastal area with warm or cold currents flowing past it, will be warmed or cooled if the winds are onshore.

6. Relief:
Relief play a major role in determining the climate of a place. High mountains act a barriers for cold or hot winds. They, may also cause precipitation if they are high enough and lie in the path of rain-bearing winds. The leeward side of mountain remains relatively dry.

Question 2.
How is the climate of India governed by the atmospheric conditions?
Answer:
The climate of India is governed by the following atmospheric conditions:
1. Pressure and surface winds:
The surface winds below from region of high pressure to the region of low pressure. During winter, the high pressure area lies in the north of the Himalayas. Over the ocean in the south, there is low pressure, so, wind blow from land toward sthe sea. The reverse occurs during summer.

2. Upper air circulation:
The north-easterly winds originate in sub-tropical high pres-sure belt of northern hemisphere. They blow southwards and get deflected towards right (due to coriolis force) over the low-pressure area of the Indian sub-continent. They are dry and cold and cause no rainfall. Sub-tropical westerly jet stream brings western cyclonic disturbances in north and north-western India during winter.

3. Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical cyclones:
They are a part of easterly flow. They cause heavy to very low rainfall in Eastern coast of India during the monsoon as well as in October-November.

Question 3.
Describe the main characteristics of Retreating Monsoon.
Answer:
Main Characteristics of Retreating Monsoon : Main characteristics of retreating Monsoon are the following:

1. October and November are the months of retreating monsoon.
2. During this time, low monsoon trough becomes weak and is replaced by high pressure. Thus, monsoon begins to retreat. By the beginning of October, it retreats completely from the Northern Plains.
3. This period is the period of transition from hot rainy season to cold winter season. It is marked by clear sky, moist ground and high temperatures giving birth to October heat.
4. Low pressure trough shifts to the Bay of Bengal. They give rise to cyclonic depressions which cause havoc on the eastern coasts, especially the coasts of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, with very strong storms and rains. The super cyclone of 1999 will remain in the memories of millions of people forever, who lost their near and dear ones alongwith their property.

Question 4
Differentiate between South-west Monsoon and North-east Monsoon.
Answer:
Difference between South-west Monsoon and North-east Monsoon:

South-west Monsoon	North-east Monsoon
1.The winds blowing from South-west to North-east direction during the months of June to September are called South west Monsoon winds.	1. The winds blowing in India from North-east to South-west direction during the months of December to February are called North-east Monsoon winds.
2. These winds blow from South-west towards low pressure region.	2. These winds blow from the high pressure region towards the seas.
3. They are moisture-laden and hot.	3. They are dry and cold.
4. These winds cause 75 to 90% of the total annual rainfall during the reason of south-west monsoon.	4. They cause rainfall on the Tamil Nadu coast during winter.
5. The South-west Monsoon has two branch the Arabian Sea branch and I the Bay of Bengal branch.	5. They do not have branches.
6. Rainy days, soothing winds and overcast sky are the characteristic features of’ the South-west Monsoon.	6. Clear sky, low temperature, gentle breeze and rainless fine weather are the major features of the North-east Monsoon.

Locate & Labelling Meteorological stations cities to locate: Thiruvananthapuram, Chennai, Jodhpur, Bangalore, Mumbai, Kolkata, Leh, Shillong, Delhi, Nagpur.
Answer:

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 14 Statistics Ex 14.3 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 14 Statistics Exercise 14.3

Question 1.
The following frequency distribution gives the monthly consumption of electricity of 68 consumers of a locality. Find the media, mean and mode of the data and compare them.

Monthly consumption (in units)	No. of consumers
65 – 85	4
85 – 105	5
105 – 125	13
125 – 145	20
145 – 165	14
165 – 185	8
185 – 205	4

Solution:


Mean is 137 units.
Median is 137 units.
Mode is 135.76 units.
The three measures are approximately the same.

Question 2.
If the median of the distribution given below is 28.5, find the values of x and y.

Class interval	Frequency
0 – 10	5
10 – 20	x
20 – 30	20
30 – 40	15
40 – 50	y
50 – 60	5
Total	60

Solution:

Class interval	Frequency	Cumulative frequency
0 – 10	5	5
10 – 20	x	5 + x
20 – 30	20	25 + x
30 – 40	15	40 + x
40 – 50	y	40 + x + y
50 – 60	5	45 + x + y
	60

n = 60, 45 + x + y = 60
x + y = 60 – 45
x + y = 15
The median is 28.5. It lies in the class interval 20 – 30.
∴ l = 20, f = 20, cf = 5 + x, h = 10

Question 3.
A life insurance agent found the following data for distribution of ages of 100 policyholders. Calculate the median age, if policies are given only to persons having age 18 years onwards but less than 60 years.

Age (in years)	No. of policyholders
Below 20	2
Below 25	6
Below 30	24
Below 35	45
Below 40	78
Below 45	89
Below 50	92
Below 55	98
Below 60	100

Solution:

Class interval	No. of policyholders	c.f.
Below 20	2	2
20 – 25	4	6
25 – 30	18	24
30 – 35	21	45
35 – 40	33	78
40 – 45	11	89
45 – 50	3	92
50 – 55	6	98
55 – 60	2	100
	n = 100	\(\frac{n}{2}\) = 50

l = 35, \(\frac{n}{2}\) = 50, cf = 45, f = 33, h = 5

Question 4.
The lengths of 40 leaves of a plant are measured correct to the nearest millimetre, and the data obtained is represented in the following table:

Length (in mm)	Number of leaves
118 – 126	3
127 – 135	5
136 – 144	9
145 – 153	12
154 – 162	5
163 – 171	4
172 – 180	2

Find the median length of the leaves.
(Hint: The data need to be converted to continuous classes for finding the median, since the formula assumes continuous classes. The classes then change to 117.5 – 126.5, 126.5 – 135.5, ….., 171.5 – 180.5).
Solution:
The data have to be converted to continuous classes for finding the median since the formula. assumes continuous classes.

Class interval	No. of leaves	Cumulative frequency (cf)
117.5 – 126.5	3	3
126.5 – 135.5	5	8
135.5 – 144.5	9	17
144.5 – 153.5	12	29
153.5 – 162.5	5	34
162.5 – 171.5	4	38
171.5 – 180.5	2	40

n = 40, \(\frac{n}{2}\) = 20
The median lies in the class interval 144.5 – 153.5.
l = 144.5, \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}=\frac{40}{2}\) = 20, cf = 17, f = 12, h = 9.
Median = l + \(\left[\frac{\frac{n}{2}-c f}{f}\right]\) × h
= 144.5 + \(\left[\frac{20-17}{12} \times 9\right]\)
= 144.5 + \(\left[\frac{27}{12}\right]\)
= 144.5 + 2.25
= 146.75 mm.

Question 5.
The following table gives the distribution of the lifetime of 400 neon lamps:

Lifetime (in hours)	Number of lamps
1500 – 2000	14
2000 – 2500	56
2500 – 3000	60
3000 – 3500	86
3500 – 4000	74
4000 – 4500	62
4500 – 5000	48

Find the median lifetime of a lamp.
Solution:

Lifetime in hours (CI)	No. of lamps (l)	Cumulative frequency
1500 – 2000	14	14
2000 – 2500	56	70
2500 – 3000	60	130
3000 – 3500	86	216
3500 – 4000	74	290
4000 – 4500	62	352
4500 – 5000	48	400

The median lies in the class interval 3000 – 3500.
\(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}=\frac{400}{2}=200\)
l = 3000, \(\frac{n}{2}\) = 200, cf = 130, f = 86, h = 500.
Median = l + \(\left[\frac{\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}-\mathrm{cf}}{\mathrm{f}}\right]\) × h
= 3000 + \(\left[\frac{200-130}{86}\right]\) × 500
= 3000 + \(\left[\frac{70}{86}\right]\) × 500
= 3000 + \(\frac{35000}{86}\)
= 3000 + 406.976
Median life of a lamp is 3406.98 hours.

Question 6.
100 surnames were randomly picked up from a local telephone directory and the frequency distribution of the number of letters in the English alphabet in the surnames was obtained as follows:

No. of letters	No. of surnames
1 – 4	6
4 – 7	30
7 – 10	40
10 – 13	16
13 – 16	4
16 – 19	4

Determine the median number of letters in the surnames. Find the mean number of letters in the surnames. Also, find the modal size of the surnames.
Solution:

Hence the modal size of the surnames is 7.88.

Question 7.
The distribution below gives the weights of 30 students of a class. Find the median weight of the students.

Solution:

Weight in kg.	No. of students	Cumulative frequency (c.f.)
40 – 45	2	2
45 – 50	3	5
50 – 55	8	13
55 – 60	6	19
60 – 65	6	25
65 – 70	3	28
70 – 75	2	30

\(\frac{n}{2}\) = 15
The median lies in the class 55 – 60.
l = 55, \(\frac{n}{2}\) = 15, c.f. = 13, f = 6, h = 5.
Median = l + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × h
= 55 + \(\left[\frac{15-13}{6}\right]\) × 5
= 55 + \(\frac{2}{6}\) × 5
= 55 + \(\frac{5}{3}\)
= 55 + 1.666 = 56.666
∴ Median = 56.67 kg.
Hence, the median weight of the students is 56.67 kg.

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 9 Some Applications of Trigonometry Ex 9.1 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 9 Some Applications of Trigonometry Exercise 9.1

Question 1.
A circus artist is climbing a 20 m long rope, which is tightly stretched and tied from the top of a vertical pole to the ground. Find the height of the pole, if the angle made by the rope with the ground level is 30°.
Solution :

sin \(\hat{\mathrm{C}}\) = \(\frac{AB}{AC}\)
sin 30° = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
\(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{AB}{20}\)
AB = \(\frac{20}{2}\) = 10 m

Question 2.
A tree breaks due to storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the tree touches the ground making an angle 30° with it. The distance between the foot of the tree to the point where the top touches the ground is 8 m. Find the height of the tree.
Solution :

Question 3.
A contractor plans to install two slides for the children to play in a park. For the children below the age of 5 years, she prefers to have a slide whose top is at a height of 1.5 m, and is inclined at an angle of 30° to the ground, whereas for elder children, she wants to have a steep slide at a height of 3m, and inclined at an angle of 60° to the ground. What should be the length of the slide in each case?
Solution:

(i) Figure (a) shows the slide for children below the age of 5 years.
Let BC = 1.5 m be the height of the slide. Slide AC is inclined at CAB = 30° to the ground.
In right angled ΔABC, sin 30° = \(\frac{BC}{AC}\)
\(\frac{1}{2}=\frac{15}{AC}\)
⇒ AC = 3 m.

(ii) Figure (b) shows the slide for elder children. Let RQ = 3 m be the height of the slide. Slide PR is inclined at ∠RPQ = 60° to the ground.
In right angled ΔPQR, sin 60° = \(\frac{RQ}{PR}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) = \(\frac{3}{PR}\)
PR = \(\frac{3 \times 2}{\sqrt{3}}\) = 2\(\sqrt{3}\) m.

Question 4.
The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of the tower, is 30°. Find the height of the tower.
Solution :

tan C = \(\frac{AB}{CB}\)
tan 30° = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
tan 30° = \(\frac{h}{30}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac{h}{30}\)
h\(\sqrt{3}\) = 30
h = \(\frac{30}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{30 \times \sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3} \times \sqrt{3}}=\frac{30 \sqrt{3}}{3}\)
h = 10\(\sqrt{3}\)mts.
Hence, height of the tower is 10\(\sqrt{3}\) mts.

Question 5.
A kite is flying at a height of 60 m above the ground. The string attached to the kite is temporarily tied to a point on the ground. The inclination of the string with the ground is 60°. Find the length of the string, assuming that there is no slack in the string.
Solution :

Length of the string is 40\(\sqrt{3}\) mts.

Question 6.
A 1.5 m tall boy is standing at some distance from a 30 m tall building. The angle of elevation from his eyes to the top of the building increases from 30° to 60° as he walks towards the building. Find the distance he walked towards the building.
Solution :

Let the boy be standing at point B initially. He walks towards the building and reaches point D. From the figure, the distance walked by the boy towards the building is BD.
AC = AG – CG
AC = 30 – 1.5 = 28.5
Now, in ΔABC, we have
tan 30 = \(\frac{AC}{BC}\)
BC = \(\frac{AC}{tan 30}\)
BC = 28.5\(\sqrt{3}\)
Again, in ΔADC, we have
tan 60 = \(\frac{AC}{DC}\)
DC = \(\frac{AC}{tan 60}\)
DC = \(\frac{28.5}{\sqrt{3}}\)
DC = \(\frac{28.5 \sqrt{3}}{3}\) = 9.5\(\sqrt{3}\)
BD = BC – DC
BD = 28.5\(\sqrt{3}\) – 9.5\(\sqrt{3}\)
BD = 19\(\sqrt{3}\)
The distance walked by the boy towards the building is 19\(\sqrt{3}\) m.

Question 7.
From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of the bottom and the top of a transmission tower fixed at the top of a 20 m high building are 45° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower.
Solution :

tan 60° = \(\sqrt{3}\)
tan 45° = 1
In ΔADC, A\(\hat{\mathrm{D}}\)C = 60
tan 60° = \(\frac{AC}{AD}\)
\(\sqrt{3}\) = \(\frac{x+20}{DA}\)

In ΔBDA, A\(\hat{\mathrm{D}}\)B = 45°
tan 45° = \(\frac{AB}{AD}\) = 1
AB = AD = 20 mts.
DA\(\sqrt{3}\) = x + 20
\(\sqrt{3}\)DA = x + 20
\(\sqrt{3}\)(20) = x + 20
x = 20\(\sqrt{3}\) – 20
= 20(\(\sqrt{3}\) – 1)
Height of the tower B = 20(\(\sqrt{3}\) – 1) mts.

Question 8.
A statue, 1.6 m tall, stands on the top of a pedestal. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of the statue is 60° and from the same point the angle of elevation of the top of the pedestal is 45°. Find the height of the pedestal.
Solution :

tan 60° = \(\sqrt{3}\)
In ΔADC, tan 60° = \(\frac{AC}{CD}\)
\(\sqrt{3}\) = \(\frac{AC}{CD}\)
AC = \(\sqrt{3}\)CD

In ΔBDC, tan B\(\hat{\mathrm{D}}\)C = tan 45° = \(\frac{BC}{CD}\)
1 = \(\frac{BC}{CD}\)
CD = BC.

A = AC – CB
= AC – CD (∵ CB = CD)
= \(\sqrt{3}\)CD – CD
1.6 = CD(\(\sqrt{3}\) – 1)

Height of the pedestal = 0.8(\(\sqrt{3}\) + 1) mts.

Question 9.
The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. If the tower is 50 m high, find the height of the building.
Solution :

Let the height of the building CD be h.
tan 60° = \(\sqrt{3}\)
tan 30° = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
In ΔABC, tan \(\hat{\mathrm{C}}\) = \(\frac{AB}{AC}\)
tan 60° = \(\frac{50}{AC}\)
\(\sqrt{3}\) = \(\frac{50}{AC}\)
AC\(\sqrt{3}\) = 50°
AC = \(\frac{50}{\sqrt{3}}\)mts.

Height of the building = 16\(\frac{2}{3}\) mts.

Question 10.
Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite each other on either side of the road, which is 80 m wide. From a point between them on the road, the angles of elevation of the top of the poles are 60° and 30°, respectively. Find the height of the poles and the distances of the point from the poles.
Solution :

Let AE = x.
EB = 80 – x
tan 60° = \(\sqrt{3}\)
tan 30° = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 11.
A TV tower stands vertically on the bank of a canal. From a point on the other bank directly opposite the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 60°. From another point 20 m away from this point on the line joining this point to the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 30°. Find the height of the tower and the width of the canal.
Solution :

tan 60° = \(\sqrt{3}\)
tan 30° = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
In ΔABC, tan 60° = \(\frac{AB}{BC}\) = \(\frac{h}{x}\)
\(\frac{h}{x}\) = \(\sqrt{3}\)
∴ h = \(\sqrt{3}\)x
In ΔADB, tan 30° = \(\frac{AB}{DB}\)

Height = x\(\sqrt{3}\) = 10\(\sqrt{3}\) mts. Width of the canal = 10 mts.

Question 12.
From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60° and the angle of depression of its foot is 45°. Determine the height of the tower.
Solution :

In ΔDBC, tan 60° = \(\frac{DC}{BC}\)
\(\sqrt{3}\) = \(\frac{DC}{BC}\)
= \(\frac{DC}{AE}\) = \(\frac{DC}{7}\) (BC = AE).

In ΔABE, tan 45° = \(\frac{AB}{AE}\)
1 = \(\frac{7}{AE}\)
∴ AE = 7 mts.
AB = BC = 7 mts.
DC = 7\(\sqrt{3}\)
∴ DE = DC + CE
= 7\(\sqrt{3}\) + 7 = 7(\(\sqrt{3}\) + 1) mts.

Question 13.
As observed from the top of a 75 m high lighthouse from the sea-level, the angles of depression of two ships are 30° and 45°. If one ship is exactly behind the other on the same side of the lighthouse, find the distance between the two ships.
Solution :

Hence, the distance between the two ships is 75(\(\sqrt{3}\) – 1) m.

Question 14.
A 1.2 m tall girl spots a balloon moving with the wind in a horizontal line at a height of 88.2 m from the ground. The angle of elevation of the balloon from the eyes of the girl at any instant is 60°. After some time, the angle of elevation reduces to 30°. Find the distance travelled by the balloon during the interval.

Solution :

Let the initial position of the balloon be A and final position be B.
Height of the balloon above the girl’s height = 88.2 m – 1.2 m = 87m
Distance travelled by the balloon = DE = CE – CD

Distance travelled by the balloon, DE = CE – CD
= (87\(\sqrt{3}\) – 29\(\sqrt{3}\)) m
= 29\(\sqrt{3}\) (3 – 1) m
= 58\(\sqrt{3}\) m.

Question 15.
A straight highway leads to the foot of a tower. A man standing at the top of the tower observes a car at an angle of depression of 30°, which is approaching the foot of the tower with a uniform speed. Six seconds later, the angle of depression of the car is found to be 60°. Find the time taken by the car to reach the foot of the tower from this point.
Solution :

In ΔBCA, tan 30° = \(\frac{h}{CA}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac{h}{CA}\)
CA = h\(\sqrt{3}\) mts.

Question 16.
The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a distance of 4 m and 9 m from the base of the tower and in the same straight line with it are complementary. Prove that the height of the tower is 6 m.
Solution :

Let AB be the tower. ∠ABC = x
∴ ∠ADB = 90° – x
In ΔABC tan x = \(\frac{AB}{BC}\)
tan x = \(\frac{AB}{4}\) ……………(i)
In ΔADB tan (90° – x) = \(\frac{AB}{9}\)
cot x = \(\frac{AB}{9}\) ……………(ii)
(i) × (ii)
tan x × cot x = \(\frac{AB}{4}\) × \(\frac{AB}{9}\)
tan x × \(\frac{1}{tan x}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}^2}{36}\)
1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}^2}{36}\)
AB² = 36
AB = ± \(\sqrt{36}\)
AB = ± 6
∴ Height of the tower AB = 6 m.
Note: C and D can be taken on the same side of AB.

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Notes Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

→ Introduction

• India has practically all the physical features of the Earth like mountains, plains, deserts, plateaus, islands etc.
• Geologically, the land of India displays great physical variation.

→ Major Physiographic Divisions

• The physical features of India can be grouped under the following physiographic divisions: (i) The Himalayan mountains, (ii) The Northern plains, (iii) The Peninsular plateau, (iv) The Indian desert, (v) The Coastal plains, (vi) The Islands.

→ The Himalayan Mountains

• The Himalayan mountains are the major sources of water and forest wealth.
• The Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains. They stretch over the Northern borders of India.
• The Himalayas consists of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent: (i) The Great or Inner Himalayas or the ‘Himadri’, (ii) The Middle or lesser Himalayas or The ‘Himachal’ (iii) The Outer Himalayas or The ‘Shiwaliks’.
• The Himalayas are also divided on the basis of regions from West to East. This demarcation is done by river valleys, i.e. the Indus, Sutlej, Kali, Teesta and Dihang rivers.
• In the west, the part of Himalayas lying between Indus and Sutlej has been traditionally known as Punjab Himalayas.
• The part of Himalayas lying between Sutlej and Kali rivers is known as Kumaon Himalayas.
• The Kali and Teesta rivers demacrate the Nepal Himalayas and the part lying between Teesta and Dihang rivers is known as Assam Himalayas.
• Purvanchal or the Eastern hills and mountains running through the North-Eastern states are mostly composed of strong sand stones, which are sedimentary rocks covered with dense forest.

→ The Northern Plains

• The Northern plains are the granaries of the country. They provided the base for early civilisations.
• The Northern Plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems, namely the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra along with their tributaries.
• The Northern plain is broadly divided into three sections: (i) The Punjab plains, (ii) The Ganga plains, (iii) The Brahmaputra plains.
• According to the variations in relief features, the northern plains can be divided into four regions:(i) Bhabar, (ii) Terai, (iii) Bangar, (iv) Khadar.
• The largest part of the Northern plain is formed of older alluvium.

→ The Pfehinsular Plateau

• The Peninsular Plateau is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks. This plateau consists of two broad divisions, namely, the Central Highlands, the Deccan Plateau.
• The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau respectively.
• The Western part of the plateau, known as the Deccan Trap, contains black soil of volcanic origin.

→ The Indian Desert

• The Indian Desert lies towards the western sides of the Aravalli Hills. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
• Luni is the only large river in this region.
• This region receives very low rainfall, i.e. below 150 mm per year.

→ The Coastal Plains

• The Peninsular Plateau is boardered by stretches of narrow coastal strips, running along the Arabian Sea on the West and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
• The Western coast consists of three sections (i) The Konkan Coast, (ii) The Kannad Plain (iii)The Malabar Coast.
• The Eastern Coast consists of the Northern Circar and the Coromandel Coast.

→ The Islands

• The Lakshadweep islands group lies close to the Malabar coast of Kerala and are composed of small coral islands.
• The elongated chain of the Andaman and Nicobar islands located in the Bay of Bengal extends from North to  South.

→ Mountain: A mountain is a large landform that rises above the surrounding land in a limited area, usually in the form of a peak.

→ Desert: A large dry area, largely devoid of vegetation for want of rain or water.

→ Plateau: A wide, flat, topped area, rising abruptly from the surrounding low-lying area or a water body.

→ Island: A piece of land that is completely surrounded by sea, a river or lake.

→ Valley: A valley is a low area between hills or mountains typically with a river running through it.

→ Ox-bow lake: A crescent-shaped lake on a river floodplain.

→ Fold Mountains: An upland area, such as the Himalayas or Alps formed by the buckling of the Earth’s crust.

→ Physiography: Shape and relief or geographical features of an area.

→ Glacier: A glacier is a huge mass of ice that moves slowly over land.

→ Tributaries: Streams or small rivers that flow into a larger river.

→ Distributary: A river that originates from a major river. It is formed near the river’s mouth before falling into the sea.

→ Waterfall: A waterfall is an area where water flows over a vertical drop or a series of steep drops in the course of a stream or river.

→ Riverine Islands: Islands on a river.

→ Gondwana land: It was an ancient super-continent located in Southern Hemisphere which included the present-day South America, Africa, Australia snd Antarctica.

→ Bhangar: The older alluvium of the Northern Plain is called the Bhangar.

→ Khadar: The younger alluvium of the floodplains is known as the Khadar.

→ Duns: Narrow valleys found between Shiwaliks and Middle Himalayas.

→ Strait: A narrow stretch of water joining two oceans or large water bodies.

→ Barchans: Barchan also spelled Barkhan, crescent-shaped sand dunes produced by the action of wind an predominantly from one direction.

→ Tectonic Plates: Due to internal heat of the Earth, the currents of the semi-molten rocks move towards the crust, and tear it apart, dividing it into large fragments which are called Tectonic Plates.

→ Tethys: An elongated shallow sea sandwiched between two ancient landmasses.

→ Coral: Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic organisms which live in colonies. They flourish in shallow, mud free and warm waters. They secrete calcium carbonate.

→ Atolls: These are circular or horse-shoe-shaped coral reefs. Lakshadweep is one such type.

→ Gorge: The steep-sided narrow and deep valley of a river formed in its upper course is termed as a gorge. It is also called an I-shaped valley.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Notes

JAC Jharkhand Board Class 10th Sanskrit Solutions शेमुषी भाग 2

• Chapter 1 शुचिपर्यावरणम्
• Chapter 2 बुद्धिर्बलवती सदा
• Chapter 3 व्यायामः सर्वदा पथ्यः
• Chapter 4 शिशुलालनम्
• Chapter 5 जननी तुल्यवत्सला
• Chapter 6 सुभाषितानि
• Chapter 7 सौहार्द प्रकृतेः शोभा
• Chapter 8 विचित्रः साक्षी
• Chapter 9 सूक्तयः
• Chapter 10 भूकम्पविभीषिका
• Chapter 11 प्राणेभ्योऽपि प्रियः सुहृद्
• Chapter 12 अन्योक्तयः

JAC Class 10 Sanskrit अपठित-अवबोधनम्

• अपठित गद्यांशः

JAC Class 10 Sanskrit अनुप्रयुक्त-व्याकरणम्

• सन्धिकार्यम्
• समास:
• कारकम्
• प्रत्ययज्ञानम्
• अव्ययपदानि
• उपसर्ग प्रकरणम्
• शब्दरूप प्रकरणम्
• धातुरूप-प्रकरणम्
• संख्याज्ञानम्

JAC Class 10 Sanskrit रचनात्मक कार्यम्

• पत्र-लेखनम्
• चित्राधारित वर्णनम्
• संकेत आधारित वार्तालाप लेखनम्
• अनुवाद कार्यम्
• घटनाक्रमस्य संयोजनम्
• वाक्य निर्माणम्

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 3 Drainage

I. Objective Type Questions

1. The river system of an area is referred to as:
(a) Water flow
(b) Drainage
(c) Delta
(d) None of these,
Answer:
(b) Drainage

2. Indian river systems can be divided into how many groups?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Six
(d) Two.
Answer:
(d) Two.

3. Most of the peninsular rivers discharge their water in:
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Arabian Sea
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Bay of Bengal

4. Which of the following lakes in Rajasthan is a saltwater lake?
(a) Siliserh
(b) Jaisamand
(c) Pichola
(d) Sambhar.
Answer:
(d) Sambhar.

5. The Wular lake in Jammu and Kashmir is the result of which of the following activities?
(a) Rainfall
(b) Human activity
(c) Tectonic activity
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Tectonic activity

6. In which year was the Ganga Action Plan introduced?
(a) 1955
(b) 1947
(c) 1985
(d) 1995.
Answer:
(c) 1985

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is drainage?
Answer:
The term drainage describes the river system of an area.

Question 2.
What is a drainage basin?
Answer:
The area drained by a single river system is called a drainage basin.

Question 3.
Which river has the largest river basin in the world?
Answer:
The world’s largest drainage basin is that of the Amazon river.

Question 4.
Into how many categories are the Indian rivers divided?
Answer:
The Indian rivers are divided into two major groups:

1. The Himalayan rivers, and
2. The Peninsular rivers.

Question 5.
Name three major rivers, which originate beyond the Himalayas.
Answer:

1. Indus,
2. Satluj,
3. Brahmaputra river.

Question 6.
What do you understand by a river system?
Answer:
A group of a main river alongwith its tributaries is known as a river system.

Question 7.
From where the river Indus originates?
Answer:
The Indus rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar.

Question 8.
What is the total length of the river Indus?
Answer:
2900 km.

Question 9.
Name the major rivers of the Indus river system.
Answer:
The Indus, the Satluj, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi and the Beas.

Question 10.
When was the Indus Water Treaty signed?
Answer:
In 1960.

Question 11.
How much percent of total Indus water can be used by India according to Indus Water Treaty?
Answer:
20 per cent.

Question 12.
Name the headwater of the Ganga.
Answer:
The Bhagirathi.

Question 13.
Where does the Bhagirathi join the Alaknanda?
Answer:
The Bhagirathi joins the Alaknanda at Devprayag in Uttarakhand.

Question 14.
Name the major tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
The Yamuna, the Ghaghara, the Gandak and the Kosi.

Question 15.
Which are the main tributaries of the Ganga that come from the Peninsular uplands?
Answer:
The Chambal, the Betwa and the Son.

Question 16.
Which river flows for the longest length in India?
Answer:
The Ganga river flows (2500 km) for the largest length in India.

Question 17.
Which is the northernmost point of the Ganga Delta?
Answer:
Farakka in West Bengal.

Question 18.
Name the largest delta of the world.
Answer:
Sunderban delta.

Question 19.
Which rivers form the Sunderban delta?
Answer:
The Ganga and the Brahmaputra.

Question 20.
By which name is the river Brahmaputra known in Tibet?
Answer:
Tsang Po.

Question 21.
What is the Sunderban famous for?
Answer:
Sunderban is famous for being the home of the Royal Bengal tiger.

Question 22.
Name four rivers rising in the Western Ghats.
Answer:

1. Godavari,
2. Krishna,
3. Kaveri,
4. Tungabhadra.

Question 23.
In which hills does the Narmada rise?
Or
From which place does the Narmada rises?
Answer:
The Narmada rises in the Amarkantak Hills in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 24.
Name the waterfall formed by the river Narmada.
Answer:
The Dhuadhar Falls.

Question 25.
Which is the largest river of the Peninsular India?
Or
Which river is also known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’?
Answer:
The Godavari.

Question 26.
Name the main lagoon lakes of India.
Answer:
Chilika, Pulicat and Kolleru Lakes.

Question 28.
Which is the largest freshwater lake in India?
Answer:
The Wular lake (Jammu and Kashmir).

Question 29.
Which river s known as a perennial river?
Or
What are perennial rivers?
Answer:
perennial rivers are those which have water throughout the year.

Question 30.
The Satluj is a tributary of which river?
Answer:
The Satluj is a tributary of Indus River joining in Pakistan.

Question 31.
Where is the Sambhar Lake located? What is its use?
Sambhar Lake istuated near Jaipur in Rajasthan. Its water is used to produce salt.

Question 32.
From where does the Kaveri River originate?
Answer:
The Kaveri River originates from the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the drainage system of India through a line diagram.
Answer:

Question 2.
Mention any two features, of the Himalayan rivers.
Answer:
Two features of the Himalayan rivers are:

1. The Himalayan rivers have long courses from their source to the sea.
2. These rivers perform both erosional as well as depositional activities.

Question 3.
How do the Himalayan rivers perform erosional activities and form depositional features?
Answer:

1. In the upper course, rivers flow with great speed from higher to lower levels, causing erosion.
2. In the middle and the lower course, they carry lots of sediments like silt and sand. So, their speed slows down.
3. Besides, absence of slope in the lower course causes deposition and formation of various features.

Question 4.
Mention any two features of Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
Two features of Peninsular rivers are:

1. A large number of Peninsular rivers are seasonal, as their flow depends on rainfall.
2. Most of the Peninsular rivers originate in the Western Ghats and flow towards the Bay of Bengal.

Question 5.
Why do most of the Peninsular rivers drain into the Bay of Bengal?
Answer:
Most of the Peninsular rivers drain into the Bay of Bengal because:

1. The Eastern Ghats are lower than the Western Ghats. These are discontinuous, allowing the rivers easy passage to the Bay of Bengal.
2. The Deccan plateau has a gentle slope towards the East, which gives easier passage in that direction.

Question 6.
Distinguish between a tributary and a distributary.
Answer:
Difference between a tributary and a distributary:

Tributary	Distributary.
1. When a small stream joins a larger one, the smaller stream is known as the tributary of the larger one.	1. It is formed when a river is forced to break up into branches due to the deposition of sediments in its channel.
2. It can be found in any course of a river.	2. It is found in the lower course of a river.
3. It is useful for transportation and irrigation.	3. It provides a good network for transportation.
4. Example: Yamuna is a tributary of the Ganga.	4. Example: Padma is a distributary of the Ganga.

Question 7.
What do you know about Indus Water Treaty?
Answer:
Indus Water Treaty is a water-sharing treaty between India and Pakistan signed on 19th September, 1960. India can use only 20 percent of the total water carried by the Indus river system. This water is used for irrigation in Punjab, Haryana and Southern and the Western parts of Rajasthan.

Question 8.
Write a note on the Tapi basin.

1. The Tapi river originates from the sacred tank of Multai, in the Satpura ranges, in Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.
2. It is the second-largest, west-flowing river of Peninsular India.
3. The river flows in a rift valley parellel to the Narmada, but it is much shorter in length.
4. The Tapi forms an estuary before falling into the Gulf of Khambhat.
5. Its basin covers part of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the Mahanadi basin.

1. The Mahanadi has its source in the highlands of Chhattisgarh.
2. The total length of the river is 860 kms.
3. It covers parts of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha.
4. It drains into the Bay of Bengal.

Question 10.
Write a note on the Krishna basin.

1. The Krishna river rises near Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats.
2. It flows into the Bay of Bengal before forming a large delta.
3. Its length is about 1400 km.
4. The Bhima, the Tungabh ,fra, the Koyna and the Ghatprabha are its major tributanes.
5. It covers Maharashtr

Question 11.
What are the major causes of river pollution?
The major causes of river pollution are as follows:

1. The growing domestic, municipal, industrial and agricultural demand for water from rivers naturally affects the quality of water. As a result, more and more water is being drained out of the rivers, reducing their volume.
2. A heavy load of untreated sewage and industrial effluents are emptied into the rivers. This affects not only the quality of water, but also the self cleansing capacity of the river.
3. Increasing urbanisation and industrialisation is also responsible for increasing pollution level of many rivers.

Question 12.
Briefly explain the National-River Conservation Plan.
Answer:
The river cleaning programme in the country was initiated with the launching of the Ganga Action Plan in 1985. The Ganga Action Plan was expanded to cover other rivers, under the National River Conservation Plan launched in the year 1995. The objective of this programme is to improve the water quality of the rivers, which are the main water sources in the country, through the implementation of pollution control measures.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the Indus river system.

1. The Indus river system comprises of the Indus river and its five main tributaries The Jhelum, The Chenab, The Satluj, The Ravi and The Beas.
2. The Indus originates from the glaciers of the Kailash Range in Western Tibet near Mansarovar Lake.
3. It flows west and north-westwards and enters Indian territory in Ladakh.
4. It flows through Ladakh, Baltistan and Gilgit and emerges from the mountains at Attock. Here, it is joined by the Kabul river from Afghanistan.
5. With a total length of 2,900 kilometres, the Indus is considered as one of the longest rivers of the world.
6. The sharing of water by India and Pakistan is regulated by the Indus Water Treaty signed by both the countries.
7. It flows south-westwards across Pakistan to reach the Arabian Sea, east of Karachi.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Ganga river system.
Answer:
The Ganga river system includes the Ganga and its tributaries like the Yamuna, the Gomti, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, the Ramganga, the Mahaganga, the Son and the Kosi, etc.

1. The Ganga rises in Garhwal Himalayas in Uttarakhand at an altitude of about 6,000 metres.
2. The river acquires its name after its head-streams, Alaknanda and Bhagirathi
   which unite at Devaprayag.
3. Flowing south-westwards, the Ganga comes out of Himalayas near Haridwar and enters the plains.
4. The total length of the Ganga is 2,500 km.
5. Beyond Farakka, it flows south-eastwards into Bangladesh where it is known as Padma.
6. Before falling into Bay of Bengal, the Padma joins the Brahmaputra which is known as Jamuna and Meghna there. The delta formed by these rivers is known as the Sunderban delta.

Question 3.
Write the main characteristics of the Brahmaputra river system.
Answer:

1. The river Brahmaputra originates from Chenayungdung glacier near Mansarovar lake in the Kailash range of the Himalayas.
2. With a total length of 2900 km, it is one of the longest rivers of the world.
3. Throughout the whole journey, the river passes through Tibet, India and Bangladesh. The river is known as Tsang Po in Tibet.
4. Towards the end of its journey in Tibet, it takes a southwards turn near Namcha Barwa and enters Arunachal Pradesh as Dihang river. Traversing round the stairs of Garo hills, it bends southwards and enters Bangladesh near Dhubri. In Bangladesh, it is known as the Jamuna.
5. At Goalundo the Jamuna joins the Ganga and is jointly known as the Padma. About 100 km further downstream, the Padma is joined by the Meghna. The river Meghna forms a very broad estuary before pouring into the Bay of Bengal.
6. The Brahmaputra has a braided channel for most of its passage through Assam.
7. With its tributaries like the Dihang, the Lohit, etc. discharging enormous quantities of water and silt, the river causes disastrous floods in every monsoon.

Question 4.
Explain the main features of the Narmada basin.
Answer:
The main features of the Narmada basin are as follows:

1. This river originates from Amarkantak Hills in Madhya Pradesh and flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhya range to the North and the Satpura range to the South.
2. The total length of the river from source to mouth is about 1,312 km.
3. The Marble Rocks near Jabalpur where the Narmada flows through a deep gorge and the ‘Dhuadar falls’ where the river plunges over steep rocks are some of the picturesque locations formed by the Narmada.
4. During much of its journey, the Narmada flows through the troughs confined by precipitous hills which do not permit any large tributaries.
5. The river forms an estuary before entering the Gulf of Khambhat. There are several islands in the estuary of the Narmada.The Aliabet is the largest island of the river.
6. The Narmada basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.

Question 5.
Explain the main features of the Godavari basin.
Answer:
The main features of the Godavari basin are as follows:

1. The Godavari is the longest river of the Peninsula.
2. It rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in Nasik district of Maharashtra.
3. It is often referred as the Vridha Ganga or the Dakshin Ganga because of its large size and extent.
4. Its principal tributaries include the Parvara, the Purna, the Manjra, the Penganga, the Wainganga, the Wardha, the Pranhita, the Indravati, the Maner and the Sabari.
5. Its length is about 1500 km and the river drains into the Bay of Bengal.
6. The basin covers parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 6.
Write a note on the Kaveri basin.
Answer:

1. The Kaveri is the most reverred and sacred river of South India.
2. The source of this river lies at Talakaveri on the Brahmagiri range of hills in the Western Ghats.
3. Total length of the river is about 760 km.
4. It flows Eastwards and it reaches the Bay of Bengal south of Cuddalore in Tamil Nadu.
5. The river is unique because it receives rainfall during summer as well as winter.
6. Its main tributaries are Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini.
7. Its basin drains parts of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
Write a detailed note on the lakes of India.
Or
Lakes are of great value to human beings: Explain the statement with three examples.
Answer:
A lake is the depression filled with water on the Earth’s surface and is entirely surrounded by land. Even after being such a large country, India has comparatively fewer natural lakes. Following are the major types of lakes found in India:
1. Freshwater Lakes:
Most of the freshwater lakes are in the Himalayan region. They are of glacial origin. A glacier is one of the important agents of erosion. The erosive process of glaciers can create U-shaped valleys, and the irregular surface of a glaciated lowland in which water can accumulate. Dal lake, Bhimtal, Nainital, Loktak and Barapani are some of the important freshwater lakes of India.

2. Lakes of Tectonic Origin:
Folding and faulting produce hollows in the Earth’s crust. These hollows may contain either salt or fresh water. The Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir is the result of tectonic activity.

3. Saltwater Lake:
Any lake that has no natural drainage outlet, either as a surface stream or as a sustained sub-surface flow, will become saline. The Sambhar in the desert region of Rajasthan is a saltwater lake, and its water is used for producing salt.

4. Man-made Lakes or Artificial Lakes:
In order to harness water for generation of hydel power, to provide irrigation water to crops and to provide drinking water to urban places, a number of lakes have been constructed. Gobind Sagar and Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar are the two most important man-made lakes of India.

Importance of Lakes:

1. Lakes help to regulate the flow of river. During heavy rainfall, they prevent flooding, and during the dry season, they help to maintain an even flow of water.
2. Lakes can also be used for developing hydropower.
3. They moderate the climate of the surroundings, maintain the aquatic ecosystem and enhance natural beauty.
4. They help to develop tourism and provide recreation.

Question 8.
Describe the role of rivers in the national economy.
Or
Rivers have been of fundamental importance throughout human history. Justify the statement.
Answer:
1. Development of Civilisations:
Rivers have played a vital role in the development of civilisations. Most of the ancient civilisations like Indus, Aztec, etc. developed around the rivers. Rivers have been of fundamental importance throughout human history. The banks of the rivers have witnessed great cultural and economic progress since ancient times. Water is a basic natural resource, essential for all human activities,

2. Development of Agriculture:
Rivers and their associated alluvial soil provide the most productive agricultural lands of the country. The Ganga-Brahmaputra basin has been formed by the two great rivers. Irrigation from rivers has been the backbone of the development of Indian agriculture.

3. Settlement:
Their valleys contains dense and concentrated settlements. Most of the large cities are located on river banks. The rivers not only provide us essential water supplies, but they also receive, dilute and transport wastes from settlements.

4. Industrial Development:
Industrial development has flourished along rivers as many industrial processes rely on water as a raw material, as a coolant and for the generation of hydro electricity.

5. Means of Transportation:
Rivers provide primary channels of inland transportation, not only directly in the form of navigable waterways, but also indirectly through their valleys, where roads, railway lines and other routes are built.

Question 1.
On an outline map of India mark the rivers and lakes of India.
Answer:
(a) The Himalayan River System: The Indus, The Ganga and The Satluj.
(b) The Peninsular River: The Narmada, The Tapi, The Kaveri, The Krishna, The Godavri, The Mahanadi

1. Lakes: Wular, Pulicat, Sambhar, Chilika, Vembanad, Kolleru.
2. Mountain Peaks: K2, Kanchanjunga, Anai Mudi
3. Coastal Plains: Konkan, Malabar, Coromandel & Northern Circar (Location & Labelling)

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Which of the following represents the loftiest and one of the most rugged mountain barriers of the world?
(a) Aravali range
(b) Hindukush
(c) Himalayan mountains
(d) Kunlun mountains.
Answer:
(c) Himalayan mountains

2. The Himalayan mountains form and cover a distance of:
(a) 2510 km
(b) 1750 km
(c) 2400 km
(d) 2100 km.
Answer:
(c) 2400 km

3. Which of the following parts of India is agriculturally a productive part of India:
(a) Indian desert
(b) Northern plains
(c) Peninsular plateau
(d) Coastal plains.
Answer:
(b) Northern plains

4. Which of the following in the Brahmaputra river is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world?
(a) Andamans
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Majuli
(d) Nicobar
Answer:
(c) Majuli

5. The Indian Desert lies towards the western margins of the :
(a) Aravalli Hills
(b) Shiwalik Hills
(c) Garo Hills
(d) Jointia Hills
Answer:
(a) Aravalli Hills

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many physiographic divisions can India be divided into?
Answer:
India can be divided into the following physiographic divisions—

1. The Himalayan Mountains,
2. The Northern Plains,
3. The Peninsular Plateau,
4. The Indian Desert,
5. The Coastal Plains,
6. The Islands.

Question 2.
Name the highest mountain range of the world.
Answer:
The Himalayas.

Question 3.
Write the expansion of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The Himalayas mountain ranges run in a West-East direction from the Indus to the Brahmaputra.

Question 4.
Which is the northern-most range of the Himalayas?
Answer:
The Himadri.

Question 5.
Which range of Himalayas is the most continuous range?
Answer:
The Northern-most range which is also known as Himadri or inner Himalayas is the most continuous range of Himalayas.

Question 6.
Name the most rugged range of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The Himachal.

Question 7.
Name the sub-ranges of the Himachal Himalayas.
Answer:
The sub-ranges are named as (i) Pir Panjal, (ii) Dhauladhar and (iii) Mahabharat.

Question 8.
What is the variation in height in the Shiwalik mountain range ? .
Answer:
The height of the Shiwalik mountain range varies from 900 to 1100 metres.

Question 9.
What are Shiwalik ranges made of?
Answer:
Shiwalik ranges are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges.

Question 10.
Name the longitudinal divisions of the Himalayas.
Answer:

1. Punjab Himalayas,
2. Kumaon Himalayas,
3. Nepal Himalayas,
4. Assam Himalayas.

Question 11.
By which rivers the northern-most boundary of the Himalayas formed?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra.

Question 12.
By which name are the mountains spread along the eastern boundary of India- known?
Answer:
Purvachal.

Question 13.
Name the hills running through the Purvachal.
Answer:

1. Patkai,
2. Naga,
3. Mizo,
4. Manipur Hills.

Question 14.
Name the river system that forms the northern plains.
Answer:
The Northern plains are formed by the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra river systems.

Question 15.
Which is the largest riverine island in the world?
Answer:
Majuli, in the Brahmaputra river, is the largest riverine island in the world.

Question 16.
What do you mean by the word ‘Doab’?
Answer:
‘Doab’ is made up of two words ‘do’, meaning ‘two’ and ‘ab’, meaning ‘water’. Thus, ‘Doab’ means a part between two rivers.

Question 17.
Into how many sections are the northern plains divided?
Answer:

1. The Punjab Plain,
2. The Ganga Plain,
3. The Brahmaputra Plain.

Question 18.
What is Bhabar?
Answer:
The plains formed by the rivers, after descending from the mountains deposit pebbles in a narrow belt lying parallel to the slopes of the Shiwaliks are known as Bhabar.

Question 19.
What is Terai?
To the south of Bhabar belt, the streams and rivers re-emerge and create a wet, swampy and marshy region known as Terai.

Question 20.
The peninsular plateau can be divided into how many divisions?
Answer:
The peninsular plateau can be divided into two divisions

1. The Central Highlands,
2. Deccan Plateau.

Question 21.
How are the Northern Plains and Peninsular Plateau formed?
Answer:
The Northern Plains are formed by the alluvial deposits, while the Peninsular Plateau is formed by igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Question 22.
Which is the ancient landmass of India?
Answer:
Peninsular region.

Question 23.
Name the North-East extensions of the Deccan Plateau.

1. Meghalaya,
2. Karbi-Anglong Plateau,
3. North Cachar hills.

Question 24.
Which is the highest peak in the Western Ghats?
Answer:
Anai Mudi is the highest peak in Western Ghats. Its height is 2695 metres.

Question 25.
Which is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats?
Answer:
Mahendragiri is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Its height is 1501 metres.

Question 26.
Name the hills that lie at the junction of Eastern and Western Ghats?
Answer:
The Nilgiri Hills in Tamil Nadu lie at the junction of Eastern and Western Ghats.

Question 27.
Which part of the plateau contains black soil of volcanic origin?
Answer:
The Western part of plateau known as the Deccan trap contains black soil of volcanic origin.

Question 28.
What is the Deccan Trap?
Answer:
The black soil area of the western peninsular plateau is known as Deccan Trap.

Question 29.
Where are the Aravali Hills located?
Answer:
The Aravali Hills lie on the Western and North-Western margins of the peninsular plateau.

Question 30.
Which desert is located on the western margin of the Aravali Hills?
Answer:
The Indian Desert (Thar Desert) lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills.

Question 31.
Which Indian coastal part is called Konkan?
Answer:
The nor’ hern part of the Indian Western Coast is known as Konkan.

Question 32.
What is the southern part of the Western Coastal Plains known as?
Answer:
The southern part of the Western Costal Plains is known as Malabar.

Question 33.
Name two sections of the eastern Coastal Strips.

1. The Northern Circar,
2. The Coromandel Coast.

Question 34.
Where is the Chilika Lake located? Why is it famous?
Answer:
The Chilika Lake lies in the state of Odisha, to the South of the Mahanadi delta. It is the largest salt-water lake in India.

Question 35.
By which name were the Lakshadweep islands known earlier?
Answer:
Earlier, the Lakshadweep islands were known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindive.

Question 36.
Where is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadeweep situated?
Answer:
Kavaratti island.

Question 37.
Where is India’s only active volcano located?
India’s only active volcano is found on Barren island in Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands.

Question 38.
What are Corals?
Answer:
Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic organisms which live in colonies in shallow, mudfree and warm water.

Question 39.
What makes up the habitat in which Coral polyps flourish?
Answer:
Coral polyps flourish in a habitat consisting of shallow warm water which does not have mud. This kind of habitat is found in Lakshadweep.

Question 40.
Where is the Great Barrier Reef located?
Answer:
Australia.

Question 41.
What are Barchans?
Answer:
Barchans are crescent-shaped dunes which cover larger area of deserts. They are found in the Indian desert, mainly in Jaisalmer and and near Indo-Pak boundary.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any four features of the Himalayan mountains.
Answer:
Following are the four features of the Himalayan mountains:

1. The Himalayas are a geologically young and structurally fold mountains.
2. The Himalayas act like a natural wall to keep the fertile Indo-Gangetic plains safe from the cold winds coming from Central Asia.
3. The Himalayas are source to perennial rivers like the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
4. The Himalayas are lofty and impassable natural barriers on the Northern border of India.

Question 2.
Why are the Himalayas called young fold mountains?
Answer:
Himalayas are called young fold mountains because:

1. These are young in age compared to several other mountains.
2. They are made of at least three major folds or parallel ranges, e.g. Himadri, Himachal and Shiwaliks.
3. They are characterised by high peaks, gorges, I-shaped valleys, glaciers and steep slopes, which indicate that the mountains are still developing.

Question 3.
Describe the Himadri.
Answer:
The Himadri or the Great or the Inner Himalayas:

1. These are the Northern-most ranges of the Himalayas.
2. The average elevation of the Himadri is more than 6,000 m above the sea level.
3. They contain some of the world’s highest peaks, like, Mt. Everest (8,848 m) in Nepal “,nd Kanchenjunga (8,598 m) in India. Nanga Parbat (8,126 m) and Nanda Devi t ,817m) are the other two important Himalayan peaks in India.
4. The G igotri and the Yamunotri glaciers which gave birth to the Ganga and the Ya mna rivers respectively are located here.

Question 4.
Describe the Middle Himalayas.
Answer:
The Himachal or the Middle Himalayas:

1. Mountains lying to the South of the Himadri are known as Middle or lesser Himalayas or the Himachal.
2. They have an average height of 3,700 m to 4,500 m above the sea level and extend over a width of 50 km.
3. The ranges are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks.
4. All the important hill stations such as Dalhousie, Dharmshala, Shimla Mussoorie, Nainital and Darjeeling lie in this range.
5. pir Panjal, Dhaula Dhar and Mahabharat ranges are its most important range:

Question 5.
Describe the Shiwaliks.
Answer:
The Shiwaliks or the Outer Himalayas:

1. It is the Southern-most range of the Himalayas.
2. The average altitude of Shiwalik-range varies between 900 m and 1,100 m above the sea level and extend over a width of 10-50 km.
3. This range is made of unconsolidated material such as mud, silt, and soft rocks and is prone to earthquake and landslides.
4. Some narrow valleys are found between Shiwaliks and Himachal. They are called ‘duns’. Example Dehradun.

Question 6.
Describe the divisions of the Himalayas from west to east along with Purvachal hills.
Answer:
On the basis of the location, Himalayas can be divided as follows:
1. Western Himalayas (Punjab Himalayas):
The Western section lying between the Indus and the Sutlej is known as the Punjab Himalayas. It covers a large part of Jammu and Kashmir and a part of Himachal Pradesh. They are made up of Ladakh, Zaskar and Pir Panjal ranges.

2. Central Himalayas (Kumaon Himalayas):
The section between the Sutlej and the Kali is known as Kumaon Himalayas. They extend through the state of Uttarakhand in India, and Nepal.

3. Eastern Himalayas (Nepal Himalayas):
The section between the Kali and the Teesta is known as the Nepal Himalayas.

4. Assam Himalayas (Purvachal):
The section between Teesta and Dihang (Tsang po) is known as the Assam Himalayas. They are made up of Patkai, Naga and Mizo Hills. These hills are mainly composed of strong sandstones.

Question 7.
State any three differences-between the Himadri range and Shiwalik range. The differences between Himadri and Shiwalik ranges are:

Features	Himadri Range	Shiwalik Range
1. Location	This is the Northern-most and inner most range of Himalayas.	This is the outermost range of Himalayas.
2. Composition	The core of this part of Himalayas is composed of granite.	This range is composed of uncon-solidated sediment brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges.
3. Altitude	The average altitude of this range is 6000 metres.	The average altitude varies from 900 to 1100 metres.

Question 8.
Make a comparison between the Himachal Himalayas and the Shiwalik based on the following:

1. Composition,
2. Altitude.

Answer:
The comparison between the Himachal Himalayas and the Shiwaliks on the given basis is as follows:

Mountain Range	Composition	Altitude
1. Himachal Himalayas	It is the most rugged mountain system of the Himalayas. It is composed of highly compressed and altered rocks.	It lies south of the Himadri with height varying from 3700 to 4500 metres.
2. Shiwaliks	The composition of Shiwalik is of unconsolidated sediments i.e. thick gravel and alluvium brought down by the Himalayan rivers.	This is the outermost range of the Himalayas with height varying between 900 and 1100 metres.
Mountain Range	Composition	Altitude

Question 9.
Describe the formation of plains.
Answer:

1. To the south of the Himalayas, a basin or depression was formed.
2. It was gradually filled with the alluvium brought by the rivers from north and South.
3. The North Indian Plain was thus followed between the Himalayas and the Peninsular Plateau.

Question 10.
Describe three broad sections of the Northern Plains.
Answer:
1. Punjab Plains:
The Western part of the Northern Plains is referred to as the Punjab plains. It is formed by the river Indus and its tributaries. The larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan. This section of the plain is dominated by the doabs.

2. Ganga Plain:
The Ganga plain extends between Ghaggar and Teesta rivers. It spreads over the states of North India Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

3. Brahmaputra Plain:
This plain lies in Assam and partly in Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Question 11.
Describe the divisions of the Northern Plains on the basis of the differences in the relief.
Or
Explain the diverse relief features of the Northen Plains.
Answer:
On the basis of the differences in the relief, the plain is divided into four sections :
1. Bhabar:
It is a narrow belt covered with pebbles lying along the foot of the Shiwaliks from the Indus to the Teesta. They are laid down by numerous streams descending down the hills. This belt is about 8 to 16 km in width.

2. Terai:
It is wet and marshy. It has a thick forest and a variety of wildlife.

3. Bhangar:
It is composed of older alluvium. It is formed higher up in the plains at river terraces. It is less fertile as compared to Khadar.

4. Khadar:
It is composed of newer alluvium. It is formed in the lower levels in the Plains near the river. It is very fertile.

Question 12.
Discuss the importance of the Northern Plains.
Answer:
The importance of the Northern Plains:

1. With their fertile alluvial soils, flat surface, slow moving perennial rivers and favourable climate, the Great Plains of North India are of great economic and social significance.
2. The fertile soil and ample water resources have made these plains a rich agricultural land. These plains are known as the granaries of India.
3. The plains have a good network of roads and railways which has led to large scale industrialisation of the region.
4. As the region has sufficient employment opportunities, so the density of population is high. More than 50% of the total population of India lives in these plains.
5. The Northern plains is the site where the ancient civilization of Mohenjo da and Harappa developed

Question 13.
Write the main characteristics of the Central Highland.
Answer:
The Central Highlands of the Peninsular plateau lie to the north of the river Narmada.

1. These are flanked by the Aravallis in the north-west, and consists of Malwa plateau, Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand plateau and the Chhota Nagpur plateau bound by Rajmahal Hills in the North-East. Its southern boundary is formed by the Vindhyas.
2. The Central Highlands are made of hard, igneous and metamorphic rocks.
3. The Central Highlands are drained by the Southern tributaries of Ganga and

Question 14.
Write a short note on‘Corals’.
Or
What are the types of corals?
Or
How are coral reefs formed? Describe the main features of the islands group which are of coral origin.
Answer:
Corals are short-lived microscopic organisms which live in colonies. They flourish in shallow, mud-free and warm waters. They secrete calcium carbonate. The coral secretion and their skeletons form coral deposits as reefs.
These roofs are mainly of three kinds:

1. Barrier Reef,
2. Fringing Reef,
3. Atolls.

Atolls are circular or horse shoe-shaped coral reefs. In India, Lakshadweep Islands are of coral origin. They cover a small area of 32 sq. km. Karavatti is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep. This island group has great diversity of flora and fauna. The uninhabited Pitti island has a bird sanctuary.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the three longitudinal divisions of the Himalayas. Write the main features of each.
Or
Describe the major divisions of the Himalayas from North to South.
Or
Name the three parallel ranges of Himalayas. Write the major characteristics of each.
Answer:
The longitudinal divisions/parallel ranges/major divisions of the Himalayas are as follows:
1. Himadri

1. The northern most range is called the Great or Inner Himalayas.
2. It is the highest range with an average height of 6000 m.
3. It contains all the prominent Himalayan peaks.
4. The folds of Great Himalayas are assymetrical in nature. The core of this part of the Himalayas is composed of granite.

2. Himachal

1. It is known as the Lesser Himalayas.
2. It lies to the south of Himachal and forms the most rugges mountain system.
3. The altitude varies between 3700 and 4500 metres and width is 50 km.
4. This range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir and the Kangra Valley and Kullu Valley in Himanchal Pradesh.

3. Shiwaliks

1. The outermost range of the Himalayas is known as the Shiwaliks.
2. The Shiwaliks extend over a width of 10 to 50 km and have an altitude varying between 900 to 1100 m.
3. This range is composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges located further North.
4. The valleys are covered with thick gravel and alluvium.

Question 2.
What are the uses of the Himalayas to India?
Answer:
Uses of the Himalayas to India: The Himalayas are beneficial for India in the following ways:

1. The Himalayas are a physical wall protecting the Indian sub-continent from the rest of Asia. In the past, they stood as indestructible barriers against the aggressors from the North. This helped India to maintain its identity.
2. The Himalayas act as a climatic barrier for the Indian sub-continent. They shield India from the cold, bleak winds coming from the Central Asia.
3. The Himalayas also compel rain-bearing monsoon winds to shed bulk of their moisture in the Northern mountains and Northern plains.
4. The Himalayas are snow-covered mountains having many glaciers also. These serve as a source of big perennnial rivers. These rivers have made the Indo-Gangetic plains very fertile. They are important for irrigation, navigation and generation of hydroelectric power.
5. The Himalayas are also home to rich and varied flora and fauna. They are also a storehouse of numerous medicinal herbs.

Question 3.
Describe the Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

1. The part of the Peninsular plateau extending to south of the Vindhyas is called the Deccan plateau.
2. It is triangular in shape. It is at its widest in the North and goes on tapering as we move towards the South.
3. The Satpura ranges and Mahadeo Hills form its northern edge.
4. It is flanked by the Western Ghats in the West and the Eastern Ghats on the east.
5. The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats meet to form Nilgiri Mountains along the border of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
6. The North-Western part of the Deccan plateau is made up of volcanic lava and is known for its black or regur soil.
7. Unlike the Western Ghats, the Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and broken by long rivers.
8. This plateau is drained by east-flowing rivers – Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.

Question 4.
Write the main characteristics of the Western and Eastern Coastal Plains.
Answer:
The main characteristics of the Eastern Coastal Plains are:

1. This plain is located between the Eastern Ghats and the coast of Bay of Bengal.
2. It is a comparatively broader plain with a average width of around 80-100 km.
3. In the Northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Gircar, while the Southern part is known as the Coromandel Coast.
4. Large rivers such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri have formed extensive deltas in this coast.
5. Lake Chilika is an important feature of this coast.
6. Tuticorin, Chennai, Paradweep, Vishakhapatnam are the major ports of this region.

Question 5.
Write a detailed note on the Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar islands of India.
The Island Groups of India: The Lakshadweep, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands are the main island groups of India.
The Lakshadweep Islands:

1. The Lakshadweep is located 300 km west coast of Kerala in the Arabian Sea.
2. The Lakshadweep Islands are a group of 36 islands.
3. The Lakshadweep Islands were formerly known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindive Islands. They were renamed as Lakshadweep in 1973.
4. The Lakshadweep is the smallest Union Territory in terms of area.
5. Kavaratti Island is the headquarters of Lakshadweep Islands.

The Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

1. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands group is located in the Bay of Bengal.
2. The Southernmost point of India, called the Indira Point, is located in the Great Nicobar Island.
3. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands consist of as many as 200 islands.
4. The Nicobar group consists of 19 islands which are fairly large and more in number than the Lakshadweep Islands.
5. India’s only active volcano erupted on Barren Island in the Andamans on 10th April, 1991.
   The Andaman and Nicobar alongwith the Lakshadweep Islands are known for their great diversity of flora and fauna.

Question 6.
“Physiographic divisions of India are complementary to each other”. Comment the above statement.
Answer:
The Indian sub-continent consists of three structural components:

1. The Great Mountain Wall of the North,
2. The Northern Plains and
3. The Great Peninsular Plateau.

The three geographical physical divisions of India are complementary to each other and have contributed to the growth of the Indian sub-continent as an independent economic entity. The Great Mountain Wall of the North in the form of Himalayas, has provided shelter to the sub-continent against aggression. The snow covering these lofty mountains are big reservoirs of water.

The Northern Plains are sea-level fertile plains. They are well-watered by rains and possess very good irrigation facilities. They are known as the granary of India and support a very large population of India. The Great Peninsular Plateau is the stable block. It is the storehouse of various minerals like iron ore, manganese, mica, bauxite and coal. Rice1 cotton and spices are also produced in large quantities in these regions. The partially-enclosed character of the sub-continent has helped it to evolve a culture of its own.

Question 1.
Physical Features of India
1. Mountain Ranges: The Karakoram, the Zaskar, the Shivalik, the Aravali, the Vindhya, the Satpura, Western & Eastern Ghats

2. Mountain Peaks: K2, Kanchanjunga, Anai Mudi

3. Coastal Plains: Konkan, Malabar, Coromandel & Northern Circar (Location & Labelling)
Answer:

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Sanskrit Solutions Shemushi Chapter 8 विचित्रः साक्षी Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10th Sanskrit Solutions Shemushi Chapter 8 विचित्रः साक्षी

JAC Class 10th Sanskrit विचित्रः साक्षी Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न 1.
एकपदेन उत्तरं लिखत। (एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिये)
(क) कीदृशे प्रदेशे पदयात्रा न सुखावहा?
(कैसे प्रदेश में पदयात्रा सुखद नहीं होती?)
(ख) अतिथिः केन प्रबुद्धः?
(अतिथि किससे जाग गया?)
(ग) कृशकायः कः आसीत्?
(कृशकाय कौन था?)
(घ) न्यायाधीश: कस्मै कारागार दण्डम् आदिष्टवान् ?
(न्यायाधीश ने किसके लिये कारागार दण्ड का आदेश दिया)
(ङ) कं निकषा मृत शरीरेण आसीत्?
(किसके निकट मृत शरीर था?)
उत्तराणि :
(क)विजने प्रदेश
(ख) चौरस्य पादध्वनिना
(ग) अभियुक्तः
(घ) आरक्षिणे
(ङ) राजमार्गम्।

प्रश्न 2.
अधोलिखितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतभाषया लिखत –
(निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए)
(क) निर्धनः जनः कथं वित्तम् उपार्जितवान् ?
(निर्धन व्यक्ति ने कैसे धन कमाया?)
उत्तरम् :
निर्धनः जनः भूरि परिश्रम्य वित्तम् उपार्जितवान्।
(निर्धन व्यक्ति ने पर्याप्त परिश्रम करके धन अर्जित किया।)

(ख) जनः किमर्थं पदातिः गच्छति ?
(व्यक्ति किसलिए पैदल चलता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
जनः परमर्थकार्येन पीडितः बसयानं विहाय पदातिरेव गच्छति।
(व्यक्ति अत्यधिक.धनाभाव से पीड़ित हुआ बस को छोड़कर पैदल ही जाता है।)

(ग) प्रसते निशान्धकारे सः किम अचिन्तयत?
(रात का अँधेरा फैल जाने पर उसने क्या सोचा ?)
उत्तरम् :
सोऽचिन्तयत् यत् निशान्धकारे प्रसृते विजने प्रदेशे पदयात्रा न शुभावहा।
(उसने सोचा कि रात्रि का अन्धकार फैल जाने पर निर्जन प्रदेश में पैदल यात्रा कल्याणकारी नहीं होती।)

(घ) वस्तुतः चौरः कः आसीत् ?
(वास्तव में चोर कौन था ?)
उत्तरम् :
वस्तुतः चौरः आरक्षी आसीत्।
(वास्तव में चोर चौकीदार था।)

(ङ) जनस्य क्रन्दनं निशम्य आरक्षी किमुक्तवान् ?
(व्यक्ति के रुदन को सुनकर चौकीदार ने क्या कहा?)
उत्तरम् :
‘रे दुष्ट! तस्मिन् दिने त्वयाऽहम् चोरितायाः मञ्जूषायाः ग्रहणात् वारितः। इदानीं निज कृत्यस्य फलं भुव। अस्मिन् चौर्याभियोगे त्वं वर्षत्रयस्य कारादण्डं लप्स्यसे।’
(‘अरे दुष्ट! उस दिन तूने मुझे चुराई गई पेटी ले जाने से रोका था। अब अपने किये हुए का फल भोग। इस चोरी के आरोप में तीन वर्ष का कारावास भोगेगा।’)

(च) मतिवैभवशालिनः दुष्कराणि कार्याणि कथं साधयन्ति ?
(बुद्धिमान् लोग कठिन कार्यों को कैसे साधते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
मतिवैभवशालिनः दुष्कराणि कार्याणि नीतिं युक्तिं समालम्ब्य लीलयैव साधयन्ति।
(बुद्धिमान् लोग कठोर कर्मों को भी नीति और युक्ति का सहारा लेकर खेल ही खेल में साध लेते हैं।)

प्रश्न 3.
रेखांकितपदमाधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत –
(रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न-निर्माण कीजिए -)
(क) पुत्रं द्रष्टुं सः प्रस्थितः।
(पुत्र को देखने के लिए वह प्रस्थान कर गया।)
उत्तरम् :
कं द्रष्टुं सः प्रस्थितः ?
(किसको देखने के लिए वह प्रस्थान कर गया ?)

(ख) करुणापरो गृही तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
(दया गृहस्वामी ने उसके लिए आश्रय प्रदान किया।)
उत्तरम् :
करुणापरो गृही कस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत् ?
(दया गृहस्वामी ने किसके लिए आश्रय प्रदान किया ?)

(ग) चौरस्य पादध्वनिना अतिथिः प्रबुद्धः।
(चोर की पदचाप से अतिथि जागा।)
उत्तरम् :
कस्य पादध्वनिना अतिथिः प्रबुद्धः ?
(किसके पदचाप से अतिथि जागा ?)

(घ) न्यायाधीश: बंकिमचन्द्रः आसीत्।
(न्यायाधीश बंकिमचन्द्र था।)
उत्तरम् :
न्यायाधीशः कः आसीत् ?
(न्यायाधीश कौन था ?)

(ङ) सः भारवेदनया क्रन्दति स्म।
(वह वजन की पीड़ा से रोने लगा।)
उत्तरम् :
सः कया क्रन्दति स्म ?
(वह किससे रोने लगा ?)

(च) उभौ शवं चत्वरे स्थापितवन्तौ।
(दोनों ने शव चौराहे पर रख दिया।)
उत्तरम् :
उभौ शवं कुत्र स्थापितवन्तौ ?
(दोनों ने शव कहाँ रख दिया ?)

प्रश्न 4.
यथानिर्देशमुत्तरत –
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए)
(क) आदेशं प्राप्य उभौ अचलताम्’ अत्र किं कर्तृपदम्?
(यहाँ कर्तृपद क्या है?)
उत्तरम् :
उभौ (दोनों)।

(ख) एतेन आरक्षिणा अध्वनि यदुक्तं तदवर्णयामि? अत्र ‘मार्गे’ इत्यर्थे किं पदं प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तरम् :
अध्वनि (मार्ग में)।

(ग) ‘करुणापरो गृही तस्मै आश्रय प्रायच्छत्’ अत्र ‘तस्मै ‘ इति सर्वनाम पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(यहाँ ‘तस्मै’ सर्वनाम किसके लिये प्रयोग किया गया है? यहाँ ‘मार्गे ‘अर्थ में किस पद का प्रयोग किया गया है?)
उत्तरम् :
अतिथये (अतिथि के लिए)।

(घ) ‘ततोऽसौ तौ अग्रिमे दिने उपस्थातुम् आदिष्टवान्’ अस्मिन् वाक्ये किं क्रियापदम्?
(इस वाक्य में क्रियापद क्या है?)
उत्तरम् :
आदिष्टवान् (आदेश दिया)।

(ङ) ‘दुष्कराण्यपि कर्माणि मतिवैभवशालिना?’ अत्र विशेष्य पदं किम्? (यहाँ विशेष्य पद क्या है?)
उत्तरम् :
कर्माणि (कर्म विशेष्य है)।

प्रश्न 5.
सन्धि/सन्धिविच्छेदं च कुरुत (सन्धि/सन्धि-विच्छेद कीजिए) –
(क) पदातिरेव = ………….. + ……………
(ख) निशान्धकारे = …………. + …………
(ग) अभि + आगतम् = ……………………
(घ) भोजन + अन्ते = ………………………
(ङ) चौरोऽयम् = …………….. + …………
(च) गृह + अभ्यन्तरे = ………………….
(छ) लीलयैव = ………….. + ………..
(ज) यदुक्तम् = ………….. + ………..
(झ) प्रबुद्धः + अतिथिः = …………………।
उत्तरम् :
(क) पदातिरेव = पदातिः + एव
(ख) निशान्धकारे = निशा + अन्धकारे
(ग) अभि + आगतम् = अभ्यागतम्
(घ) भोजन + अन्ते = भोजनान्ते
(ङ) चौरोऽयम् = चौरः + अयम्
(च) गृह + अभ्यन्तरे = गृहाभ्यन्तरे
(छ) लीलयैव = लीलया + एव
(ज) यदुक्तम् = यत् + उक्तम्
(झ) प्रबुद्धः + अतिथिः = प्रबुद्धोऽतिथिः।

प्रश्न 6.
अधोलिखितानि पदानि भिन्न-भिन्नप्रत्ययान्तानि सन्ति। तानि पृथक् कृत्वा निर्दिष्टानां प्रत्ययानामधः लिखत –
(निम्नलिखित पद भिन्न-भिन्न प्रत्ययान्त हैं, उन्हें अलग-अलग करके निर्दिष्ट प्रत्ययों के नीचे लिखिए-)
[परिश्रम्य, उपार्जितवान्, दापयितुम्, प्रस्थितः, द्रष्टुम्, विहाय, पृष्टवान्, प्रविष्टः, आदाय, क्रोशितुम्, नियुक्तः, नीतवान्, निर्णेतुम्, आदिष्टवान्, समागत्य, मुदितः।]
उत्तरम् :

प्रश्न 7.
(अ) अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि बहुवचने परिवर्तयत –
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को बहुवचन में बदलिए)
(क) स बसयानं विहाय पदातिरेव गन्तुं निश्चयं कृतवान्।
(उसने बस छोड़कर पैदल ही जाने का निश्चय किया।)
उत्तरम् :
ते बसयानं विहाय पदातिरेव गन्तुं निश्चयं कृतवन्तः।
(उन्होंने बस छोड़कर पैदल ही जाने का निश्चय किया।)

(ख) चौरः ग्रामे नियुक्तः राजपुरुषः आसीत्।
(चोर गाँव में नियुक्त राजपुरुष था।)
उत्तरम् :
चौरा: ग्रामे नियुक्ताः राजपुरुषाः आसन्।
(चोर ग्राम में नियुक्त सिपाही थे।)

(ग) कश्चन चौरः गृहाभ्यन्तरं प्रविष्टः।
(कोई चोर घर के अन्दर घुस गया।)
उत्तरम् :
केचन चौराः गृहाभ्यन्तरं प्रविष्टाः।
(कुछ चोर घर के अन्दर घुस गए।)

(घ) अन्येयुः तौ न्यायालये स्व-स्व-पक्षं स्थापितवन्तौ।
(दूसरे दिन उन दोनों ने न्यायालय में अपने-अपने पक्ष को रखा।)
उत्तरम् :
अन्येयुः ते न्यायालये स्व-स्व-पक्षं स्थापितवन्तः।
(दूसरे दिन उन्होंने न्यायालय में अपने-अपने पक्ष को रखा।)

(आ) कोष्ठकेषु दत्तेषु पदेषु यथानिर्दिष्टां विभक्तिं प्रयुज्य रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत –
(कोष्ठक में दिए गए पदों में निर्देशानुसार विभक्ति का प्रयोग करके रिक्तस्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए)

(क) सः …………. निष्क्रम्य बहिरगच्छत्। (गृहंशब्दे पंचमी)
(ख) गृहस्थः ……… आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्। (अतिथिशब्दे चतुर्थी)
(ग) तौ …………… प्रति प्रस्थितौ। (न्यायाधीशशब्दे द्वितीया)
(घ) ……………. चायाभियाग त्व वषत्रयस्य कारादण्ड लस्यय। (इदम् शब्दे सप्तमी)
चौरस्य ……………… प्रबुद्धः अतिथिः। (पादध्वनि शब्दे तृतीया)
उत्तरम् :
(क) सः गृहात् निष्क्रम्य बहिरगच्छत्।
(वह घर से निकलकर बाहर आ गया।)

(ख) गृहस्थः अतिथये आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
(गृहस्थ ने अतिथि के लिए सहारा दे दिया।)

(ग) तौ न्यायाधीशं प्रति प्रस्थितौ।
(वे दोनों न्यायाधीश की ओर प्रस्थान कर गए।)

(घ) अस्मिन् चौर्याभियोगे त्वं वर्षत्रयस्य कारादण्डं लप्स्यसे।
(इस चोरी के आरोप में तुम तीन वर्ष के कारावास का दण्ड भोगोगे।

(ङ) चौरस्य पादध्वनिना प्रबुद्धः अतिथिः।
(चौर के पैरों की ध्वनि से जागा हुआ अतिथि।)

भाषिकविस्तार:

उपार्जितवान् – उप +। ✓अर्ज + तवतु
दापयितुम् – ✓दा + णिच् + तुमुन्

अदस् (यह) पुँल्लिग सर्वनाम शब्द

अध्वन् (मार्ग) नकारान्त पुंल्लिङ्ग

JAC Class 10th Sanskrit विचित्रः साक्षी Important Questions and Answers

शब्दार्थ चयनम् –

अधोलिखित वाक्येषु रेखांकित पदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थ चित्वा लिखत – 

प्रश्न 1.
कश्चन निर्धनो जनः भूरि परिश्रम्य किञ्चिद् वित्तमुपार्जितवान्।
(अ) महत्
(ब) निर्धनः
(स) किञ्चित्
(द) स्वपुत्रम्
चतुर्थी
उत्तरम् :
(अ) महत्

प्रश्न 2.
विजने प्रदेशे पदयात्रा न शुभावहा।
(अ) प्रवेशं
(ब) निर्जने
(स) तत्रैव
(द) निवसन्
उत्तरम् :
(ब) निर्जने

प्रश्न 3.
रात्रौ तस्मिन् गृहे कश्चन चौरः गृहाभ्यन्तरं प्रविष्ट:
(अ) तस्यामेव
(ब) निहिता
(स) भवने
(द) पलायितः
उत्तरम् :
(स) भवने

प्रश्न 4.
यद्यपि ग्रामस्य आरक्षी एव चौर आसीत्
(अ) ध्वनिना
(ब) धावत्
(स) आरभत
(द) रक्षापुरुषः
उत्तरम् :
(द) रक्षापुरुषः

प्रश्न 5.
अग्रिमे दिने स आरक्षी चौर्याभियोगे तं न्यायालयं नीतवान्।
(अ) अमुम्
(ब) अन्येधुः
(स) लयम्
(द) श्रुतवान्
उत्तरम् :
(अ) अमुम्

प्रश्न 6.
तस्य मृतशरीरं राजमार्ग निकषा वर्तते –
(अ) वृत्तमवगल्य
(ब) समया
(स) उपस्थातुम्
(द) समागत्य
उत्तरम् :
(ब) समया

प्रश्न 7.
आदेशं प्राप्य उभौ प्राचलताम् –
(अ) चलताम्
(ब) काष्ठपटले
(स) द्वावेव
(द) अभियुक्तश्च
उत्तरम् :
(स) द्वावेव

प्रश्न 8.
इदानीं निजकृत्यस्य फलं भुव –
(अ) आसीत्
(ब) चोरितायाः
(स) चौर्याभियोगे
(द) परिणामम्
उत्तरम् :
(द) परिणामम्

प्रश्न 9.
न्यायाधीशेन पुनस्तौ घटनायाः विषये वक्तुमादिष्टौ –
(अ) कथयितुम्
(ब) प्रस्तुतवति
(स) आश्चर्यमघटत्
(द) मान्यवर
उत्तरम् :
(अ) कथयितुम्

प्रश्न 10.
न्यायाधीशः आरक्षिणे कारादण्डमादिश्य तं जनं ससम्मानं मुक्तवान् –
(अ) अध्वनि
(ब) अत्यजत्
(स) रक्षिणे
(घ) अपमानं
उत्तरम् :
(ब) अत्यजत्

संस्कृतमाध्यमेन प्रश्नोत्तराणि –

एकपदेन उत्तरत (एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिए)

प्रश्न 1.
उच्चैः क्रोशितुं कः आरभत ?
(जोर-जोर से कौन चीखने लगा ?)
उत्तरम् :
चौरः (चोर)।

प्रश्न 2.
स्वगृहात् निष्क्रम्य तत्र के आगच्छन् ?
(अपने घर से निकलकर वहाँ कौन आ नये ?)
उत्तरम् :
ग्रामवासिनः (ग्रामवासी)।

प्रश्न 3.
चौरः काम् आदाय पलायितः ?
(चोर किसको लेकर भागा ?)
उत्तरम् :
मञ्जूषाम्। (पेटी को)

प्रश्न 4.
न्यायाधीशः कं निर्दोषम् अमन्यत ?
(न्यायाधीश ने किसको निर्दोष माना ?)
उत्तरम् :
अतिथिम् (अतिथि को)।

प्रश्न 5.
शवं न्यायालये आनेतुं कः आदिष्टवान् ?
(शव को न्यायालय में लाने का आदेश किसने दिया ?)
उत्तरम् :
न्यायाधीशः (न्याय करने वाले अधिकारी ने)।

प्रश्न 6.
भारवेदनया कः क्रन्दति स्म ?
(भार के कष्ट से कौन चीखा ?)
उत्तरम् :
अभियुक्तः (अपराधी)।

प्रश्न 7.
उच्चैः कः अहसत् ?
(जोर से कौन हँसा ?)
उत्तरम् :
आरक्षी (चौकीदार)।

प्रश्न 8.
तम् अतिथिं ससम्मानं कः मुक्तवान् ?
(उस अतिथि को ससम्मान किसने मुक्त किया ?)
उत्तरम् :
न्यायाधीशः (न्यायाधिकारी ने)।

प्रश्न 9.
किं समालम्ब्य दुष्कराण्यपि कर्माणि कुर्वते ?
(किसका सहारा लेकर कठिन कार्य भी कर लेते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
नीतियुक्तिम् (नीति से पूर्ण)।

प्रश्न 10.
निशान्धकारे प्रसृते कुत्र पदयात्रा न शुभावहा ?
(रात का अँधेरा फैलने पर कहाँ पैदल यात्रा हितकारी नहीं ?)
उत्तरम् :
विजनेप्रदेशे (एकान्त प्रदेश में)।

प्रश्न 11.
भूरिपरिश्रम्य कः किञ्चिद् वित्तमुपार्जितवान् ?
(बहुत परिश्रम करके किसने कुछ धन कमाया ?)
उत्तरम् :
कश्चन निर्धनोजनः (किसी गरीब ने)।

प्रश्न 12.
रात्रौ तस्मिन् गृहे कः प्रविष्टः ?
(रात्रि में उस घर में कौन प्रविष्ट हो गया ?)
उत्तरम् :
चौरः (चोर)।

प्रश्न 13.
चौरस्य पादध्वनिना कः प्रबुद्धः ?
(चोर के पैरों की ध्वनि से कौन जाग गया ?)
उत्तरम् :
अतिथिः (आया हुआ व्यक्ति)।

प्रश्न 14.
चौर्याभियोगे तं न्यायालयं कः नीतवान् ?
(चोरी के मुकदमे में उसको न्यायालय कौन ले गया ?)
उत्तरम् :
आरक्षी (चौकीदार)।

प्रश्न 15.
न्यायाधीशो नाम किम् आसीत् ?
(न्यायाधीश का नाम क्या था ?)
उत्तरम् :
बंकिमचन्द्रः (बंकिमचन्द्र चटर्जी)।

प्रश्न 16.
आदेशं प्राप्य उभौ किम् अकुरुताम् ?
(आदेश पाकर दोनों ने क्या किया ?)
उत्तरम् :
प्राचलताम् (चल दिए)।

प्रश्न 17.
सुपुष्टदेह कः आसीत् ?
(हष्ट-पुष्ट शरीर वाला कौन था ?)
उत्तरम् :
आरक्षी (चौकीदार)।

प्रश्न 18.
न्यायाधीशेन पुनस्तौ कस्य विषये वक्तुमादिष्टौ?
(न्यायाधीश ने फिर से उन दोनों को किसके विषय में बोलने
का आदेश दिया ?)
उत्तरम् :
घटनायाः (घटना के)।

प्रश्न 19.
न्यायाधीशः कस्मै कारादण्डमादिष्टवान्।
(न्यायाधीश ने किसके लिए कारावास (कैद) के दण्ड का आदेश दिया ?)
उत्तरम् :
आरक्षिणे (चौकीदार के लिए)।
पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत (पूरे वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)

प्रश्न 20.
पुत्रं द्रष्टुं कः प्रस्थितः ?
(पुत्र को देखने के लिए किसने प्रस्थान किया ?)
उत्तरम् :
निर्धन: पिता (गरीब पिता ने)।

प्रश्न 21.
कः तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत् ?
(किसने उसे आश्रय प्रदान किया ?)
उत्तरम् :
करुणापरो गृही तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
(दयालु गृहस्थ ने उसे सहारा प्रदान किया।)

प्रश्न 22.
पिता कस्मात् व्याकुलोऽजायत ?
(पिता किसलिए व्याकुल हो गया ?)
उत्तरम् :
एकदा पिता तनूजस्य (पुत्रस्य) रुग्णावस्थाम् आकर्ण्य व्याकुलोऽजायत।
(एक दिन पिता पुत्र के बीमार होने की सूचना पाकर व्याकुल हो गया।)

प्रश्न 23.
सर्ववृत्तम् अवगम्य न्यायाधीशः किम् अमन्यत ?
(सारा वृत्तान्त जानकर न्यायाधीश ने क्या माना ?)
उत्तरम् :
सर्वं वृत्तम् अवगम्य न्यायाधीशः तम् अतिथिं निर्दोषम् अमन्यत आरक्षिणं च दोषभाजनम्।।
(सारा वृत्तान्त जानकर न्यायाधीश ने उस अतिथि को निर्दोष माना और चौकीदार को दोष का पात्र।)

प्रश्न 24.
अभियुक्तस्य कृते किं दुष्करम् आसीत् ?
(अभियुक्त के लिए क्या मुश्किल था ?)
उत्तरम् :
भारवतः शवस्य स्कन्धेन वहनम् अभियुक्तस्य कृते दुष्करम् आसीत्।।
(बोझिल लाश का कन्धे पर ढोना अभियुक्त के लिए मुश्किल था।)

प्रश्न 25.
शवः उत्थाय किमवदत् ?
(लाश ने उठकर क्या कहा ?)
उत्तरम् :
मान्यवर ! एतेन आरक्षिणा अध्वनि यदुक्तं तद् वर्णयामि – ‘त्वया अहं चोरितायाः मञ्जूषायाः ग्रहणात् वारितः, अतः निजकृत्यस्य फलं भुव’। (मान्यवर ! इस चौकीदार ने रास्ते में जो कहा उसका मैं वर्णन करता हूँ- ‘तुमने मुझे चुराई गई पेटी को ले जाने से रोका अतः अपने कृत्य का फल भोगो’।)

प्रश्न 26.
निर्धनजनस्य पुत्रः कुत्र निवसन् अध्ययने संलग्नः समभूत्।
(गरीब का बेटा कहाँ रहकर अध्ययन में लग गया?)
उत्तरम् :
निर्धनजनस्य पुत्रः छात्रावासे निवसन् अध्ययने संलग्नः समभूत्।
(गरीब का बेटा छात्रावास में रहते हुए अध्ययन में लग गया।)

प्रश्न 27.
चौरः उच्चैः क्रोशितुं किम् आरभत?
(चोर ने जोर-जोर से क्या चीखना प्रारंभ किया ?)
उत्तरम् :
चौरः उच्चैः क्रोशितुमारभत् “चौरोऽयं चौरोऽयम्” इति।
(चोर ने जोर से चीखना प्रारंभ किया-यह चोर है, यह चोर है।

प्रश्न 28.
अग्रिमे दिने स आरक्षी किम् अकरोत् ?
(अगले दिन चौकीदार ने क्या किया ?)
उत्तरम् :
अग्रिमे दिने स आरक्षी तं अतिथिं चौर्याभियोगे न्यायालयं नीतवान्।
(अगले दिन वह चौकीदार उस अतिथि को चोरी के मुकदमे में न्यायालय ले गया।)

प्रश्न 29.
आरक्षी अभियुक्तश्च कीदृशौ आस्ताम् ?
(चौकीदार और अभियुक्त कैसे थे ?)
उत्तरम् :
आरक्षी सुपुष्टदेहः आसीत् अभियुक्तश्च अतीव कृषकायः आसीत्।
(चौकीदार हृष्टपुष्ट था और अभियुक्त अत्यन्त दुबला-पतला था।)

प्रश्न 30.
न्यायालये किमाश्चर्यम् अघटत् ?
(न्यायालय में क्या आश्चर्य घटा ?)
उत्तरम् :
सः शवः प्रावारकमपसार्य उतिष्ठत् ?
(वह शव चादर हटाकर उठ खड़ा हुआ।)

अन्वय-लेखनम् –

अधोलिखितश्लोकस्यान्वयमाश्रित्य रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषातः समुचितपदानि चित्वा पूरयत।
(नीचे लिखे श्लोक के अन्वय के आधार पर रिक्तस्थानों की पूर्ति मंजूषा से उचित पद चुनकर कीजिए।)

दुष्कराण्यपि कर्माणि ………………… लीलयैव प्रकुर्वते।।

मञ्जूषा – नीतियुक्तिम्, लीलया दुष्कराणि, अपि।

‘मति वैभवशालिनः (i) ……… समालम्ब्य (ii) ……… कर्माणि (iii) ………. (iv) ……… एव प्रकुर्वते।’ उत्तरम् : (i) नीतियुक्तिम् (ii) दुष्कराणि (ii) अपि (iv) लीलया।

प्रश्ननिर्माणम् –

अधोलिखित वाक्येषु स्थूलपदमाधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत –

1. निर्धनः भूरि परिश्रम्य किञ्चिद्वित्तमुपार्जितवान्।
(निर्धन ने बहुत परिश्रम करके कुछ धन उपार्जित किया।)

2. तस्य तनयः छात्रावासे निवसन् अध्ययने संलग्नः समभूत्।
(उसका बेटा छात्रावास में रहता हुआ अध्ययन में लग गया।)

3. व्याकुलो निर्धनः पत्रं द्रष्टुं प्रस्थितः।
(व्याकुल निर्धन पुत्र को देखने प्रस्थान कर गया।)

4. परमर्थकार्येन पीडितः सः बसयानं विहाय पदातिरेव प्राचलत्।
(अत्यधिक आर्थिक कमजोरी से पीड़ित वह बस को छोड़कर पैदल ही चल पड़ा।)

5. सायं समयेऽसौ गन्तव्याद् दूरे आसीत्।
(शाम के समय वह गन्तव्य से दूर था।)

6. करुणापरो गृही अतिथये आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
(दयालु गृहस्वामी ने अतिथि के लिए आश्रय दे दिया।)

7. विचित्रा दैवगतिः।
(भाग्य की गति विचित्र है।)

8. कश्चन चौरः गृहाभ्यन्तरं प्रविष्टः।
(कोई चोर घर के अन्दर घुस गया।)

9. अतिथिमेव चौरं मत्वाऽभर्त्सयन्।
(अतिथि को ही चोर मानकर निन्दा की।)

10. अग्रिमे दिने तौ न्यायालये उपस्थातुम् आदिष्टवान्। – (अगले दिन उन दोनों को न्यायालय में उपस्थित होने का आदेश दिया।)
उत्तराणि :
1. निर्धन: भूरि परिश्रम्य किम् उपार्जितवान् ?
2. तस्य तनयः छात्रावासे निवसन् कस्मिन् संलग्नः समभूत्?
3. व्याकुलो निर्धनः कं द्रष्टुं प्रस्थितः ?
4. केन पीडितः सः बसयानं विहाय पदातिरेव प्राचलत् ?
5. सायं समयेऽसौकस्मात् दूरे आसीत् ?
6. करुणापरो गृही कस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत् ?
7. कीदृशा दैवगतिः ?
8. कश्चन चौरः कुत्र प्रविष्टः ?
9. कम् एव चौरं मत्वाऽभर्स्यन् ?
10. अग्रिमे दिने तौ किं कर्तुम् आदिष्टवान् ?

भावार्थ-लेखनम् –

अधोलिखित पद्यांश संस्कृते भावार्थं लिखत –
दुष्कराण्यपि ………………………… लीलयैव प्रकुर्वते।।

भावार्थ – बुद्धिमन्तः नीत्याः युक्तयाः च आश्रयं गृहीत्वा कष्टकराणि अपि करणीयानि कार्याणि कौतुकेन सुगमतया वा सम्पादयन्ति।

अधोलिखितानां सूक्तीनां भावबोधनं सरलसंस्कृतभाषया लिखत –
(निम्नलिखित सूक्तियों का भावार्थ सरल संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए-)

(i) निशान्धकारे प्रसृते विजने प्रदेशे पदयात्रा न शुभावहा।
भावार्थः – रात्रिकाले विस्तृते अन्धकारे निर्जने भूभागे मार्गे वा पदयात्रा शोभनीया सुखदा वा न भवति यतः अन्धकारे किमपि अशोभनीयं घटितुं शक्नोति।
(रात के समय विस्तृत अँधेरे में सुनसान प्रदेश में अथवा मार्ग में पैदल यात्रा शोभनीय या सुखद नहीं होती क्योंकि अन्धकार में कुछ भी अशोभनीय घटना घट सकती है।)

(ii) विचित्रा दैवगतिः।
भावार्थ: – भाग्यस्य गतिः अद्भुत आश्चर्यकरा च भवति। दैवात् अकस्मात् एव शुभमशुभम् वा किमपि घटितुं शक्नोति। (भाग्य की गति अद्भुत और आश्चर्य करने वाली होती है। भाग्यवश अचानक ही शुभ या अशुभ कुछ भी घट सकता है।)

(iii) दुष्कराण्यपि कर्माणि मतिवैभवशालिनः।।
भावार्थ: – बुद्धिमन्तः जनाः नीतिगतां युक्तिम् आश्रित्य दुर्लभकार्याणि अपि सुगमतया सम्पादयन्ति।
(बुद्धिमान् लोग नीतियुक्त तरीके का सहारा लेकर कठिन कार्य को भी सम्पन्न कर सकते हैं।)

पाठ-सार –

प्रश्न – ‘विचित्र साक्षी’ इति पाठस्य सारांशः हिन्दी भाषायां।
उत्तर :
किसी धनहीन मनुष्य ने पर्याप्त मेहनत करके कुछ धन अर्जित किया। इससे वह अपने बेटे को महाविद्यालय में प्रवेश दिलाने के योग्य हो गया। एक दिन वह पिता पुत्र की अस्वस्थता के बारे में सुनकर उद्विग्न हो गया। बेटे को देखने के लिये उसने बस की सवारी छोड़कर पैदल ही चल दिया रात के अंधकार के फैलने पर समीप के गाँव में किसी दयालु गृहस्थ के यहाँ उसने आश्रय लिया। भाग्य की गति अनोखी होती है।

उसी रात उस घर में चोर घुस गया। उस घर में रखी हुई पेटी को लेकर भाग गया। आगन्तुक ने चोर को पकड़ लिया परन्तु वह चोर ही चिल्लाने लगा – “यह चोर है यह चोर है।” इस प्रकार चोर जो कि वहाँ का चौकीदार था, उसने उस आगन्तुक को चोर है, ऐसा प्रचार करके आगन्तुक को ही जेल में डाल दिया। आगामी दिन वह रक्षापुरुष उस (अतिथि) को न्यायालय ले गया। न्यायाधिकारी बंकिम चन्द्र ने अलग-अलग दोनों का स्पष्टीकरण सुना।

उसी समय कोई वहीं का निवासी कर्मचारी निवेदन करने लगा कि यहाँ से दो कोस दूर पर कोई मनुष्य किसी द्वारा मारा हुआ है। उसका शव सड़क के समीप है। आदेश दीजिये क्या किया जाये? न्यायाधिकारी ने रक्षापुरुष और अभियुक्त को उस शव को न्यायालय के अन्दर लाने का आदेश दिया। आज्ञा प्राप्त करके दोनों प्रस्थान कर गये। उस स्थान पर समीप ही एक काठ के तख्ते पर रखे हुये चादर से ढंके हुये शरीर को कंधे पर उठाकर न्यायालय की ओर प्रस्थान कर गये।

रक्षापुरुष (चौकीदार) हृष्ट-पुष्ट शरीर था और अभियोगी दुर्बल शरीर वाला था। भारयुक्त लाश को कंधे पर ढोना उसके लिये कष्टदायक था। वह वजन के कष्ट से चिल्ला उठा। उसकी चीख को सुनकर प्रसन्न हुआ चौकीदार उससे बोला “अरे दुष्ट! उस दिन मुझे तुमने चोरी की पेटी को ले जाने से रोका था, अब भोग अपने कर्म का फल। इस चोरी के मुकदमे में तुम तीन साल तक कारावास का दण्ड प्राप्त करोगे। ऐसा कहकर वह उच्च स्वर से हँसा। जैसे-तैसे दोनों ने लाश को लाकर एक चबूतरे पर रख दिया।

न्यायाधीश ने पुनः उन दोनों को घटना के विषय में कहने की आज्ञा दी। रक्षापुरुष द्वारा अपना बयान करने पर अर्थात् जब रक्षापुरुष अपना बयान कर रहा था तभी एक अनोखी घटना घटी, उस लाश ने (जो कि जीवित था) चादर को हटाकर न्यायाधीश महोदय को प्रणाम करके रास्ते का सारा वृत्तांत सुना दिया। न्यायाधीश ने रक्षापुरुष (चौकीदार) को अपराधी मानकर जेल में डालने की आज्ञा दी तथा उस व्यक्ति (अतिथि) को सम्मान सहित मुक्त कर दिया। अतएव कहा गया है-बुद्धिमान नीति का सहारा लेकर कठिनाई से किए जाने वाले कार्य को सरलता से अथवा खेल-खेल में पूरा करते हैं।

विचित्रः साक्षी Summary and Translation in Hindi

पाठ-परिचय – प्रस्तुत कथा बंगला के सुप्रसिद्ध साहित्यकार बंकिमचन्द्र चटर्जी द्वारा न्यायाधीश के रूप में दिये गये एक फैसले पर आधारित है। इसके रचयिता श्री ओमप्रकाश ठाकुर हैं। चटर्जी जितने महान् साहित्यकार थे, उतने ही प्रसिद्ध न्यायाधीश भी रहे। नीर-क्षीर विभागार्थ वे कभी-कभी ऐसी युक्तियों का प्रयोग करते थे कि गवाह के अभाव में भी न्याय हो सके। इस कथा में भी विद्वान न्यायाधीश ने एक ऐसी ही युक्ति का प्रयोग करके न्याय करने में सफलता पायी है।

मूलपाठः,शब्दार्थाः,सप्रसंग हिन्दी-अनुवादः

1 कश्चन निर्धनो जनः भूरि परिश्रम्य किञ्चिद् वित्तमुपार्जितवान्। तेन स्वपुत्रं एकस्मिन् महाविद्यालये प्रवेशं दापयितुं सफलो जातः। तत्तनयः तत्रैव छात्रावासे निवसन् अध्ययने संलग्नः समभूत्। एकदा स पिता तनूजस्य रुग्णतामाकर्ण्य व्याकुलो जातः पुत्रं द्रष्टुं च प्रस्थितः। परमर्थकार्येन पीडितः स बसयानं विहाय पदातिरेव प्राचलत्।

पदातिक्रमेण संचलन् सायं समयेऽप्यसौ गन्तव्याद् दूरे आसीत्। निशान्धकारे प्रसृते विजने प्रदेशे पदयात्रा न शुभावहा। एवं विचार्य स पावस्थिते ग्रामे रात्रिनिवासं कर्तुं कञ्चिद् गृहस्थमुपागतः। करुणापरो गृही तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।

शब्दार्थाः – कश्चन = कश्चित् (किसी), निर्धनः = धनहीनः, दरिद्रः (गरीब), जनः = मनुष्यः (व्यक्ति ने). भूरि = महत्, पर्याप्तम् (बहुत, पर्याप्त), परिश्रम्य = श्रमं कृत्वा (मेहनत करके), किञ्चित् = कतिपयं (कुछ), वित्तम् : धनम् (धन), उपार्जितवान् = अर्जितवान्, (कमाया), तेन = अमुना (उससे), [सः = वह], स्वपुत्रम् = स्वकीयम् आत्मजम्, सुतम् (अपने बेटे को), एकस्मिन् महाविद्यालये = (एक महाविद्यालय में), प्रवेशं दापयितुम् = प्रवेशं कारयितुम्, प्रापयितुम् (प्रवेश दिलाने में), सफलो जातः = समर्थः अभवत् (सफल हो गया), तत्तनयः = तस्य पुत्रः, आत्मजः (उसका बेटा),

तत्रैव = तस्मिन्नेव (उसी, वही), छात्रावासे = विद्यार्थिनिवासे (छात्रावास में), निवसन् = निवासं कुर्वन् (रहता हुआ), अध्ययने = पठने (अध्ययन करने में), संलग्नः = निरत (संलग्न हो गया) समभूत् = अजायत (हो गया), एकदा = एकस्मिन् दिवसे (एक दिन), स पिता = असौ जनकः (वह पिता), तनूजस्य = पुत्रस्य (बेटे की), रुग्णताम् = अस्वस्थताम् (बीमारी को), आकर्ण्य = श्रुत्वा (सुनकर), व्याकुलो = व्यग्रः, उद्विग्नः (व्याकुल), जातः = अजायत, अभवत् (हो गया, हुआ), पुत्रम् च = सुतम् च आत्मजम् (और बेटे को), द्रष्टुम् = ईक्षितुम्, अवलोकयितुम् (देखने के लिए), प्रस्थितः = प्रस्थानम् अकरोत् (प्रस्थान कर गया), परमर्थकार्येन = परञ्च धनस्य अत्यधिक अभावेन (परन्तु धन के अत्यधिक अभाव से), पीडितः = क्लेशयुक्तः, दुःखितः (खिन्न), स = असौ (वह), बसयानं (बस-गाड़ी को), विहाय = त्यक्त्वा (छोड़कर), पदातिरेव = पादाभ्याम् एव (पैदल ही), प्राचलत् = प्रस्थितः (चला गया)।

पदातिक्रमेण = पादाभ्याम् एव सतत् (पैदल ही लगातार), सञ्चलन् = चलन्नेव (चलते हुए), सायं समये अपि = संध्याकाले अपि (सायंकाल भी), असौ = सः (वह), गन्तव्याद् दूरे = गन्तव्यस्थानात् दूरे (गन्तव्य स्थान से दूर), आसीत् = अवर्तत (था), निशान्धकारे = रात्रेः तमसि (रात के अंधेरे के), प्रसृते = विस्तृते (फैलने पर), विजने प्रदेशे = निर्जन प्रदेशे (निर्जन प्रदेश में), पदयात्रा = पदातियात्रा, पादाभ्याम् प्रयाणम् (पदयात्रा), न शुभावहा = न. कल्याणकर: (कल्याणकारी नहीं), एवं विचार्य = इत्थं विचिन्त्य (इस प्रकार सोचकर), सः = असौ (वह),

पाशवस्थिते ग्रामे = समीपस्थे ग्रामे, समीपे विद्यमाने ग्रामे (पास में बसे गाँव में), रात्रिनिवासम् = निशावासम् (रैन बसेरा), कर्तुम् = विधातुम् (करने के लिए), कञ्चिद् = कञ्चन (किसी), गृहस्थमुपागतः = दम्पत्योः समीपम् आगच्छत् (दम्पती के पास आया), करुणापरो = करुणोपेतः, दयार्द्रः (करुणामय), गही = गृहस्वामी (घर के मालिक ने), तस्मै = अमुष्मै (उसके लिए), आश्रयम् = शरणम् (सहारा), प्रायच्छत् =प्राददात् (दे दिया)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गद्यांश हमारी पाठ्यपुस्तक शेमुषी के ‘विचित्र साक्षी’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह पाठ मूलतः श्रीमान् ओम प्रकाश ठक्कुर द्वारा रचित कथा का सम्पादित अंश है। इस कथा में न्यायाधीश श्री वंकिम चन्द्र चटर्जी महोदय द्वारा एक ऐसी युक्ति का प्रयोग किया गया है जिसे बिना गवाह के भी न्याय किया जा सकता है। इस गद्यांश में कथानायककी आर्थिक स्थिति का चित्रण किया गया है, जिससे बाध्य होकर वह एक किसी गृहस्थ में आश्रय लेता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – किसी गरीब व्यक्ति ने बहुत परिश्रम करके कुछ धन कमाया। उससे वह अपने बेटे को एक महाविद्यालय में प्रवेश दिलाने में समर्थ हो गया। उसका बेटा वहीं छात्रावास में रहता हुआ अध्ययन में संलग्न हो गया। एक दिन वह पिता बेटे की बीमारी (की बात) सुनकर व्याकुल हुआ और बेटे को देखने के लिए चल दिया, परन्तु धन के अत्यधिक अभाव के कारण खिन्न हुआ वह बस को छोड़कर पैदल ही चल पड़ा।

पैदल ही लगातार चलते हुए सायंकाल को भी वह अपने गन्तव्य से दूर रहा (था) रात का अँधेरा फैलने पर ‘एकान्त प्रदेश में पैदल यात्रा हितकारी (कल्याणकारी) नहीं’ इस प्रकार सोचकर वह पास में बसे गाँव में रैन-बसेरा करने के लिए किसी गृहस्थ के पास आया। करुणामय घर के मालिक ने उसे सहारा (आश्रय) प्रदान किया।

2 विचित्रा दैवगतिः। तस्यामेव रात्रौ तस्मिन् गृहे कश्चन चौरः गृहाभ्यन्तरं प्रविष्टः। तत्र निहितामेकां मञ्जूषाम् आदाय पलायितः। चौरस्य पादध्वनिना प्रबुद्धोऽतिथि: चौरशङ्कया तमन्वधावत् अगृह्णाच्च, परं विचित्रमघटत। शितुमारभत “चौरोऽयं चौरोऽयम्” इति। तस्य तारस्वरेण प्रबुद्धाः ग्रामवासिनः स्वगृहाद् निष्क्रम्य तत्रागच्छन् वराकमतिथिमेव च चौरं मत्वाऽभसंयन्। यद्यपि ग्रामस्य आरक्षी.एव चौर आसीत्। तत्क्षणमेव रक्षापुरुषः तम् अतिथिं चौरोऽयम् इति प्रख्याप्य कारागृहे प्राक्षिपत्।

शब्दार्थाः – दैवगतिः = दैवस्य भाग्यस्य, गतिः स्थितिः, विधेर्विधानम् (भाग्य की गति, लीला), विचित्रा = अद्भुता (अनोखी), [भवति = होती है], तस्यामेव रात्रौ = अमुष्याम् एव निशायाम् (उसी रात में), तस्मिन् गृहे = अमुष्मिन् भवने (उस घर में), कश्चन चौरः = कश्चित् तस्करः (कोई चोर), गृहाभ्यान्तरं प्रविष्टः = भवनस्य मध्ये प्रवेशमकरोत् (घर के अन्दर घुस गया), तत्र = तस्मिन् गृहे (वहाँ), निहितामेकाम् = विद्यमानां, स्थितामेकां (रखी हुई एक), मञ्जूषाम् = पेटिकाम् (पेटी को), आदाय = नीत्वा, गृहीत्वा (लेकर), पलायितः = अधावत्, (भाग गया), चौरस्य = तस्करस्य (चोर की), पादध्वनिना = चरणपातशब्देन (पदचाप से),

प्रबुद्धो = जागृतः (जागा हुआ), अतिथिः = आगन्तुकः, अभ्यागतः (अतिथि), चौरशङ्कया = तस्करस्य संशयेन (चोर की आशङ्का से), तमन्वधावत् = अमुमन्वसरत् अन्वगच्छत् (उसके पीछे दौड़ा), अगृहणाच्च = प्राप्तवान् च (और पकड़ लिया), परम् = परञ्च (लेकिन), विचित्रमघटत = अद्भुतमजायत घटितवान् (अनोखी घटना घटी), चौरः एव = तस्करः एव (चोर ही), उच्चैः = उच्चस्वरेण (जोर-जोर से), क्रोशितुम् = क्रन्दितुम्, चीत्कर्तुम् (चिल्लाना/चीखना), आरभत = आरम्भमकरोत्, आरब्धवान् (आरम्भ कर दिया), ‘चौरोऽयं चौरोऽयम्’ = एषः चौरः, एषः चौरः (यह चोर है, यह चोर है ), इति = एवं (इस प्रकार), तस्य = अमुष्य (उसके), तारस्वरेण = उच्चस्वरेण (उच्चस्वर से), प्रबुद्धाः = जागृताः (जागे हुए), ग्रामवासिनः = ग्राम्याः, ग्रामीणजनाः (गाँव में रहने वाले लोग),

स्वगृहाद् = स्व स्व भवनात् (अपने-अपने घर से), निष्क्रम्य = निर्गत्य (निकलकर), तत्रागच्छन् = तस्मिन् स्थाने आयाताः, आगतवन्तः (वहाँ आ गये), वराकमतिथिमेव च = दीनमागन्तुकमेक च (और उस बेचारे अतिथि को ही), चोरं मत्वा = तस्करं मत्वा (चोर मानकर), अभर्स्यन् = भर्त्सना, निन्दामकुर्वन् (निन्दा की), यद्यपि = वस्तुतः (वास्तव में), ग्रामस्य आरक्षी = ग्रामस्य रक्षापुरुषः (गाँव का पुलिस कर्मचारी, चौकीदार), एव चौरः आसीत् = एव तस्करोऽवर्तत (ही चोर था), तत्क्षणमेव = तत्कालमेव (तत्काल ही), रक्षापुरुषः = आरक्षी (रक्षापुरुष ने), तमतिथिम् = तमागन्तुकम् (उस अतिथि को), चौरोऽयम् = एषः तस्करः (यह चोर है), इति प्रख्याप्य = इति प्रचार्य (इस प्रकार प्रचार करके), (तम्) कारागारे = बन्दीगृहे (जेल में), प्राक्षिपत् = न्यगृणीत (डाल दिया)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गद्यांश हमारी पाठ्य पुस्तक शेमुषी के ‘विचित्रः साक्षी’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पाठ श्रीमान् ओम प्रकाश ठक्कुर महोदय रचित कथा का सम्पादित अंश है। इस अंश में कथा-नायक का दुर्भाग्य वर्णित है कि उसकी उपस्थिति में ही घर में कोई चोर प्रवेश करता है तथा अतिथि द्वारा किया गया हित भी अहित हो गया।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – भाग्य की लीला बड़ी अनोखी होती है। उसी रात में उस घर में कोई चोर घर के अन्दर घुस गया। वहाँ रखी एक पेटी को लेकर वह भाग गया। चोर की पदचाप से जागा हुआ अतिथि चोर की आशंका से चोर के पीछे दौड़ा और पकड़ लिया। लेकिन एक अनोखी घटना घटी कि उस चोर ने ही जोर-जोर से चीखना आरम्भ कर दिया। ‘यह चोर है, यह चोर है’। उसके उच्च स्वर से जागे हुए गाँव में रहने वाले लोग अपने-अपने घर से निकलकर वहाँ आ गये और उस बेचारे अतिथि को ही चोर मानकर निन्दा करने लगे। वास्तव में गाँव का चौकीदार ही चोर था। तत्काल ही उस आरक्षी (रखवाले, पुलिसवाले) ने ‘यह चोर है’ ऐसा प्रचार करके उसे बंदीगृह अर्थात् जेल में डाल दिया।

3 अनिमे दिने स आरक्षी चौर्याभियोगे तं न्यायालयं नीतवान्। न्यायाधीशो बंकिमचन्द्रः उभाभ्यां पृथक्-पृथक् विवरणं श्रुतवान्। सर्वं वृत्तमवगत्य स तं निर्दोषम् अमन्यत आरक्षिणं च दोषभाजनम्। किन्तु प्रमाणाभावात् स निर्णेतुं नाशक्नोत्। ततोऽसौ तौ अग्रिमे दिने उपस्थातुम् आदिष्टवान्। अन्येद्यः तौ न्यायालये स्व-स्व-पक्षं पुनः स्थापितवन्तौ। तदैव कश्चिद् तत्रत्यः कर्मचारी समागत्य न्यवेदयत् यत् इतः क्रोशद्वयान्तराले कश्चिज्जनः केनापि हतः। तस्य मृतशरीरं राजमार्ग निकषा वर्तते। आदिश्यतां किं करणीयमिति। न्यायाधीशः आरक्षिणम् अभियुक्तं च तं शवं न्यायालये आनेतुमादिष्टवान्।

शब्दार्थाः – अग्रिमे दिने = आगामिदिवसे, अन्येधुः (अगले दिन), स आरक्षी = असौ रक्षापुरुषः (वह चौकीदार), चौर्याभियोगे = स्तेयस्यप्रकरणे (चोरी के मुकदमे में), तम् = अमुम् (उसको), न्यायालयम् = न्यायाधिकरणम् (न्यायालय को), नीतवान् = अनयत् (ले गया), न्यायाधीशः बंकिमचन्द्रः = न्यायाधिकारी बंकिमचन्द्रः (न्यायाधीश बंकिमचन्द्र ने), पृथक-पृथक् = भिन्नभिन्नम् (अलग-अलग), विवरणम् = स्पष्टीकरणम् (विवरण को), श्रुतवान् = अशृणोत् (सुना), सर्वम् = सम्पूर्णम् (पूरे), वृत्तमवगत्य = विवरणं, वृत्तान्तम् ज्ञात्वा (वृत्तान्त को जानकर),

स तं = असौ अमुम् (उसने उसे), निर्दोषम् = निरपराद्धम् (निरपराध), अमन्यत = मतघान् (माना), आरक्षिणं च = रक्षापुरुषं च सैनिकं (और रखवाले या चौकीदार को), दोषभाजनम् = अपराधस्य पात्रम् (दोष का भागीदार), किन्तु = परञ्च (लेकिन), प्रमाणाभावात् = प्रमाणस्य साक्षिणः अभावात् (गवाह के अभाव में, गवाह न होने के कारण), सः = असौ (वह), निर्णेतुम् नाशक्नोत् = निर्णयं कर्तुम् न अशक्नोत् (निर्णय नहीं कर सका), ततोऽसौ = ततः सः (तब उसने), तौ = अमू (उन दोनों को), अग्रिमे दिने = आगामिदिवसे, अपरेधुः (अगले दिन), उपस्थातुम् = उपस्थापयितुम् (उपस्थित होने के लिए), आदिष्टवान् = आज्ञप्तवान्, आज्ञां दत्तवान् (आदेश प्रदान किया), अन्येयुः = अपरे दिवसे (दूसरे दिन), तौ = अमू उभौ (उन दोनों ने),

न्यायालये = न्यायाधिकरणे (न्यायालय में), स्व- स्व-पक्षम् = आत्मनः कथनं, मन्तव्यम् (अपने-अपने पक्ष को), पुनः = द्वि-वारम् (फिर से), स्थापितवन्तौ = अस्थापयताम् (स्थापित किया), तदैव = तस्मिन्नेव काले (उसी समय, तभी), कश्चित् = कश्चन, कोऽपि (किसी), तत्रत्यः = तत्रभवः, तत्र निवसन् तत्रैव वास्तव्यः (वहाँ के निवासी), कर्मचारी = कर्मकारः, कार्यकर्ता, सेवकः, भृत्यः (कर्मचारी ने), समागत्य = प्राप्य, आगम्य (आकर), न्यवेदयत् = निवेदितवान् (निवेदन किया), यत् = कि, इतः = अत्रतः (यहाँ से), कोशद्वयान्तराले = द्वयोः क्रोशयोः मध्ये (दो कोस के मध्य, दो कोस की दूरी पर),

कश्चिज्जनः = कोऽपि मनुष्यः (कोई आदमी), केनापि = केनचित् (किसी के द्वारा), हतः = मारितः व्यापदितः (मारा गया), तस्य = अमुष्य (उसकी), मृतशरीरम् = शवः (लाश), राजमार्गम् = राज्ञः पथम्, जनपथस्य (राजमार्ग के, सड़क के), निकषा = समया, समीपं (समीप), वर्तते = अस्ति (है), आदिश्यताम् = आदेशं दीयताम् (आदेश दिया जाय, दीजिए), किं करणीयमिति = किं कर्त्तव्यमिति (क्या करना चाहिए), न्यायाधीशः = न्यायाधिकारी (न्यायाधीश ने), आरक्षिणम् = रक्षापुरुषम् (सैनिक को), अभियुक्तम् च = अपराधिनम् च अभियोगारोपितम् (और अभियुक्त को), तं शवम् = अमुम् मृतशरीरम् (उस लाश को), न्यायालये = न्यायाधिकरणे (न्यायालय में), आनेतुम् = आनयनाय (लाने के लिए), आदिष्टवान् = आज्ञां दत्तवान्, आज्ञप्तवान् (आदेश दिया)।।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गद्यांश हमारी शेमुषी पाठ्यपुस्तक के विचित्र साक्षी’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह पाठ मूलतः श्री ओम प्रकाश ठक्कुर रचित कथा का संपादित अंश है। इस गद्यांश में एक शव लाया जाता है, जो न्यायालय में साक्षी बनेगा।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – अगले दिन वह चौकीदार (रक्षापुरुष) चोरी के मुकदमे में उस (अतिथि) को न्यायालय ले गया। न्यायाधीश बंकिमचन्द्र ने अलग-अलग विवरण (बयान) सुना। पूरे वृत्तान्त को जानकर उस (न्यायाधीश) ने उस (अतिथि) को निरपराध माना और रक्षापुरुष को अपराधी (माना) लेकिन प्रमाण के अभाव में वह (न्यायाधीश) निर्णय नहीं कर सका। तब उस (न्यायाधीश) ने उन दोनों (अतिथि एवं राजपुरुष) को अगले दिन उपस्थित होने के लिए आदेश प्रदान किया। दूसरे दिन उन दोनों ने न्यायालय में अपने-अपने पक्ष को फिर से स्थापित किया। तभी वहाँ के किसी रहने वाले ने आकर निवेदन किया कि यहाँ से दो कोस की दूरी पर कोई आदमी किसी के द्वारा मार दिया गया है, उसकी लाश सड़क के पास (समीप) है। आदेश दीजिए, क्या करना चाहिए। न्यायाधीश ने रक्षा पुरुष (सैनिक) और अभियुक्त को, उस शव को न्यायालय में लाने के लिए आदेश दिया।

4 आदेशं प्राप्य उभौ प्राचलताम्। तत्रोपेत्य काष्ठपटले निहितं पटाच्छादितं देहं स्कन्धेन वहन्तौ न्यायाधिकरणं प्रति प्रस्थितौ। आरक्षी सुपुष्टदेह आसीत्, अभियुक्तश्च अतीव कृशकायः। भारवतः शवस्य स्कन्धेन वहनं तत्कृते दुष्करम् आसीत्। स भारवेदनया क्रन्दति स्म। तस्य क्रन्दनं निशम्य मुदित आरक्षी तमुवाच- ‘रे दुष्ट ! तस्मिन् दिने त्वयाऽहं चोरिताया मञ्जूषाया ग्रहणाद्वारितः। इदानीं निजकृत्यस्य फलं भुक्ष्व। अस्मिन् चौर्याभियोगे त्वं वर्षत्रयस्य कारादण्डं लप्स्यसे’ इति प्रोच्य उच्चैः अहसत्। यथाकथञ्चिद् उभौ शवमानीय एकस्मिन् चत्वरे स्थापितवन्तौ।

शब्दार्थाः – आदेशम् = आज्ञाम् (आदेश को), प्राप्य = लब्ध्वा (पाकर), उभौ = द्वावेव (दोनों ही), प्राचलताम् = प्रस्थितौ (चल पड़े), तत्रोपेत्य = तस्मिन् स्थाने समीपं गत्वा (वहाँ पास जाकर), काष्ठपटले = काष्ठस्य पटले (लकड़ी के तख्ते पर), निहितं = स्थापितम् (रखे), पटाच्छादितम् = वस्त्रेण आवृतम् (कपड़े से ढके हुए), देहम् = शरीरम् (मृत शरीर को), स्कन्धेन = कन्धे से, वहन्तौ = वहनं कुर्वन्तौ, वहमानौ (ढोते हुए), न्यायाधिकरणम् प्रति + न्यायालयं प्रति (न्यायालय की ओर), प्रस्थितौ = प्रस्थानं कृतवन्तौ (प्रस्थान कर गये/किया), आरक्षी = रक्षापुरुषः (सैनिक, चौकीदार), सुपुष्टदेहः = सुपोषितशरीरः (हृष्ट-पुष्ट शरीर वाला), आसीत् = अवर्तत (था), अभियुक्तश्च = अभियोगोपेतः च (अपराधी), कृशकायः = दुर्बल शरीरः (कमजोर शरीर वाला), (आसीत् = था), भारवतः = भारयुक्तस्य भारवाहिनः (भारी),

शवस्य = मृतशरीरस्य (लाश को), (स्कन्धेन = कन्धे पर), वहनं = वोढुम् (ढोना), तत्कृते = तस्मै (उसके लिए), दुष्करम् = कष्टकरम् (मुश्किल), आसीत् = अवर्तत (था), सः = असौ (वह), भारवेदनया = भारस्य वेदनया, भारपीडया (वजन की पीड़ा से), क्रन्दति स्म = चीत्करोति स्म, रोदिति स्म (चीख रहा था), तस्य = अमुष्य (उसके), क्रन्दनं = चीत्कारं (चीत्कार को), निशम्य = श्रुत्वा (सुनकर), मुदितः = प्रसन्न, आरक्षी = रक्षापुरुषः (चौकीदार), तमुवाच = अमुम् अवदत् (उससे बोला), रे दुष्ट ! = अरे दुर्जन! (अरे दुष्ट !), तस्मिन् = अमुष्मिन् (उस), दिने = दिवसे (दिन), त्वयाऽहं = भवता अहम् त्वया (तुमने मुझे), चोरितायाः = चौर्यस्य (चोरी की), मञ्जूषायाः = पेटिकायाः (पेटी को), ग्रहणात् = नयनात् (ले जाने से),

वारितः = वारितवान् (रोका), इदानीम् = अधुना (अब), निजकृत्यस्य = स्वकर्मणः (अपने कर्म का, करनी का), फलम् = परिणामम् (परिणाम), भुक्ष्व = भवान् अनुभवतु (भोगो, अनुभव करो), अस्मिन् = एतस्मिन् (इस), चौर्याभियोगे = स्तेयाभियोगे, प्रकरणे (चोरी के मुकदमे में), त्वम् = भवान् (तुम), वर्षत्रयस्य = त्रयाणाम् अब्दानाम् (तीन वर्ष का), कारादण्डम् = कारावासस्य दण्डम् (कैद, जेल का दण्ड), लप्स्यसे = प्राप्स्यसि (पाओगे, भोगोगे), इति प्रोच्य = एवं उक्त्वा (ऐसा कहकर), उच्चैः = उच्चस्वरेण (जोर से), अहसत् = हसितवान् (हँसा), यथाकथंचित् = येन-केन-प्रकारेण (जैसे-तैसे), उभौ = द्वावेव (दोनों), शवमानीय = मृतशरीरम् नीत्वा (लाश को लेकर), एकस्मिन् चत्वरे = एकस्मिन् चतुर्मार्गे, चतुस्थे (एक चौराहे पर), स्थापितवन्तौ = अस्थापयताम् (रख दिया)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गद्यांश हमारी पाठ्यपुस्तक ‘शेमुषी’ के ‘विचित्र साक्षी’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पाठ श्री ओम प्रकाश ठक्कुर रचित कथा का सम्पादित अंश है। इस गद्यांश में आरक्षी और अतिथि का संवाद प्रस्तुत किया गया है, जो संवाद न्यायालय में प्रमाण होगा।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – आदेश पाकर दोनों (अभियुक्त और आरक्षी) ही चल पड़े। वहाँ पास जाकर लकड़ी के तख्ने पर रखे हुए कपड़े से ढके हुए (मृत) शरीर को कन्धे पर ढोते हुए न्यायालय की ओर प्रस्थान किया। चौकीदार हृष्ट-पुष्ट शरीर वाला था (और) अपराधी कमजोर (दुबले-पतले) शरीर वाला (था)। भारी लाश का कन्धे पर ढोना उसके लिए मुश्किल (कठिन कार्य) था। वह वजन की पीड़ा से चीख रहा था। उसके चीत्कार (रुदन) को सुनकर प्रसन्न हुआ चौकीदार उससे बोला -‘अरे दुष्ट! उस दिन तूने मुझे चोरी की पेटी को ले जाने से रोका था। अब अपनी करनी का फल भोग। इस चोरी के मुकदमे में तुम तीन वर्ष की कैद भोगोगे’ ऐसा कहकर वह जोर से हँसा। जैसे-तैसे दोनों ने लाश को लाकर चौराहे पर रख दिया।

5. न्यायाधीशेन पुनस्तौ घटनायाः विषये वक्तुमादिष्टौ। आरक्षिणि निजपक्षं प्रस्तुतवति आश्चर्यमघटत् स शवः प्रावारकमपसार्य न्यायाधीशमभिवाद्य निवेदितवान्- मान्यवर ! एतेन आरक्षिणा अध्वनि यदुक्तं तद् वर्णयामि ‘त्वयाऽहंचोरितायाः मञ्जूषायाः ग्रहणाद्वारितः, अतः निजकृत्यस्य फलं भुक्ष्व। अस्मिन् चौर्याभियोगे त्वं वर्षत्रयस्य
कारादण्ड लप्स्यसे’ इति।
न्यायाधीशः आरक्षिणे कारादण्डमादिश्य तं जनं ससम्मानं मुक्तवान्।
अतएवोच्यते-दुष्कराण्यपि कर्माणि मतिवैभवशालिनः।
नीतिं युक्ति समालम्ब्य लीलयैव प्रकुर्वते।।

शब्दार्थाः – न्यायाधीशेन = न्यायाधिकारिणा (न्यायाधीश ने), पुनस्तौ = पुनः अमू उभौ (फिर से उन दोनों को), घटनायाः विषये = घटितस्य विषये (घटना के विषय में), वक्तुमादिष्टौ = कथयितुम् आज्ञप्तौ (कहने/बोलने का आदेश दिया), आरक्षिणि = रक्षापुरुषे (रक्षापुरुष के), निजपक्षम् = आत्मकथ्यम् (अपने पक्ष को), प्रस्तुतवति = उक्तवति (कह देने पर), अर्थात् जब रक्षापुरुष (चौकीदार) अपना पक्ष प्रस्तुत कर रहा था (तब), आश्चर्यमघटत् = अद्भुतमजायत (आश्चर्यजनक घटना घटी), सः = असौ (वह), शवः = मृतकायः (लाश), प्रावारकम् = उत्तरीय वस्त्रम् (लबादे को), अपसार्य = अपवार्य (दूर करके), न्यायाधीशमभिवाद्य = न्यायाधिकारिणम् प्रणम्य अभिवादनं कृत्वा (जज को प्रणाम करके),

निवेदितवान् = न्यवेदयत् (निवेदन किया), मान्यवर ! = मान्येषु श्रेष्ठ ! (हे माननीय!), एतेन = अनेन (इस), आरक्षिणा = रक्षापुरुषेण (चौकीदार ने), अध्वनि = मार्गे (मार्ग में), यदुक्तम् = यत् कथितम् (जो कहा था), तद् वर्णयामि = तस्य वर्णनं करोमि, तत् वदामि (उसका वर्णन करता हूँ), त्वयाहम् = त्वं माम् (तुमने मुझे), चोरितायाः = चौर्यस्य (चोरी की), मञ्जूषायाः = पेटिकायाः (पेटी को), ग्रहणात् = नयनात् (ले जाने से), वारितः = अवरोधितः, निवारितः, न्यवारयः (रोका था), अत: निजकृत्यस्य = अतः स्वकर्मणः, कृतस्य (अपनी करनी का), फलम् = परिणाम (परिणाम), भुक्ष्व = अनुभव (भोगो), अस्मिन् = एतस्मिन् (इस),

चौर्याभियोगे = स्तेयप्रकरणे (चोरी के मुकदमे में, आरोप में), त्वं वर्षत्रयस्य = त्वं त्रयाणां अब्दानां (तीन वर्ष का), कारादण्डम् = कारागृह निग्रहस्य दण्डं (कैद/जेल का दण्ड), लप्स्यसे = प्राप्स्यसि (प्राप्त करोगे, पाओगे), न्यायाधीशः = न्यायाधिकारी (जज ने), आरक्षिणे = रक्षापुरुषाय (चौकीदार को), कारादण्डमादिश्य = कारागृहनिग्रहदण्डम् आज्ञाप्य (कैद के दण्ड की आज्ञा देकर), तम् जनं = अमुम् पुरुषम् (उस मनुष्य को), ससम्मानम् – सम्मानेन सहितम् (सम्मान/इज्जत के साथ), मुक्तवान् = अत्यजत् (छोड़ दिया), अत एवोच्यते = अतः एव कथ्यते (इसलिए कहा जाता है)।

दुष्कराण्यपि ……………………………………… प्रकुर्वते।।

अन्वयः – मतिवैभवशालिनः नीतिं युक्तिं समालम्ब्य दुष्कराणि कर्माणि अपि लीलया एव प्रकुर्वते।

शब्दार्थाः – मतिवैभवशालिनः = बुद्धिमन्तः (बुद्धिमान् लोग), नीतियुक्तिम् = नीतिगतयुक्तिम् (नैतिक तरीके का), समालम्ब्य = आश्रयं गृहीत्वा, आश्रित्य (सहारा लेकर), दुष्कराणि = कष्टेन करणीयानि (कठिनाई से किए जाने योग्य), कार्याणि अपि = कर्माणि अपि (कार्यों को भी), लीलयैव = कौतुकेन, सुगमतया (खेल ही खेल में, सरलता से), प्रकुर्वते = कुर्वन्ति, सम्पादयन्ति (कर लेते हैं )।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गद्यांश हमारी पाठ्यपुस्तक शेमुषी के ‘विचित्र साक्षी’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह पाठ मूलतः श्री ओम प्रकाश ठक्कुर रचित कथा का सम्पादित अंश है। इस गद्यांश में न्यायालय में शव को साक्षी के रूप में प्रस्तुत किया जाता है, क्योंकि वह जीवित था। उसने पूरे संवाद को सुना था। यही संवाद यहाँ प्रमाण है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – न्यायाधीश ने फिर से उन दोनों को घटना के विषय में बोलने का आदेश दिया। रक्षापुरुष (चौकीदार) के अपने पक्ष को प्रस्तुत करने पर अर्थात् जब चौकीदार अपना पक्ष प्रस्तुत कर रहा था, तब एक आश्चर्यजनक घटना घटी। वह लाश लबादे चादर को दूर करके (फेंककर) [उठ खडी हुई तथा] न्यायाधिकारी (जज) को अभिवादन करके (पुरुष रूप से) निवेदन करने लगी- “माननीय! इस चौकीदार ने मार्ग में जो कहा था (मैं) उसका वर्णन करता हूँ तुमने मुझे चोरी की पेटी को ले जाने से रोका था। अतः अब अपने किये हुए (करनी) का फल भोगो। इस चोरी के आरोप में तुम तीन वर्ष का कैद का दण्ड पाओगे।” न्यायाधीश ने चौकीदार सिपाही को कैद के दण्ड का आदेश (आज्ञा) देकर उस व्यक्ति (अतिथि) को ससम्मान (सम्मान के साथ) मुक्त कर दिया। इसलिए कहा जाता है बुद्धिमान् लोग नैतिक तरीके का सहारा लेकर कठिनाई से किये जाने योग्य कार्यों को भी खेल ही खेल में कर लेते हैं।