JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
NSSO is an organization under:
(a) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(b) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(c) Ministry of Statistics, Planning and Programme Implementation
(d) Census of India
Answer:
(c) Ministry of Statistics, Planning and Programme Implementation

Question 2.
Which organization in India conducts the employment and unemployment survey every five years?
(a) Census of India
(b) NSSO
(c) Economic Survey
(d) None of the above
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) NSSO

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

Question 3.
Which sector is also called the service sector?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of these
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Tertiary

Question 4.
What does ‘GDP’ stand for?
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Gross Debited Product
(c) Goods Direct Production
(d) Gross Direct Production
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Gross Domestic Product

Question 5.
Mark the odd one out.
(a) Forestry
(b) Fishing
(c) Question uarrying
(d) Banking
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 6.
Alabourer working in a construction site is in ………… sector of employment.
(a) Organized
(b) Unorganized
(c) Disguised unemployment
(d) None of the above
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Unorganized

Question 7.
Through which shops Government of India sells wheat and rice at lower rate to consumers?
(a) Ration shops
(b) Departmental stores
(e) Kirana store
(d) Fair price shop
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Ration shops

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

Question 8.
TISCO is a ……….. sector organization.
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) NGO
(d) Semi Government
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Private

Question 9.
Ten people working on a small field, is an example of ……….
(a) Full employment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Unemployment
(d) Disguised employment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Disguised unemployment

Question 10.
Which sector contributed maximum in India’s GDP in 2003?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Tertiary

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Economy.
Answer:
Economy is related with the production, consumption and distribution pattern of goods and services in a region. It shows the status of the region.

Question 2.
What is primary sector activity?
Answer:
Primary sector activity involves producing goods by directly using natural resources.

Question 3.
Give one example each of primary, secondary and tertiary activities.
Answer:

  • Primary: Forestry.
  • Secondary: Furniture making.
  • Tertiary: Banking.

Question 4.
Define secondary sector activity.
Answer:
Secondary sector includes those activities in which natural products are transformed into other products by ways of manufacturing.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

Question 5.
What Is tertiary sector?
Answer:
Tertiary sector activities do not involve direct production of goods like the other two sectors, but these activities support the primary and secondary sector to develop.

Question 6.
Define GDP.
Answer:
Gross Domestic Product is the final value of goods and services produced in all of the three sectors in a year.

Question 7.
Who calculates GDP in India?
Answer:
The mammoth task of calculating GDP in India is done by Central government ministry.

Question 8.
Name few basic services that a developing country’s government need to provide to its citizens.
Answer:
Some basic services that a developing country’s government needs to provide to its citizens are educational institutions, medical facilities, transport, banking etc.

Question 9.
What is the full form of NREGA?
Answer:
The full form of NREGA is National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

Question 10.
When was NREGA launched?
Answer:
NREGA was launched in the year 2005 in India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define public sector and what Is its purpose?
Answer:

  1. Public sector includes government organization which are owned, controlled and managed by the government. For example, AIIMS, State Bank of india etc., are public sector organizations.
  2. The purpose of public sector organization is to provide services to the people at reasonable costs and with more benefits.

Question 2.
Why the value of final goods and services Is counted in calculating GDP?
Answer:

  1. The value of fmal goods and services is counted to avoid repetition of calculating value of same item more than once.
  2. For example, if biscuit is a final goods then its value of Rs. 50 would include the value of wheat, flour, sugar, oil, etc. So if value f all items is considered separately for GDP along with the value of biscuit, which is the final goods then there, will be repetition of values as the cost of biscuit
    would already include all the values of the itens.

Question 3.
Why primary sector is called ‘Primary’?
Answer:
Primary sector is called primary because it provides the base for all other products that are made in the secondary sector. For example, minerals such as iron are natural product produced from exploiting natural resources, which is an activity of the primary sector and when the same iron is processed to make iron rods, then it’s an activity of secondary sector.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

Question 4.
Why MGNREGA 2005 is called ‘Right to work’?
Answer:
MGNREGA 2005 is called right to work, because this Act guarantees 100 days of employment for those who are able to and are in need of work in a year by the government. Also, if the government fails to keep its guarantee, then the government would pay unemployment allowance to the people.

Question 5.
Why government raises money through taxes?
Answer:
Government raises money through taxes to provide basic services and facilities to its people. With the raised tax money government construct roadways, build infrastructure, provide other services such as education, health, transport and communication etc.

Question 6.
Define private sector and its purpose.
Answer:
Privatesectorincludesthoseorganizations, which are owned, controlled and managed by private companies or individuals or a family. Such as Reliance Industries, Bajaj Motors etc. The main purpose of these organizations is to earn profit.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

Question 7.
What is Economic and Social development?
Answer:
Economic development is when people are financially in better position with higher per capita income. When people of a country are able to lead a good quality standard of living with a decent income that is economic development.Social development happens when all sections of the society is equally treated and no one is discriminated on the basis of caste or religion. When every individual of a society is able to lead a decent life and are able to reach their full potential is social development.

Question 8.
What does the statement means that ‘workers in agricultural sector are under employed’?
Answer:
Workers in agricultural sector are under employed means more people are engaged in agricultural work than required, hence the workers are neither able to work to their full potential and nor get paid fully.

Question 9.
What are the three types of sectoral classification of the economy?
Answer:
The three types of sectoral classification are:

  1. On the basis of economic activities: Primary, Secondary and Tertiary.
  2. On the basis of ownership: Private and Public sector.
  3. On the basis of employment: Organized and unorganized.

Question 10.
What are intermediate goods?
Answer:
Intermediate goods are partly finished goods, which are further processed or used to produce the final goods.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Whieh sector in India employs maximum workers and why?
Answer:

  1. The secondary and tertiary sectors though contribute majority to India’s GDP; have not yet been able to generate employment like in primary sector.
  2. The primary sector in India employs maximum workers because of lack of job opportunities in other sectors.
  3. Primary sector activities mainly agriculture, do not require high skills hence attract more people to work. More than half of the working population in India still works in primary sector contributing only a quarter of GDP.
  4. Secondary and tertiary sector requires highly skill based and educated workers than the primary sector.
  5. Lower level of education or lack of required level of skills thus limits the employment opportunity for many workers.

Question 2.
Why is tertiary sector developing or becoming important in India?
Answer:
Tertiary sector is becoming important in India because:

  1. In a developing country like India the government needs to provide the provision for basic services to its citizens such as health facilities, education facilities, transportation, safe drinking water etc.
  2. The development of primary and secondary sector automatically leads to the development of services such as transportation, banking, insurance etc.
  3. With rising income demand for various services like shopping tourism, private hospital also increases.
  4. Development in the information and technology, the demand for newer services are also increasing.

Question 3.
Explain the historical changes that have taken in different sectors of economy in the developed countries.
Answer:
The historical pattern of development of different sectors in the developed countries shows that:

  1. Even in developed countries primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity.
  2. With passage of time and better mechanization and industrialization secondary sector became important.
  3. But now in the last 100 years there has been a further shift from secondary to tertiary sector m developed countries. The service sector has become the most important in terms of total production. Most of the working people are also employed in the service sector.

Question 4.
Which are the people who need protection in unorganised sector?
Or
Suggest ways to protect the workers in the unorganized sector.
Answer:

  1. Landless farmers in the rural areas get exploited by their landlords, who make them work on low wages and don’t pay the workers during off season. Even marginal fanners and artisans need protection from low earning or no earning periods.
  2. Marginal farmers and artisans can be given monetary support to help them buy good quality seeds or other raw materials. Good quality seeds can grow into good quality crops and farmers can have better productions from their fields.
  3. Farmers need to be supported through adequate facility for timely delivery of seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, storage facilities and marketing outlets. Government needs to give job opportunities to the farmers/ workers during off season.
  4. In urban areas, construction labourers, small scale industries workers, street vendors, rickshaw pullers etc. can be given monetary supports, so that if wanted they can start with something or some business of their own.
  5. Government should frame laws to fix the working hours of workers in unorganized sector and pay extra for overtime.
  6. Government needs to ensure decent working condition of the workers.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

Question 5.
What are the positives of organized sector?
Answer:
The positives of the organized sectors are:

  1. The organized sector provides job security.
  2. Workers have fixed timings and also get paid for over time.
  3. Organized sector provides safe working conditions for women.
  4. This sector provides facilities, such as banking, paid leaves, summer vacations etc.
  5. They get several other benefits from the employers.
  6. Organized sector workers are thus better off than unorganized sector workers.

Activity Based Questions

Question 1.
The following table gives the GDP in Rupees (Crores) by the three sectors:

YearPrimarySecondaryTertiary
I96070,00020,00010,000
201014,00028,00055,000

Calculate the share of the primary sector in GDP for 1960 and 2010.
Answer:
Share of primary sector in GDP is:

YearPrimarySecondaryTertiaryTotalShare of primary sector in GDP
196070,00020,00010,000100,00070%
201014,0002,80,0055,00097,00051%

The data shows that the contribution of primary sector in GDP has decreased over the past 50 years.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 1 Development

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 1 Development

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What does ‘HDR’ stand for?
(a) Human Development Result
(b) Human Development Report
(c) Human Deliverable report
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Human Development Report

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter  1 Development

Question 2.
What is the most common indicator to measure development?
(a) Per Capita Income
(b) Infant mortality rate
(c) Literacy level
(d) Environmental degradation
Answer:
(a) Per Capita Income

Question 3.
What per capita income per annum makes a country rich as per WDR 2006?
(a) ₹ 4,53,000
(b) ₹ 37,000
(c) ₹ 2,00,000
(d) ₹ 26,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 4,53,000

Question 4.
What does IMR stand for?
(a) International Mortality Rate
(b) International Monetary Report
(c) Infant Mortality Rate
(d) Infant Mortality Report
Answer:
(c) Infant Mortality Rate

Question 5.
What BMI indicates that an adult person is overweight?
(a) 25
(b) 18.5
(c) 18
(d) 22
Answer:
(a) 25

Question 6.
Which organization publishes Human Development Report?
(a) World Bank
(b) UNDP
(c) International Monetary Fund
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) UNDP

Question 7.
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
(a) Groundwater
(b) Coa
(c) Crude oil
(d) Nuclear energy
Answer:
(a) Groundwater

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter  1 Development

Question 8.
Which of the following country was ahead of India in both Per capita income and life expectancy at birth in 2004?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Nepal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) Sri Lanka

Question 9.
………. is a PDS shop in India.
(a) Shoe shop
(b) Vegetable shop
(c) Chemist shop
(d) Ration shop
Answer:
(d) Ration shop

Question 10.
Literacy rate measures the proportion of literate population in the ………. and above age group.
(a) 7
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 6
Answer:
(a) 7

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What could be at least one developmental goal of a landless rural labourer?
Answer:
One developmental goal of landless rural labourer would be more days of work and better wages.

Question 2.
What development goals people aspire?
Answer:
People look at a mix of goals for development.

Question 3.
What may allow women to take more variety of jobs?
Answer:
A secure and safe environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs.

Question 4.
What is Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Infant Mortality Rate (or IMR) indicates the number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children bom in that particular year.

Question 5.
What is the role of Public Distribution System?
Answer:
The role of PDS is to make food available at lower cost to the public.

Question 6.
Which indicators are used to measure development by UNDP?
Answer:
Human Development Report published by UNDP measures development based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.

Question 7.
What is BMI?
Answer:
BMI stands for Body Mass Index, which calculates the nutrition level of a body. It is calculated by dividing weight of a person by the square of his height.

Question 8.
In which currency the per capita income of all countries is made?
Answer:
US Dollar $ is used to calculate the per capita income of all countries.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter  1 Development

Question 9.
Mention any two renewable and two non-renewable resources.
Answer:
Solar energy and wind energy are renewable sources of energy. Thermal energy and nuclear energy are nonrenewable sources of energy.

Question 10.
Why Kerala has low Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate because it has adequate provision of basic educational facilities and health facilities.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is average income?
Answer:
Average income is also called per capita income. It is the total income of the country divided by its total population.

Question 2.
What could be developmental goal of prosperous farmers from Haryana?
Answer:
Developmental goals that a prosperous farmer from Haryana aspires could be assured high family income through higher support prices for their crops, through hardworking and cheap labourers. Many also aspire to settle their children abroad.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter  1 Development

Question 3.
What is Human Development?
Answer:
Human development means development of people in such a way that they can lead a happy and good quality life, with proper education, health, security, freedom and income.

Question 4.
Why India comes under low middle – income category as per World Development Report?
Answer:
India is a low – middle income category country as per WDR because of lower per capita income. India’s per capita income in 2017 was US $ 1820 per year. Look at the table and answer the question numbers 5 and 6.

StatePer Capita loco me for 2015 – 16 (in ₹)Infant Mortality Rate per 1.000 (2016)Literacy Rate (%) (2011)
Haryana1,62,0343361
Kerala1,40,1901083
Bihar31,4543843

Question 5.
Why Haryana with high per capita income (2015-16) than Kerala lags behind Infant Mortality Rate and literacy rate?
Answer:

  1. This is because higher income does not guarantee one to get all the goods and services that one may need to live well. So, income by itself is not a complete adequate indicator of material goods and services that citizens are able to use.
  2. For example, money does not guarantee pollution free environment, it may not be able to protect us from infectious diseases, unless the whole of the community takes preventive steps.
  3. Money does not ensure that everyone (including girl child) enjoy the right to education, for this the attitude of the community needs to change.
  4. Thus, Haiyana even with high per capita income lags behind Kerala in IMR and literacy rate.

Question 6.
What could be the reasons behind higher infant mortality rate in Bihar?
Answer:
Lack of basic health facilities, under nourishment of kids, gender discrimination with female child getting neglected are few reasons behind high infant mortality rate in the state.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter  1 Development

Question 7.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:

  1. Sustainable development means development that guarantees availability of resources for future generation so that they are able to fulfill their needs like us.
  2. It is to improve the current level of development or maintain the pace of development in future as well.

Question 8.
What is renewable and non-renewable resources?
Answer:

  1. Renewable resources are the ones, which are replenished by nature such as vegetation, crops, groundwater etc.
  2.  Non – renewable resources are the one’s which will get exhausted after use. Such resources do ot get replenished, as have limited stock on the earth. Such as coal, natural oil etc.

Question 9.
What is Net Attendance Ratio?
Answer:
It’s an indicator to assess the education level of a state, region or a country. Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 attending school as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group.

Question 10.
Why is groundwater under serious threat in India?
Answer:
Groundwater is under serious threat because of over usages. In states like Punjab and western Utter Pradesh groundwater is used on regular basis for agricultural purposes, even in urban areas or big cities dependency on groundwater is high due to higher demand for water by increasing population.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is sustainable development important?
Answer:

  1. Sustainable development is important because even for developed countries to maintain the current level of development or aim to do better, development needs to be sustained.
  2. Sustaining development is possible with judicious usage of natural resources especially the non -renewable resources.
  3. Development should not be done at the cost of environmental degradation; resources should not be overused so that future generation is able to utilize the resources for their development.
  4. The present levels of development are not sustainable. Post industrial revolution and at the current level of industrialization, the natural resources such as fossil fuels, water, forest etc. are getting overused and misused, which is resulting into environmental degradation.
  5. Depleting stock of non – renewable resources from the earth would hamper the chances of development for future generation.
  6. Hence sustainable development with conservation of nature and natural resources is important.

Question 2.
What would result due to over usage of non-renewable resources?
Answer:

  1. Non – renewable resources are resources, which cannot be replenished by nature.
  2. Since industrial revolution non – renewable resources such as coal, crude oil and natural gas have been extensively used for development.
  3. Countries all over the world are still dependent on fossil fuels as major sources of energy. The challenge is due to overutilization stock of resources is reducing from the earth.
  4. Chances are our future generation may not get to use these resources at all for their development.
  5. Though new resources can be discovered, which were not discovered earlier, but overutilization of resources will ultimately exhaust the non – renewable resources.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter  1 Development

Question 3.
What is national development?
Answer:

  1. National development is when a country or a nation is able to provide good quality life to its people. Every individual has different goals and aspiration.
  2. People’s notion for national development is different. People may have different as well as conflicting notions of a country’s development.
  3. A country can mainly develop when it is able to meet the basic requirement of its people without impacting the environment or causing environment degradation.
  4. A country can develop not only with higher per capita income but when its people have all the basic facilities like health facilities, education facilities, security, freedom to live, clean environment and ample resources for future.

Question 4.
Compare developed and developing countries? Give example.
Answer:

Developed CountriesDeveloping Countries
(i) These countries have higher per capita income.(i) They have lower but increasing per capita income.
(ii) Living standards of its people are high.(ii) Living standards of all people are not high.
(iii) Literacy rate is high due to better educational infrastructure and facilities. Also, due to easy accessibility to education, the literacy rate of these countries is better.(iii) Literacy rate is low due to lack of proper educational infrastructure and facilities for all. Education is not easily accessible to many.
(iv) Lower infant mortality rate and high life expectancy due to better health facilities.(iv) High infant mortality rate and low life expectancy due to less health facilities.
(v) Developed countries are Australia, USA, Japan etc.(v) Developing countries are India, China etc.

Question 5.
What are public facilities?
Answer:

  1. Public facilities are facilities offered by the government for the people of the country. Better public facilities are indicators of the level of development of the country or state or a region.
  2. Public facilities include affordable housing, education and health facilities for all, ensuring access to clean environment and safe drinking water for all preventing health hazards and spread of infectious diseases, better infrastructure for easy and affordable transport etc.
  3. Public facilities are required for people to lead an affordable, comfortable and good quality life.
  4. Examples of public facilities are rail services, government schools, public transport such as bus, metro etc.

Activity Based Questions

Question 1.
Compare per capita income of the city A and city B. Assuming that both cities have five people, calculate the per capita income and find out which city is better to live in? Monthly income of each person

City12345Per capita income
A95001000098001020010500
B100010001000100046,000

Answer:
Per capita income is total income divided by the population.

City123456
A950010000980010200105001000
B100010001000100046,00010000

The table shows the per capita income of both the cities (A and B) are same. The per capita income of both the cities is same. However, city A would be a better place to live in as all the people of the city earns more or less similar to the average income. But the income pattern of city B shows only one person is earning more and rest all earn very less than the average income. Hence, City A would be decent place to stay, as one can expect to earn decent income.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Sound

JAC Board Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Sound

JAC Class 9th Science Sound InText Questions and Answers

Poge 162

Question 1.
How does the sound produced by a vibrating object in a medium reach your ear?
Answer:
When an object vibrates, it sets the particles of the medium around it in vibration. The particles in the medium in contact with the vibrating object are displaced from their equilibrium position. It then exerts a force on the adjacent particles. After displacing the adjacent particle, the first particle of the medium comes back to its original position. This process continues in the medium till the sound reaches our ear.

Page 163

Question 1.
Explain how sound is produced by your school bell.
Answer:
When the bell continues to vibrate forward and backward, it creates a series of compressions and rarefactions resulting in the production of sound.

Question 2.
Why are sound waves called mechanical waves?
Answer:
Sound waves need material medium to propagate, therefore, they are called mechanical waves. Sound waves can propagate through a medium only because of the interaction of the particles present in that medium.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Sound

Question 3.
Suppose you and your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear any sound produced by your friend?
Answer:
No, because a sound wave needs a medium through which it can propagate. Since there is no atmosphere on the moon, no material medium is available and we cannot hear any sound on the moon.

Page 166

Question 1.
Which wave property determines:
(a) loudness
(b) pitch?
Answer:
(a) Amplitude
(b) Frequency

Question 2.
Guess which sound has a higher pitch: guitar or car horn?
Answer:
Guitar has a higher pitch than car horn, because sound produced by the strings of guitar has a higher frequency than that of a car horn. The higher the frequency, the higher is the pitch.

Page 166

Question 1.
What are wavelength, frequency, time period and amplitude of a sound wave?
Answer:

  1. Wavelength: The distance between two consecutive compressions or two consecutive rarefactions is known as wavelength. Its SI unit is metre (m).
  2. Frequency: The number of complete oscillations per second is known as the frequency of a sound wave. It is measured in hertz (Hz).
  3. Time period: The time taken by two consecutive compressions or rarefactions to cross a fixed point is called the time period of the wave.
  4. Amplitude: The maximum height reached by the crest or the maximum depth reached by the trough of a
    sound wave is called its amplitude.

Question 2.
How are the wavelength and frequency of a sound wave related to its speed?
Answer:
Speed, wavelength and frequency of a sound wave are related by the following equation:
Speed (v) = Wavelength (λ) x Frequency (v)
V = λ × v

Question 3.
Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220 Hz and speed is 440 m/s in a given medium.
Answer:
Frequency of the sound wave, v = 220 Hz
Speed of the sound wave, v = 440 ms-1
For a sound wave,
Speed = Wavelength × Frequency
v = λ × v
∴ λ = \(\frac{v}{v}\) = \(\frac{440}{220}\) = 2
Hence, the wavelength of the sound wave is 2 m.

Question 4.
A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting at a distance of 450 m from the source of the sound. What is the time interval between successive compressions from the source?
Answer:
The time interval between two successive compressions is equal to the time period of the wave. This time period is reciprocal of the frequency of the wave and is given by the relation:
T = \( \frac{1}{\text { Frequency }}\) = \(\frac{1}{500}\) = 0.002 s

Page 166

Question 1.
Distinguish between loudness and intensity of sound.
Answer:
Intensity of a sound wave is defined as the amount of sound energy passing through a unit area per second. Loudness is a measure of the response of the ear to the sound. The loudness of a sound is defined by its amplitude.

Page 167

Question 1.
In which of the three media, air, water or iron, does sound travel the fastest at a particular temperature?
Answer:
The speed of sound depends on the nature of the medium. Sound travels the fastest in solids. Its speed decreases in liquids and it is the slowest in gases. Therefore, for a given temperature, sound travels fastest in iron.

Page 168

Question 1.
An echo is heard in 3s. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source, given that the speed of sound is 342 ms-1?
Answer:
Speed of sound, v = 342 ms-1
Echo returns in time, t = 3s
Distance travelled by sound
= v × t = 342 × 3 = 1026 m
In the given time interval, sound has to travel a distance that is twice the distance between the reflecting surface and the source.
Hence, the distance of the reflecting surface from the source
= \(\frac{1026}{2}\) m = 513 m.

Page 169

Question 1.
Why are the ceilings of concert halls curved?
Answer:
The ceilings of concert halls are curved so that the sound, after reflection (from the walls), spreads uniformly in all directions.

Page 170

Question 1.
What is the audible range of the average human ear?
Answer:
The audible range of an average human ear is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

Question 2.
What is the range of frequencies associated with
(a) Infrasound?
(b) Ultrasound?
Answer:
(a) Infrasound has frequencies less than 20 Hz.
(b) Ultrasound has frequencies more than 20,000 Hz.

Page 172

Question 1.
A submarine emits a sonar pulse, which returns from an underwater cliff in 1.02s. If the speed of sound in salt water is 1531 m/s, how far away is the cliff?
Answer:
Time taken by the sonar pulse to return, t = 1.02s
Speed of sound in salt water, v = 1531 ms-1
Distance travelled by the sonar pulse
= Speed of sound × Time taken
= 1.02 × 1531 = 1561.62 m
Distance travelled by the sonar pulse during its transmission and reception in water
= 2 × actual distance = 2d
Actual distance of the cliff from the submarine, d
Distance travelled by the sonar pulse
= \(\frac{Distance travelled by the sonar pulse2}{2}\) = \( \frac{1561.62}{2}\) = 780.81 m

JAC Class 9th Science Sound Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is sound and how is it produced?
Answer:
Sound is a form of energy which gives the sensation of hearing. It is produced by the vibrations caused in the medium by vibrating objects.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Sound

Question 2.
Describe with the help of a diagram, how compressions and rarefactions are produced in air near a source of sound.
Answer:
When a vibrating body moves forward, it creates a region of high pressure in its vicinity. This region of high pressure is known as compression. When it moves backward, it creates a region of low pres – sure in its vicinity. This region is known as rarefaction. As the body continues to move forward and backward, it produces a series of compressions and rarefactions. This is shown in the figure below.
JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Sound 1

Question 3.
Cite an experiment to show’ that sound needs a material medium for its propagation.
Answer:
Take an electric bell and an air tight glass bell jar connected to a vacuum pump. Suspend the bell inside the jar, and press the switch of the bell. You will be able to hear the bell ring. Now pump out the air from the glass jar. The sound of the bell will become progressively fainter and after some time, the sound will not be heard. This is so because almost all air has been pumped out. This shows that sound needs a material medium to travel.
JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Sound 2

Question 4.
Why is sound wave called a longitudinal wave?
Answer:
Sound wave is called a longitudinal wave because it is produced by compressions and rarefactions in the air. The air particles vibrate parallel to the direction of propagation of sound.

Question 5.
Which characteristics of the sound help you to identify your friend by his voice while sitting with others in a dark room?
Answer:
The quality or timber of sound enables us to identify our friend by his voice.

Question 6.
Flash and thunder are produced simultaneously. But thunder is heard a few seconds after the flash is seen, why?
Answer:
The speed of sound (344 m/s) is less than the speed of light (3 × 108 m/s). Sound of thunder takes more time to reach the earth as compared to light. Hence, a flash is seen before we hear a thunder.

Question 7.
A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelengths of sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound in air as 344 ms-1.
Answer:
For a sound wave,
Speed = Wavelength × Frequency = λ × v
Speed of sound in air = 344 m/s (Given)
(a) For, v = 20 Hz
λ1 = \(\frac{v}{v}\) = \(\frac{344}{20}\)
= 17.2 m

(b) For, v = 20000 Hz
λ2 = \(\frac{v}{v}\) = \(\frac{344}{20,000}\)
= 0.0172 m
Hence, for humans, the wavelength range for hearing is 0.0172 m to 17.2 m.

Question 8.
Two children are at opposite ends of an aluminium rod. One strikes the end of the rod with a stone. Find the ratio of times taken by the sound wave in air and in aluminium to reach the second child.
Answer:
Velocity of sound in air = 346 m/s
Velocity of sound wave in aluminium = 6420 m/s
Let the length of the rod be l
Time taken for sound wave in air,
t1 =\(\frac{l}{Velocity in air}\)
Velocity in air Time taken for sound wave in aluminium,
t2 = \(\frac{l}{Velocity in aluminium}\)
Therefore, = \(\frac{\mathrm{t}_{1}}{\mathrm{t}_{2}}\)
= \(\frac{Velocity in aluminium}{Velocity in air}\) = \(\frac{6420}{ 346}\)
= 18.55

Question 9.
The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?
Answer:
Frequency = 100 Hz (given)
This means that the source of sound vibrates 100 times in one second. Therefore, number of vibrations in 1 minute, i.e., in 60 seconds = 100 × 60 = 6000 times.

Question 10.
Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as light does? Explain.
Answer:
Sound follows the same laws of reflection as light does. The incident sound wave and the reflected sound wave make equal angles with the normal to the surface at the point of incidence. Also, the incident sound wave, the reflected sound wave and the normal to the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.

Question 11.
When a sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound production remains the same. Do you hear echo sound on a hotter day?
Answer:
An echo is heard when the time for the reflected sound is heard after 0.1s.
Time taken = \(\frac{Total distance}{Velocity}\)
On a hotter day, the velocity of sound is more. If the time taken by echo is less than 0.1s, it will not be heard.

Question 12.
Give two practical applications of reflection of sound waves.
Answer:
Two practical applications of reflection of sound waves are:

  1. Reflection of sound is used to measure the distance and speed of underwater objects. This technique is known as SONAR.
  2. Working of a stethoscope is also based on reflection of sound. In a stethoscope, the sound of the patient’s heartbeat reaches the doctor’s ear by multiple reflections.

Question 13.
A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? Given, g =10 ms-2 and speed of sound = 340 ms-1.
Answer:
Height of the tower, s = 500m
Velocity of sound, v = 340 ms-1.
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms-2
Initial velocity of the stone, u = 0 (since the stone is initially at rest)
Let the time taken by the stone to fall to the base of the tower be t1
According to the second equation of motion:
s= ut1 + \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{gt}_{1}^{2}\)
500 = (0 × t1) + \( \left(\frac{1}{2} \times 10 \times t_{1}^{2}\right)\)
\( \mathrm{t}_{1}^{2}\) = 100
t1 = 10s
Now, time taken by the sound to reach the top from the base of the tower, t2 = \(\frac{500}{340}\) = 1.47s
Therefore, the splash is heard at the top after time, t.
Where, t = t1 + t2 = 10 + 1.47 = 11.47s.

Question 14.
A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 ms-1. If its wavelength is 1.5 cm, what is the frequency of the wave? Will it be audible?
Answer:
Speed of sound, v = 339 ms-1
Wavelength of sound,
λ = 1.5 cm = 0.015 m
Speed of sound = Wavelength × Frequency
v = λ × v
∴ v = \(\frac{v}{λ}\) = \(\frac{ 339 }{0.015}\) = 22600 Hz
The frequency range of audible sound for humans is between 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. Since the frequency of the given sound is more than 20,000 Hz, it is not audible.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Sound

Question 15.
What is reverberation? How can it be reduced?
Answer:
The repeated or multiple reflections of sound in a large enclosed space is known as reverberation. The reverberation can be reduced by covering the ceiling and walls of the enclosed space with sound absorbing materials, such as fibre board, loose woollens, etc.

Question 16.
What is loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on?
Answer:
Loudness is a measure of sound energy reaching the ear per second. Loudness depends on the amplitude of vibrations. In fact, loudness is proportional to the square of the amplitude of vibrations.

Question 17.
Explain how bats use ultrasound to catch a prey.
Answer:
Bats produce high – pitched ultrasonic squeaks. These high – pitched squeaks are reflected by objects and their preys and returned to the bats’ ears. This allows the bat to know the distance and direction of their prey.

Question 18.
How is ultrasound used for cleaning?
Answer:
Objects to be cleaned are put in a cleaning solution and ultrasonic sound waves are passed through that solution. The high frequency of these ultrasonic waves detaches the dirt from the objects.

Question 19.
Explain the working and application of a sonar.
Answer:
SONAR is an acronym for sound Navigation And Ranging. It is an acoustic device used to measure the depth, direction and speed of underwater objects, such as submarines and ship wrecks, with the help of ultrasounds. It is also used to measure the depth of seas and oceans.
JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Sound 3
A beam of ultrasonic sound is produced and transmitted by the transducer (a device that produces ultrasonic sound) of the SONAR, which travels through sea water.
The echo produced by the reflection of this ultrasonic sound is detected and recorded by the detector, which is converted into electrical signals. The distance (d) of the underwater object is calculated from the time (t) taken by the echo to return with speed (v) which is given by 2d = v × t.
This method of measuring distance is also known as ‘echo – ranging’.

Question 20.
A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5s later. Calculate the speed of sound in water if the distance of the object from the submarine is 3625m.
Time taken to hear the echo, t = 5s
Distance of the object from the submarine, d = 3625m
Total distance travelled by the sonar waves during the transmission and reception in water = 2d
Velocity of sound in water,
v = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~d}}{t}\) = \(\frac{2 \times 3625}{5}\) = 1450ms-1

Question 21.
Explain how7 defects in a metal block can be detected using ultrasound.
Answer:
Defects in metal blocks do not allow ultrasound waves to pass through them and they are reflected back. This fact is used to detect defects in metal blocks. Ultrasound is passed through one end of a metal block and detectors are placed on the other end. The defective part of the metal block does not allow ultrasound to pass through it. As a result, it will not be detected by the detector. Hence, defects in metal blocks can be detected using ultrasound.
JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Sound 4

Question 22.
Explain how the human ear works.
Answer:
The human ear consists of three parts – outer ear, middle ear and inner ear.

  1. Outer ear: This is also called ‘pinna’. It collects the sound from the surroundings and directs it towards auditory canal.
  2. Middle ear: The sound reaches the end of the auditory canal where there is a thin membrane called eardrum or tympanic membrane. The sound waves set this membrane in vibration. These vibrations are amplified by three small bones. Malleus, Incus and Stapes in the middle ear.
  3. Inner ear: These vibrations reach the cochlea in the inner ear and are converted into electrical signals which are sent to the brain by the auditory nerve, and the brain interprets them as sound.
    JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Sound 5

JAC Class 9 Science Solutions

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources

JAC Board Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources

JAC Class 9th Science Improvement in Food Resources InText Questions and Answers

Page 204

Question 1.
What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables?
Answer:
Cereals provide us carbohydrates which give energy. Pulses provide us proteins which build our body. Vegetables and fruits provide vitamins and minerals.

Page 205

Question 1.
How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?
Answer:

  1. Factors responsible for loss of grains, during storage and production are:
    • Biotic factors like rodents, pests, insects, etc.
    • Abiotic factors like temperature, humidity, moisture, etc.
  2. Combination of both biotic and abiotic factors causes:
    • infestation of insects
    • weight loss
    • poor germination ability
    • degradation in quality
    • discolouration
    • poor market price

Question 2.
What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements?
Answer:
Desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements are as follows:

  1. Tallness and profuse branching are desirable characters for fodder crops.
  2. Dwarfness is desired in cereals so that less nutrients are consumed by these crops.

Page 206

Question 1.
What are macronutrients and why are they called macronutrients?
Answer:
Macronutrients are the essential elements which are utilised by plants in large quantities. Many macronutrients are required by the plants for the following functions:

  1. As the constituent of protoplasm
  2. N, P, S are present in proteins
  3. Ca is present in cell wall
  4. Mg is an important constituent of chlorophyll

Question 2.
How do plants get nutrients?
Answer:
Plants get nutrients from air, water and soil. There are sixteen nutrients essential for the growth of plants. Carbon and oxygen are supplied by air. Hydrogen is supplied by water. The remaining thirteen nutrients are supplied by soil.

Page 207

Question 1.
Compare the use of manures and fertilisers in maintaining soil fertility.
Answer:

  1. Effects of using manures on soil quality:
    • The manures enrich the soil with nutrients.
    • They provide a lot of organic matter (humus) to the soil and thus restore water retention capacity of sandy soils and drainage in clayey soils.
    • The addition of manures reduces soil erosion.
    • They provide food for soil organisms, like soil friendly bacteria.
  2. Effects of using fertilisers on soil quality:
    • By the continuous use of fertilisers, the soil becomes powdery, dry and the rate of soil erosion increases.
    • By the use of fertilisers, the organic matter decreases which further decrease the porosity of soil and the plant roots do not get oxygen properly.
    • The nature of soil changes to acidic or basic.

Page 208

Question 1.
Which of the following conditions will give the most benefits? Why?
(a) Farmers use high-quality seeds, do not adopt irrigation or use fertilisers.
(b) Farmers use ordinary seeds, adopt irrigation, use fertilisers.
(c) Farmers use quality seeds, adopt irrigation, use fertilisers and use crop protection measures.
Answer:
Use of any quality seeds is not sufficient until they are properly irrigated, enriched with fertilisers and protected from biotic factors. Hence, option (c) will give the most benefits.

Page 209

Question 1.
Why should preventive measures and biological control methods be preferred for protecting crops?
Answer:
Diseases in plants are caused by pathogens. To get rid of pathogens, some preventive measures and biological control methods are used as they are simple, economical and minimise pollution without affecting the soil quality.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources.

Question 2.
What factors may be responsible for losses of grains during storage?
Answer:
The factors responsible for the losses of grains during storage are:

  1. Abiotic factors like moisture (present in food grains), humidity (of air) and temperature.
  2. Biotic factors like insects, rodents, birds, mites, bacteria and fungi.

Page 210

Question 1.
Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why?
Answer:
Cross breeding is a process in which indigenous varieties of cattle are crossed by exotic breeds to get a breed which is high yielding. During cross – breeding, the desired characters are taken into consideration. The offspring should be high yielding, should have early maturity and should be resistant to climatic conditions.

Page 211

Question 1.
Discuss the implications of the following statement: “It is interesting to note that poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low fibre foodstuff (which is unfit for human consumption) into highly nutritious animal protein food”.
Answer:
The basic aim of poultry farming is to raise domestic fowl for egg production and chicken for meat. These poultry birds are not only the efficient converters of agricultural by – products, particularly cheaper fibrous wastes (which are unfit for human consumption but can be formulated into cheaper diets for poultry birds) into high – quality meat but also help in providing eggs, feathers and nutrient – rich manure. For this reason, it is said that, “poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low fibre foodstuff into highly nutritious animal protein food”.

Page 211

Question 1.
What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming?
Answer:
Management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming:

  1. Shelter: Dairy animals and poultry birds require proper shelter, i.e., well – designed, dairy and hygienic shelter.
  2. Feeding: To get good yield of food production, proper feed is provided to dairy animals and poultry birds.
  3. Caring for animal health: Animals and birds must be protected from diseases caused by viruses, bacteria or fungi.

Question 2.
What are the differences between broilers and layers and in their management?
Answer:
The poultry bird groomed for obtaining meat is called broiler. The egg laying poultry bird is called layer. The housing, nutritional and environmental requirements of broilers are somewhat different from those of egg layers. The ration (daily food requirement) for broilers is protein- rich with adequate fat. The level of vitamins A and K is kept high in the poultry feeds. Layers require enough space and proper lightning. They are vaccinated against various diseases. Broilers are taken care of to avoid mortality and to maintain feathering and carcass quality.

Page 213

Question 1.
How are fish obtained?
Answer:
There are two ways of obtaining fish. One is from natural resources, which is called capture fishing. The other way is by fish farming, which is called culture fishery.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of composite fish culture?
Answer:
In composite fish culture, a combination of five or six fish species is cultured in a single fish pond. These species are selected so that they do not compete for food among themselves and have different types of food habits. As a result, the food available in all the parts of the pond is used. For example, Catlas are surface feeders, Rohus feed in the middle – zone of the pond, Mrigals and common carps are bottom feeders and grass carps feed on the weeds. Together, these species can use all the food in the pond without competing with each other. This increases the fish yield from the pond.

Page 213

Question 1.
What are the desirable characters of bee varieties suitable for honey production?
Answer:
The desirable characters of bee varieties suitable for honey production:

  1. The variety of bee should be able to collect a large amount of honey.
  2. The bees should stay in a given beehive for a longer period.
  3. The bees should have capacity of breeding well.
  4. The variety of bee should be disease resistant.

Question 2.
What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?
Answer:
Pasturage means the flowers available to the bees for nectar and pollen collection. In addition to adequate quantities of pasturage, the kind of flowers available will determine the taste of the honey.

JAC Class 9th Science Improvement in Food Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain any one method of crop production which ensures high yield.
Answer:
One method used for crop production which ensures high yield is plant breeding. It is the science involved in improving the varieties of crops by breeding plants. The plants from different areas/places are picked up with desired traits and then hybridisation or cross-breeding of these varieties is done to obtain a plant/crop of desired characteristics. The high – yielding crop variety shows the following characteristics. High yield, early maturation, less water for irrigation, better quality seeds are produced, less fertiliser required, adapts itself to the environmental conditions.

Question 2.
Why are manure and fertilisers used in fields?
Answer:
Manures and fertilisers are used in fields to enrich the soil with the required nutrients, to improve fertility of the soil, crop yield and quality. Manure helps in enriching the soil with organic matter and nutrients. This improves the fertility and structure of the soil. On the other hand, fertilisers ensure a healthy growth and development in plants. They are a good source of nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. A balanced combination of manures and fertilisers in the soil should be used to get an optimum yield.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of intercropping and crop rotation?
Answer:
Both Intercropping and crop rotation are used to get maximum benefit on limited land:

  1. Intercropping ensures maximum utilisation of the nutrients supplied by the soil. It helps in preventing pests and diseases to spread throughout the field. It also increases soil fertility.
  2. Crop rotation prevents soil depletion, increases soil fertility, and reduces soil erosion. Both these methods reduce the need for fertilisers. These also help in controlling weeds and control the growth of pathogens and pests in the crops.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources.

Question 4.
What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agricultural practices?
Answer:
Genetic manipulation is a process of incorporating desirable (genes) characters into crop varieties by hybridisation. Hybridisation involves crossing between genetically dissimilar plants. This is done for production of varieties with desirable characteristics like profuse branching in fodder crops, high – yielding varieties in maize, wheat, etc.
Genetic manipulation is useful in developing varieties which show:

  1. increased yield
  2. better quality
  3. shorter and early maturity period
  4. better adaptability to adverse environmental conditions
  5. desirable characteristics

Question 5.
How do storage grain losses occur?
Answer:
The storage grain losses can occur due to the following reasons:

  1. Biotic factors: Like insects, rodents, fungi, mites and bacteria These organisms infect the grains and degrade the quantity and quality of the grains.
  2. Abiotic factors: Various factors, like inappropriate moisture and temperature, can lead to the loss of grains and their discolouration, loss in weight, etc.

Question 6.
How do good animal husbandry practices benefit farmers?
Answer:
Good animal husbandry practices produce draught animals that can be used for the agricultural purposes like tilling, irrigation and carting. The draught animals perform these works and make the work easy for the farmer.

Question 7.
What are the benefits of cattle farming?
Answer:
Cattle farming is beneficial in the following ways:

  1. Milk production is increased by high – yielding animals.
  2. Good quality of meat, fibre and skin can be obtained.
  3. Good breed of draught animals can be obtained.

Question 8.
For increasing production, what is common in poultry, fisheries, and bee-keeping?
Answer:
Proper management technique is a common factor in increasing production in poultry, fisheries, and beekeeping. Management techniques like regular cleaning of farms are of utmost importance. Maintenance of temperature, prevention, and cure of diseases of the farmed organisms are also required to increase the number of animals and the yield.

Question 9.
How do you differentiate among capture fishing, mariculture and aquaculture?
Answer:

  1. Capture fishing is the method of obtaining fishes from natural resources.
  2. Mariculture is the culture of marine fishes for commercial use. It is the farming of marine fishes of high economic value in seawater. For example, the farming of finned fishes like mullets, bhetki, pearl spots, etc.
  3. Aquaculture involves the production of aquatic animals that are of high economic value such as prawns, lobsters, fishes, crabs, etc.

JAC Class 9 Science Solutions

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Natural Resources

JAC Board Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Natural Resources

JAC Class 9th Science Natural Resources InText Questions and Answers

Page 193

Question 1.
How is our atmosphere different from the atmospheres on Venus and Mars?
Answer:
Our atmosphere contains gases like nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, water vapour and other gases in very small amounts. Atmospheres of Venus and Mars have about 95% of carbon dioxide. So, life is not possible there.

Question 2.
How does the atmosphere act as a blanket?
Answer:
The atmosphere acts as a blanket by performing the following functions:

  1. It keeps the average temperature of the earth fairly constant during day time and even during the course of whole year. .
  2. It prevents a sudden increase in the temperature during day time.
  3. It slows down the escape of heat from the surface of the earth into outer space during night time.

Question 3.
What causes winds?
Answer:
An uneven heating of the earth’s surface causes winds. On being heated, air becomes lighter and rises up. As a result, a region of low pressure is created. Then, air from a high pressure region moves to the low pressure region, causing wind.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Natural Resources

Question 4.
How are clouds formed?
Answer:
During daytime, on being heated, a large amount of water evaporates from various water bodies and goes into the air. A part of this water vapour also reaches the atmosphere through biological activities. This causes the air in the atmosphere to heat up. When this heated air rises, it expands and cools, which results in the condensation of water vapour forming water droplets. The presence of dust and other suspended particles in air also facilitates the process of condensation. The formation of water droplets leads to the formation of clouds.

Question 5.
List any three human activities that you think would lead to air pollution.
Answer:
Three human activities which lead to air pollution are:
(a) Burning of fuels like coal, petroleum, kerosene.
(b) Smoke released from industries.
(c) Emissions from vehicles.

Page 194

Question 1.
Why do organisms need water?
Answer:
Organisms need water for the following activities:
(a) All cellular processes occur inside water.
(b) Transportation of substances in our body takes place by dissolving in water.
(c) Terrestrial animals require water for getting rid of wastes from their body.
(d) Plants require water for photosynthesis.

Question 2.
What is the major source of fresh water in the city/town/village where you live?
Answer:
The major sources of water are:
(a) Water in the form of snow, ice – covered mountains
(b) Underground water in well
(c) Surface water like in lakes, rivers, ponds
(d) Rainfall
(e) Stored rainwater in tanks, dams

Question 3.
Do you know of any activity which may be polluting this water source?
Answer:
Yes, the water is polluted by sewage, dumping waste in river, factory waste, etc.

Page 196

Question 1.
How is soil formed?
Answer:
Soil is formed by breaking down of rocks at or near the surface of the earth through various physical, chemical and biological processes by various factors such as the sun, water, wind and living organisms.
1. Sun: During day time, the rocks get heated up. This causes the rocks to expand. During night time, these rocks cool down and contract. However, all parts of the rocks do not undergo expansion and contraction at the same rate. This causes the formation of cracks and breaking up of huge rocks into smaller pieces.

2. Water: Water catalyses the process of formation of soil in two ways:

  • Water goes into the cracks and crevices formed in the rocks. When this water freezes, its volume increases. As a result, the size of the cracks also increases. This helps in the weathering of rocks.
  • Running water wears away hard rocks over long periods of time. Water moving in fast speed carries big and small particles of rocks downstream. These rocks rub against each other, resulting in breaking down of rocks. These smaller particles are carried away by running water and deposited down its path.

3. Wind: Strong winds carry away rocks, which causes rubbing of rocks. This results in the breaking down of rocks into smaller and smaller particles.

4. Living organisms: Some living organisms like lichens help in the formation of soil. Lichens also grow on rocks. During their growth, lichens release certain substances, which cause the rock surface to powder down forming a thin layer of soil. On this thin layer of soil, some small plants like moss also grow. They further cause the breaking down of the rock particles with the growth of their roots.

Question 2.
What is soil erosion?
Answer:
The removal of fertile topsoil by air, wind or water is called soil erosion.

Question 3.
What are the methods of preventing or reducing soil erosion?
Answer:
The following are some methods which can prevent or reduce soil erosion:

  1. Soil should have some vegetation, like grass, growing on it, so that it does not get carried away by rainwater or wind.
  2. Afforestation or planting of trees, so that roots hold the soil and prevent soil erosion.
  3. Overgrazing should be avoided.

Page 201

Question 1.
What are the different states in which water is found during the water cycle?
Answer:
Various states in which water is found during the water cycle are:

  1. Water in liquid state: present in various sources like lakes, rivers, underground water, etc.
  2. Water vapour (gaseous state): Water evaporates from water bodies and due to transpiration by plants.
  3. Clouds: Condensed water vapour is present in clouds.
  4. Water as rain is in liquid state while that as snowfall is in solid state.

Question 2.
Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen?
Answer:
Two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen are:

  • Amino acids
  • Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

Question 3.
List any three human activities which would lead to an increase in the carbon dioxide content of air.
Answer:
The following activities of human beings may increase carbon dioxide content of air:
(a) Burning of fuels in various processes like heating, cooking, transportation and industries.
(b) Human induced forest fires.
(c) The process of deforestation, i.e., the cutting down of trees. This decreases the uptake of carbon dioxide for photosynthesis. Eventually, the content of carbon dioxide increases.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Natural Resources

Question 4.
What is the greenhouse effect?
Answer:
Some gases like carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide prevent the escape of heat from the earth’s surface by trapping it. This increases the average temperature of the earth. This is called the greenhouse effect.

Question 5.
What are the two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere?
Answer:
Oxygen is present in free form like O2 (oxygen molecule), ozone (O3) and combined form like oxides of metals and non-metals, e.g., CO2, NO2, SO2, H2O, etc.

JAC Class 9th Science Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why is the atmosphere essential for life?
Answer:
Atmosphere is very important for sustaining life:

  1. It contains various gases like O2, CO2, N2 which are required for various life processes by plants and animals.
  2. CO2 gas is used by plants to prepare food by the process called photosynthesis
  3. Oxygen is required for burning, combustion and for respiration.
  4. Ozone layer is acting as a protective layer, which prevents the harmful U.V. rays to enter the earth’s atmosphere.
  5. C2 dissolved in water forms carbonates which are required by the animals to form shells.

Question 2.
Why is water essential for life?
Answer:
Water is essential for life because of the following reasons:

  1. All life processes that take place in the cells require water medium.
  2. Water is needed for transportation of various substances from one part of the body to the other in dissolved form.
  3. All reactions taking place within our body and within the cells occur between substances that are dissolved in water.
  4. Terrestrial life – forms require fresh water for the transportation of substances and also to get rid of high amounts of wastes.

Question 3.
How are living organisms dependent on the soil? Are organisms that live in water totally independent of soil as a resource?
Answer:
All living organisms are directly or indirectly dependent on soil. dissolved in water forms carbonates which are required by the animals to form shells.

Question 2.
Why is water essential for life?
Answer:
Water is essential for life because of the following reasons:

  1. All life processes that take place in the cells require water medium.
  2. Water is needed for transportation of various substances from one part of the body to the other in dissolved form.
  3. All reactions taking place within our body and within the cells occur between substances that are dissolved in water.
  4. Terrestrial life-forms require fresh water for the transportation of substances and also to get rid of high amounts of wastes.

Question 3.
How are living organisms dependent on the soil? Are organisms that live in water totally independent of soil as a resource?
Answer:
All living organisms are directly or indirectly dependent on soil. Plants obtain water and minerals from the soil and prepare food for themselves and animals. Other organisms that live in water are not totally independent on soil because the microbes growing on the soil in water are the primary producers in the soil which start the food chain and even other microbes that live in soil help in the decomposition of dead plants and animals in water to return the nutrients and elements back to the water.

Question 4.
You have seen weather reports on television and in newspapers. How do you think we are able to predict the weather?
Answer:
Prediction of weather can be done by studying wind patterns which decide rainfall patterns. It also shows areas of low pressure and high pressure. In large parts of India, rains are mostly. brought by the South – West or North – East monsoons.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Natural Resources

Question 5.
We know that many human activities lead to increasing levels of pollution of the air, water-bodies and soil. Do you think that isolating these activities to specific and limited areas would help in reducing pollution?
Answer:
If the human activities which lead to increasing levels of air, water and soil pollution are spread in wider area, the pollutants will spread more, but if these are limited and confined to a place, the soil and water pollution can be controlled to some extent and air pollution can also be minimised.

Question 6.
Write a note on how forests influence the quality of air, soil and water resources.
Answer:
Forests influence the quality of air, soil and water resources in various ways. Some of them are as follows:
1. Forests balance the percentage of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the atmosphere. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide caused by human activities is balanced by a larger
intake of carbon dioxide by plants during the process of photosynthesis. Simultaneously, a large amount of oxygen is released.

2. Forests prevent soil erosion. Roots of plants bind the soil tightly in a way that the surface of the soil cannot be eroded away by wind, water, etc.

3. Forests help in the replenishment of water resources. During the process of transpiration, a huge amount of water vapour goes into the air and condenses to form clouds. These clouds cause rainfall that recharges water bodies. Also, roots of plants facilitate the seepage of rainwater into the ground and help to recharge the water table.

JAC Class 9 Science Solutions

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 संविधान निर्माण

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 संविधान निर्माण

वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से उपयुक्त उत्तर चुनिए
1. विधि एवं नियमों का एक ऐसा समूह जिसके अनुसार राज्य का शासन संचालित होता है, कहलाता है
(क) संविधान
(ख) प्रस्तावना
(ग) धारा
(द) प्रारूप।
उत्तर:
(क) संविधान।

2. संविधान सभा के अध्यक्ष थे
(क) डॉ. बी. आर. अम्बेडकर
(ख) मोतीलाल नेहरू
(ग) डॉ. राजेन्द्र प्रसाद
(घ) डॉ. एस. राधाकृष्णन।
उत्तर:
(ग) डॉ. राजेन्द्र प्रसाद।

3. भारतीय संविधान के प्रारूप समिति के अध्यक्ष निम्न में से थे
(क) डॉ. राजेन्द्र प्रसाद
(ख) डॉ. बी. आर. अम्बेडकर
(ग) पं. जवाहरलाल नेहरू
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(ख) डॉ. बी. आर. अम्बेडकर।

4. भारतीय संविधान कब अस्तित्व में आया
(क) 26 जनवरी, 1950 को
(ख) 26 नवम्बर, 1949 को
(ग) 26 जनवरी 1930 को
(घ) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(क) 26 जनवरी, 1950 को।

5. दक्षिण अफ्रीका कब लोकतान्त्रिक देश बना
(क) 26 जनवरी, 1950 को
(ख) 26 अप्रैल, 1994 को
(ग) 15 अगस्त, 1947 को
(घ) 2 मई, 1963 में।
उत्तर:
(ख) 26 अप्रैल, 1994 को।

6. चुने हुए जन-प्रतिनिधियों की जो सभा संविधान लिखने का कार्य करती है, उसे कहते हैं
(क) लोक सभा
(ख) संसद
(ग) संविधान सभा
(घ) राज्य सभा।
उत्तर:
(ग) संविधान सभा।

7. दक्षिण अफ्रीका में किन लोगों के साथ भेदभाव किया जाता था?
(क) गोरे लोग
(ख) काले लोग
(ग) अमेरिकन नागरिक
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(ख) काले लोग।

अति लघूत्तरात्मक प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
दक्षिण अफ्रीका की गोरी सरकार ने किस अपराध के लिए नेल्सन मंडेला पर मुकदमा चलाया ?
उत्तर:
देशद्रोह के अपराध के लिए।

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 संविधान निर्माण

प्रश्न 2.
नेल्सन मंडेला को 28 वर्षों तक कहाँ कैद रखा गया था?
उत्तर:
नेल्सन मंडेला को 28 वर्षों तक दक्षिण अफ्रीका की सबसे बड़ी भयानक जेल रोब्बेन द्वीप में कैद रखा गया था।

प्रश्न 3.
किस वर्ष नेल्सन मंडेला को आजीवन कारावास की सजा हुई? उन्होंने कितने वर्ष जेल में बिताए?
उत्तर:
सन् 1964 में, 28 वर्ष।

प्रश्न 4.
दक्षिण अफ्रीका में ‘अश्वेत’ किसे कहा। जाता था?
उत्तर:
दक्षिण अफ्रीका के स्थानीय लोग जिनकी चमड़ी का रंग काला था उन्हें ‘अश्वेत’ कहा जाता था।

प्रश्न 5.
दक्षिण अफ्रीका में गोरी सरकार के शासन के दौरान लोगों के प्रमुख समूह कौन-कौन से थे?
उत्तर:

  1. श्वेत,
  2. काले,
  3. रंगीन (मिश्रित नस्ल),
  4. भारत से आकर वहाँ बस जाने वाले लोग।

प्रश्न 6.
रंगीन चमड़ी वाले कौन लोग थे?
उत्तर:
श्वेत, अश्वेत के अलावा मिश्रित नस्ल के लोग ‘रंगीन’ चमड़ी वाले कहे जाते थे।

प्रश्न 7.
दक्षिण अफ्रीका में रंगभेदी शासन द्वारा किये जाने वाले किन्हीं दो गलत व्यवहारों के बारे में लिखिए।
उत्तर:

  1. श्वेत शासकों द्वारा अश्वेत लोगों को अपने से हीन मानना।
  2. अश्वेत लोगों को मतदान का अधिकार नहीं देना।

प्रश्न 8.
क्या लोकतन्त्र और संविधान के मध्य कोई सम्बन्ध है?
उत्तर:
सभी देश जिनका संविधान है जरूरी नहीं कि वे लोकतान्त्रिक देश हों परन्तु सभी लोकतान्त्रिक देशों का अपना एक संविधान होता है।

प्रश्न 9.
ऐसी दो घटनाओं के नाम बताओ जिसके बाद लोकतान्त्रिक देशों में एक लिखित संविधान रखने का प्रचलन प्रारम्भ हो गया?
उत्तर:

  1. ब्रिटेन के विरुद्ध स्वतन्त्रता की लड़ाई के बाद अमेरिकी लोगों द्वारा अपने लिए संविधान तैयार किया गया।
  2. फ्रांसीसी क्रान्ति के पश्चात् फ्रांस के लोगों ने एक लोकतान्त्रिक संविधान को मान्यता दी।

प्रश्न 10.
भारतीय रियासतों के विलय में निर्णायक भूमिका किसने निभायी?
उत्तर:
वल्लभभाई झावरभाई पटेल ने।

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 संविधान निर्माण

प्रश्न 11.
विदेशी शासन से स्वतन्त्रता के अलावा भारतीय स्वतन्त्रता संघर्ष के क्या अन्य उद्देश्य थे?
उत्तर:

  1. भारतीय समाज को जागृत करना,
  2. समाज और राजनीति को बदलना।

प्रश्न 12.
कब और किस व्यक्ति/व्यक्तियों के द्वारा प्रथम बार भारत के संविधान की एक रूपरेखा तैयार की गई थी?
उत्तर:
सन् 1928 ई. में मोतीलाल नेहरू तथा आठ अन्य कांग्रेसी नेताओं ने प्रथम बार भारत के संविधान की एक रूपरेखा तैयार की थी।

प्रश्न 13.
भारतीय संविधान के सन्दर्भ में करांची में आयोजित कांग्रेस अधिवेशन का क्या महत्व था?
उत्तर:
कांग्रेस के करांची अधिवेशन में ही यह चर्चा की गई थी कि स्वतन्त्र भारत का संविधान कैसा होगा।

प्रश्न 14.
मोतीलाल नेहरू द्वारा निर्मित संवैधानिक रूपरेखा एवं सन् 1931 ई. के करांची कांग्रेस अधिवेशन में किन आधारभूत संवैधानिक मूल्यों को स्वीकार किया गया था?
उत्तर:

  1. सार्वभौमिक वयस्क मताधिकार,
  2. समानता का अधिकार,
  3. स्वतन्त्रता का अधिकार,
  4. अल्पसंख्यकों के अधिकारों की सुरक्षा।

प्रश्न 15.
नई राजनीतिक संस्थाओं का स्वरूप तय करने में किससे मदद मिली?
उत्तर:
औपनिवेशिक शासन की राजनीतिक संस्थाओं एवं व्यवस्थाओं को जानने-समझने से भी नई राजनीतिक संस्थाओं का स्वरूप तय करने में मदद मिली।

प्रश्न 16.
एक उदाहरण द्वारा बताइए कि भारतीय संविधान में किस औपनिवेशिक कानून को भी सम्मिलित किया गया था? बताइए।
उत्तर:
भारत सरकार कानून, 19351

प्रश्न 17.
कुछ ऐसी विदेशी बातों के नाम बताइए जिनसे हमारे अनेक नेता प्रभावित थे।
उत्तर:

  1. फ्रांसीसी क्रान्ति द्वारा स्थापित आदर्श,
  2. ब्रिटेन में प्रचलित संसदीय लोकतान्त्रिक व्यवस्था,
  3. संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका के अधिकारों की सूची।

प्रश्न 18.
रूस में हुई समाजवादी क्रान्ति ने किस तरह अनेक भारतीय नेताओं को प्रभावित किया?
उत्तर:
रूसी क्रान्ति ने भारतीय नेताओं को एक ऐसे समाज के निर्माण के लिए प्रेरित किया जो सामाजिक एवं आर्थिक समानता पर आधारित हो।

प्रश्न 19.
भारतीय संविधान सभा के लिए कब चुनाव हुए थे?
उत्तर:
जुलाई 1946 ई. में।

प्रश्न 20.
संविधान सभा की प्रथम बैठक कब
उत्तर:
9 दिसम्बर 1946 ई. में।

प्रश्न 21.
भारतीय संविधान लिखने वाली सभा में कितने सदस्य थे?
उत्तर:
299 सदस्य।

प्रश्न 22.
भारतीय संविधान का लेखन कार्य कब पूर्ण हुआ?
उत्तर:
26 नवम्बर, 1949 ई. को।

प्रश्न 23.
संविधान सभा का चुनाव किस प्रकार हुआ?
उत्तर:
संविधान सभा का चुनाव भारत की जनता द्वारा प्रत्यक्ष रूप से नहीं हुआ था। इसका चुनाव तत्कालीन | प्रान्तीय विधानसभाओं के सदस्यों द्वारा किया गया था।

प्रश्न 24.
संविधान सभा के उपाध्यक्ष कौन थे?
उत्तर’:
एच. सी. मुखर्जी।

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 संविधान निर्माण

प्रश्न 25.
संविधान सभा में हुई बहस, प्रस्ताव ‘ आदि को किस नाम से व कितने खण्डों में प्रकाशित किया गया?
उत्तर:
संविधान सभा में हुई बहस, प्रस्ताव आदि को कांस्टीट्यूएंट असेम्बली डिबेट्स नाम से 12 मोटे-मोटे खण्डों में प्रकाशित किया गया।

प्रश्न 26.
हमारे संविधान का दर्शन संविधान के किस भाग में है?
उत्तर:
प्रस्तावना में।

प्रश्न 27.
उस देश का नाम बताइए जहाँ से भारतीय संविधान की प्रस्तावना का विचार लिया गया है।
उत्तर:
संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका।

प्रश्न 28.
संविधान की प्रस्तावना को अन्य किस नाम से भी जाना जाता है?
उत्तर:
उद्देशिका के नाम से।

प्रश्न 29.
प्रस्तावना की शुरुआत ‘हम भारत के लोग से होता है। यहाँ पर ‘हम’ शब्द का प्रयोग क्यों किया गया है?
उत्तर:
इसका अभिप्राय है कि भारत के संविधान का निर्माण और अधिनियमन भारत के लोगों ने अपने प्रतिनिधियों के माध्यम से किया है न कि इसे किसी राजा अथवा बाहरी शक्ति द्वारा उन पर आरोपित किया गया है।

प्रश्न 30.
प्रभुत्व सम्पन्न शब्द से क्या अभिप्राय
उत्तर:
प्रभुत्व सम्पन्न शब्द से अभिप्राय है कि भारतीय जनता को अपने से जुड़े प्रत्येक मामले में फैसला करने का सर्वोच्च अधिकार है। कोई भी बाहरी शक्ति भारत की सरकार को आदेश नहीं दे सकती।

प्रश्न 31.
पंथनिरपेक्ष शब्द से क्या अभिप्राय है?
उत्तर:
पंथनिरपेक्ष शब्द से अभिप्राय भारतीय नागरिकों को किसी भी धर्म को मानने की पूर्ण स्वतन्त्रता है लेकिन कोई धर्म राजकीय नहीं है। सरकार सभी धार्मिक मान्यताओं और आचरणों को समान महत्व देती है।

प्रश्न 32.
भारतीय संविधान की उद्देशिका में दिए गए गणराज्य शब्द का क्या अभिप्राय है?
उत्तर:
भारतीय संविधान की उद्देशिका में दिए गए गणराज्य शब्द का अभिप्राय शासन का प्रमुख लोगों द्वारा चुना हुआ व्यक्ति होगा न कि किसी वंश या राज परिवार का।

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 संविधान निर्माण

प्रश्न 33.
भारतीय संविधान की मूल प्रस्तावना में भारत को एक कैसा गणराज्य घोषित किया गया है?
उत्तर:
भारतीय संविधान की मूल प्रस्तावना में भारत को एक प्रभुत्व-सम्पन्न, सम्पूर्ण लोकतन्त्रात्मक गणराज्य घोषित किया गया है।

प्रश्न 34.
संविधान सभा के किन्हीं दो प्रमुख लोगों के नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर:

  1. एच. सी. मुखर्जी,
  2. टी. टी. कृष्णामाचारी।

लघूत्तरात्मक प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
दक्षिण अफ्रीका की रंगभेदी श्वेत सरकार द्वारा उठाये गये कुछ भेदभावपूर्ण एवं दमनकारी कदमों के बारे में संक्षेप में बताइए।
उत्तर:
दक्षिण अफ्रीका की रंगभेदी श्वेत सरकार ने निम्न भेदभाव पूर्ण दमनकारी कदम उठाए

  1. दक्षिणी अफ्रीका की रंगभेदी सरकार ने जनता को आपस में बाँट दिया तथा उनकी त्वचा के आधार पर उन्हें गोरे, काले एवं मिश्रित वर्गों में बाँट दिया।
  2. अश्वेत लोगों को श्वेत इलाकों में रहने की मनाही थी। वे उन इलाकों में काम भी तभी कर सकते थे जब इसका अधिकार पत्र उनके पास होता था।
  3. अश्वेतों को संगठन बनाने एवं भेदभावपूर्ण व्यवहार का विरोध करने का भी अधिकार नहीं था।
  4. अश्वेत लोगों के लिए अलग बस, रेलगाड़ी, टैक्सी, अस्पताल, होटल, कॉलेज, पुस्तकालय, सिनेमाघर, विद्यालय, नाट्य गृह, समुद्र तट, तरणताल व सार्वजनिक शौचालय आदि की व्यवस्था की गई थी।

प्रश्न 2.
दक्षिण अफ्रीका के शासकों के पृथक्करण इंतजाम क्या थे?
उत्तर:
रंगभेद की शासकीय नीति दक्षिण अफ्रीका के अश्वेत, रंगीन चमड़ी वाले तथा भारत से गये लोगों के लिए दमनकारी थी। उन्हें गोरों की बस्तियों में रहने की इजाजत नहीं थी। वहाँ काम के लिए जाने हेतु उन्हें परमिट लेना पड़ता था। रेलगाड़ी, बस, स्कूल, कॉलेज, पुस्तकालय, सिनेमाघर, नाट्यगृह, समुद्रतट, शौचालय, तरणताल आदि सार्वजनिक स्थानों पर गोरों एवं काले लोगों के लिए अलग-अलग इंतजाम थे, इसी को पृथक्करण या अलग-अलग करने का इंतजाम कहा जाता था।

प्रश्न 3.
दक्षिण अफ्रीका में रंगभेद के विरुद्ध अश्वेत, रंगीन चमड़ी वाले एवं भारतीय मूल के लोगों द्वारा किये गये संघर्ष को संक्षेप में बताइए।
उत्तर:
दक्षिण अफ्रीका में रंगभेद के विरुद्ध अश्वेत, रंगीन चमड़ी वाले एवं भारतीय मूल के लोगों ने सन् 1950 ई. से ही संघर्ष प्रारम्भ कर दिया। उन्होंने विरोध प्रदर्शन किए तथा हड़तालें आयोजित की। अफ्रीकी नेशनल कांग्रेस द्वारा अलगाव की भेदभावपूर्ण नीति के विरुद्ध लड़ाई लड़ी गई। अफ्रीकी नेशनल कांग्रेस को बहुत से मजदूर संगठनों एवं कम्युनिस्ट दलों का समर्थन प्राप्त था। कई संवेदनशील श्वेत लोगों ने भी रंगभेद नीति का विरोध करने में अफ्रीकी नेशनल कांग्रेस का साथ दिया और उसके संघर्ष में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभायी।

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 संविधान निर्माण

प्रश्न 4.
दक्षिण अफ्रीका में लोकतान्त्रिक सरकार की स्थापना कब हुई ? अश्वेत नेताओं ने अपने साथियों से क्या अपील की? उनका उद्देश्य क्या था?
उत्तर:
दक्षिण अफ्रीका में लोकतान्त्रिक सरकार की स्थापना 26 अप्रैल, 1994 ई. को हुई। अश्वेत नेताओं ने अपने साथियों से अपील की थी कि श्वेत शासन के दौरान गोरे लोगों द्वारा उन पर किये गये अत्याचारों को भूलकर उन्हें माफ कर दें। उनका उद्देश्य ऐसे नये दक्षिण अफ्रीका का निर्माण करना था जो समस्त नस्लों, स्त्री-पुरुष की समानता, लोकतान्त्रिक मूल्यों, सामाजिक न्याय एवं मानवाधिकारों पर आधारित हो। दक्षिण अफ्रीकी संविधान की प्रस्तावना इस भावना को बहुत सुन्दरता से व्यक्त करती है।

प्रश्न 5.
संविधान के क्या कार्य हैं? संक्षेप में बताइए।
उत्तर:
संविधान के निम्नलिखित कार्य हैं:

  1. संविधान सहयोग और विश्वास की वह भावना पैदा करता है जो विभिन्न तरह के लोगों के साथ मिल-जुलकर रहने के लिए जरूरी है।
  2. यह स्पष्ट करता है कि किस तरह सरकार का गठन होगा और किसे फैसला लेने का अधिकार प्राप्त होगा।
  3. यह सरकार की शक्तियों की सीमा तय करता है और हमें जनता के अधिकारों के बारे में बताता है।
  4. यह लोगों की एक अच्छे समाज के निर्माण की आकांक्षाओं को व्यक्त करता है।

प्रश्न 6.
दक्षिण अफ्रीका की ही तरह भारत का संविधान भी बहुत कठिन परिस्थितियों के बीच बना। यह कठिन परिस्थितियाँ कौन-कौन सी थीं? बताइए।
उत्तर:
कठिन परिस्थितियाँ निम्नलिखित थीं

  1. भारत एक विशाल एवं वैविध्यपूर्ण देश है। इसकी जनता लम्बे वर्षों तक बनी रही अपनी गुलाम की हैसियत से बाहर निकलकर स्वतन्त्र नागरिक बनने जा रही थी।
  2. इस देश का निर्माण किसी सामान्य परिस्थिति में नहीं बल्कि एक खूनी विभाजन के द्वारा हुआ जिसमें लाखों लोग मारे गये।
  3. अंग्रेजों ने जाते-जाते हालात और खराब कर दिये क्योंकि उन्होंने देशी रियासतों को भारत या पाकिस्तान में अपना विलय करने अथवा स्वतन्त्र रहने की इजाजत दे दी थी।

प्रश्न 7.
संविधान से आप क्या समझते हैं? इसे नियमित रूप से संशोधित करने की आवश्यकता क्यों होती
उत्तर:
संविधान देश का सर्वोच्च कानून होता है जिसमें देश में राजनीति और समाज को व्यवस्थित करने वाले मौलिक नियम होते हैं। संविधान एक लम्बा एवं विस्तृत दस्तावेज होता है इसलिए जनता की इच्छा एवं बदली हुई सामाजिक परिस्थितियों के अनुरूप इसे संशोधित करते रहने की आवश्यकता होती है।

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 संविधान निर्माण

प्रश्न 8.
भारतीय संविधान की प्रस्तावना में प्रयुक्त निम्न शब्दों की व्याख्या कीजिए
1. लोकतन्त्रात्मक,
2. न्याय,
3. स्वतन्त्रता।
उत्तर:

  1. लोकतन्त्रात्मक-यह सरकार के एक ऐसे स्वरूप का सूचक है जिसमें जनता को समान राजनीतिक अधिकार प्राप्त हैं, वे अपने शासकों का चुनाव करते हैं और उसे जवाबदेह बनाते हैं। सरकार को कुछ मौलिक नियमों के अनुसार चलाया जाता है।
  2. न्याय-न्याय से तात्पर्य जनता के साथ जाति, धर्म या लिंग के आधार पर कोई भेदभाव नहीं किया जायेगा।
  3. स्वतन्त्रता-इसका अभिप्राय है कि जनता की सोच, उनके विचार व्यक्त करने के तरीके एवं वह विचार को किस तरह कार्य रूप देती है। इस पर सरकार अकारण कोई अनुचित पाबन्दी नहीं लगायेगी।

प्रश्न 9.
भारतीय संविधान की उद्देशिका में प्रयुक्त निम्नलिखित शब्दों की संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए
1. समाजवादी,
2. समता,
3. बंधुता।
उत्तर:

  1. समाजवादी समाजवादी शब्द से अभिप्राय समाज की सामूहिक सम्पत्ति का बँटवारा समानता के साथ होना चाहिए। सरकार इस तरह के नियम बनाए जिससे कि देश में सामाजिक-आर्थिक असमानताएँ कम हों।
  2. समता-इसका अभिप्राय है कि सभी लोग कानून के समक्ष समान हैं पहले से चली आ रही सामाजिक असमानताओं को समाप्त किया जाना है। सरकार को सभी को समान अवसर उपलब्ध कराना होगा।
  3. बंधुता-इसका अभिप्राय है कि हम सभी को ऐसा व्यवहार करना चाहिए जैसे कि हम सब एक ही परिवार के सदस्य हों। किसी को भी अपने साथी नागरिक के साथ बुरा व्यवहार नहीं करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 10.
हमें संविधान की आवश्यकता क्यों है? संक्षेप में बताइए।
उत्तर:

  1. संविधान देश का सर्वोच्च कानून है जिसके द्वारा समाज के विभिन्न लोगों में समन्वय किया जाता है।
  2. संविधान लोकतान्त्रिक शासन प्रणाली के लिए आवश्यक होता है।
  3. संविधान सरकार की शक्ति व सत्ता का स्रोत है।
  4. संविधान सरकार और नागरिकों के आपसी सम्बन्धों को निर्धारित करता है।
  5. संविधान सरकार की शक्तियों पर सीमाएँ लगाता है।

प्रश्न 11.
भारतीय संविधान सभा का गठन किस प्रकार हुआ?
उत्तर:
भारतीय संविधान सभा के गठन के लिए जुलाई 1946 में चुनाव हुए थे। इन चुनावों में प्रांतीय असेंबलियों के सदस्यों ने वोट देकर संविधान सभा के सदस्यों को चुना था। इस सभा का गठन डॉ. राजेन्द्र प्रसाद की अध्यक्षता में किया गया था। संविधान सभा की प्रथम बैठक दिसम्बर 1946 में हुई थी।

भारतीय संविधान के निर्माण में डॉ. बी. आर. अम्बेडकर का विशेष योगदान रहा, वे प्रारूप समिति के अध्यक्ष थे। 26 जनवरी, 1949 को संविधान निर्माण का कार्य पूर्ण हो गया। संविधान लिखने वाली सभा में 299 सदस्य थे। डॉ. राजेन्द्र प्रसाद के हस्ताक्षर के पश्चात् 26 जनवरी, 1950 को यह सम्पूर्ण देश में लागू कर दिया गया।

प्रश्न 12.
भारत एक पंथ निरपेक्ष देश है, सिद्ध कीजिए।
उत्तर:
पंथ निरपेक्ष वह देश होता है, जहाँ नागरिकों को कोई भी धर्म अपनाने की स्वतन्त्रता हो एवं उस देश का कोई राजकीय धर्म नहीं होता।
भारत में सभी नागरिकों को कोई भी धर्म अपनाने की स्वतन्त्रता है एवं यहाँ कोई राजकीय धर्म नहीं है। भारत सरकार सभी धर्मों के विश्वासों एवं रीति-रिवाजों को समान महत्व देती है। भारतीय संविधान ने ऐसी व्यवस्था की है जो देश में रहने वाले हिन्दू, मुस्लिम, सिख, ईसाई, बौद्ध, जैन, पारसी आदि किसी भी धर्म को मानने वालों के साथ किसी भी प्रकार का भेदभाव नहीं किया जाएगा।

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 संविधान निर्माण

प्रश्न 13.
26 जनवरी 1950 को ही संविधान को क्यों लागू किया गया?
उत्तर:
संविधान निर्माण सभा द्वारा संविधान को 26 नवम्बर सन् 1949 को पारित कर दिया गया था परन्तु यह 26 जनवरी 1950 को लागू किया गया। इसके पीछे कारण यह था कि बीस वर्ष पूर्व 1929 दिसम्बर में लाहौर अधिवेशन में भारतीय नेशनल कांग्रेस ने पूर्ण स्वराज्य प्राप्त करने का प्रण लिया और 26 जनवरी, 1930 को पहली बार तथा उसके उपरान्त हर वर्ष जनवरी महीने की 26 तारीख को पूरे देश में स्वतन्त्रता दिवस मनाया जाता था। यही कारण है कि 26 जनवरी के महत्व को बनाये रखने के लिये इसे 26 जनवरी सन् 1950 को लागू किया गया।

निबन्धात्मक प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
संविधान की आवश्यकता एवं संविधान क्या करता है, को दक्षिण अफ्रीका का उदाहरण देकर समझाइए।
उत्तर:
संविधान की आवश्यकता एवं संविधान क्या करता है, को हम दक्षिण अफ्रीका के उदाहरण से निम्न प्रकार समझ सकते हैं
1. दक्षिण अफ्रीका एक नवीन लोकतन्त्र था वहाँ दमनकारियों तथा दमन सहने वाले लोगों का समानता के आधार पर साथ रहना कठिन था। बहुसंख्यक अश्वेत लोग चाहते थे कि बहुमत के शासन के साथ कोई समझौता न हो जबकि अल्पसंख्यक श्वेत लोग अपने विशेषाधिकारों एवं सम्पत्ति को बचाना चाहते थे।

2. लम्बे दौर तक चली बातचीत के पश्चात् दोनों पक्ष समझौते का रास्ता अपनाने को तैयार हो गये। श्वेत लोगों ने बहुमत के शासन के सिद्धान्त एवं एक व्यक्ति एक वोट तथा गरीबों और मजदूरों के लिए कुछ मौलिक अधिकारों की माँग को स्वीकार कर लिया। जबकि अश्वेत लोगों ने यह स्वीकार कर लिया कि केवल बहुमत के आधार पर समस्त फैसले नहीं होंगे। ये इस बात पर भी सहमत हुए कि बहुमत द्वारा श्वेत अल्पसंख्यकों की सम्पत्ति जब्त नहीं होगी।

3. लेकिन श्वेत व अश्वेत दोनों समुदायों को एक-दूसरे पर विश्वास कर पाना इतना आसान नहीं था। इस बात की कोई गारण्टी नहीं थी कि यह समझौता भविष्य में कभी नहीं टूटेगा।

4. ऐसी स्थिति में एक-दूसरे पर भरोसा बनाने और बरकरार रखने के लिए कुछ नियमों का लिखा जाना जरूरी था जिन्हें सभी लोग मान सकें। इन नियमों से भविष्य में किस तरह से सरकार चुनी जायेगी, चुनी हुई सरकार क्या-क्या कर सकती है और क्या-क्या नहीं कर सकती आदि की चर्चा की गई।

5. इन्हीं लिखित नियमों में नागरिकों के अधिकार भी होते हैं। पर ये नियम तभी काम कर सकेंगे जब चुनाव जीतकर आने वाले लोग इन्हें आसानी से एवं मनमाने ढंग से नहीं बदलें। दक्षिण अफ्रीकी जनता ने इन्हीं नियमों का इन्तजाम किया, वे कुछ मौलिक नियमों पर सहमत हुए। वे इस बात पर भी सहमत हुए कि ये नियम सबसे ऊपर होंगे और कोई भी सरकार इनकी उपेक्षा नहीं कर सकती। इन्हीं मौलिक नियमों के लिखित रूप को संविधान कहा जाता है।

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 संविधान निर्माण

प्रश्न 2.
भारतीय संविधान सभा द्वारा आजादी के समय बनाये गये संविधान को हम आज तक क्यों मानते हैं ?
उत्तर:
भारतीय संविधान सभा द्वारा लगभग 70 वर्ष पहले बनाये गये संविधान को हम आज तक मानते आ रहे हैं। इसका पहला कारण यह है कि हमारा संविधान सिर्फ संविधान सभा के सदस्यों के विचारों को ही व्यक्त नहीं करता है, बल्कि यह अपने समय की व्यापक सहमतियों को व्यक्त करता है।

दुनिया के कई देशों में संविधान फिर से लिखे गये हैं लेकिन यहाँ ऐसा नहीं हुआ। यहाँ संविधान के कुछ प्रावधानों पर तो कुछ वर्गों ने सवाल उठाये हैं लेकिन संविधान वैधता पर किसी ने सवाल नहीं उठाये हैं यह हमारे संविधान की असाधारण उपलब्धि है। संविधान को मानने का दूसरा कारण यह है कि संविधान सभा भी भारत के लोगों का ही प्रतिनिधित्व कर रही थी।

उस समय सार्वभौमिक वयस्क मताधिकार नहीं था अतः इसका चयन प्रत्यक्ष चुनाव द्वारा न होकर प्रांतीय असेंबलियों के सदस्यों द्वारा किया गया। लेकिन फिर भी इसके सदस्यों के चयन में सभी भौगोलिक क्षेत्रों, सामाजिक समूहों, जाति, वर्ग, धर्म और पेशा के लोगों को स्थान दिया गया, जिससे कि सभी का उचित प्रतिनिधित्व हो सके।

अंततः जिस तरह संविधान सभा ने काम किया वह संविधान को एक प्रकार से पवित्रता एवं वैधता देता है संविधान सभा का काम काफी व्यवस्थित, खुला और सर्वसम्मति पर आधारित था। यही कारण है कि हम अपने संविधान को आज भी उसी प्रकार मानते आ रहे हैं। जिस प्रकार इसे बनाने के समय मानते थे।

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

Jharkhand Board Class 11 History तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य In-text Questions and Answers

पृष्ठ 63

प्रश्न 1.
रोमन साम्राज्य के राजनीतिक इतिहास में कौन तीन मुख्य खिलाड़ी थे? प्रत्येक के बारे में एक-दो पंक्तियाँ लिखिए।
उत्तर:
रोमन साम्राज्य के राजनीतिक इतिहास में तीन मुख्य खिलाड़ी – रोमन साम्राज्य के राजनीतिक इतिहास में निम्नलिखित तीन मुख्य खिलाड़ी थे –
(1) सम्राट्
(2) सैनेट
(3) सेना।

(1) सम्राट्-सम्राट् साम्राज्य का एकछत्र शासक और सत्ता का वास्तविक स्रोत था। वह एक ‘प्रमुख नागरिक’ कहलाता था। ऐसा ‘सैनेट’ को सम्मान प्रदान करने के लिए किया गया था।
(2) सैनेट – सैनेट में धनी परिवारों के एक छोटे से समूह का बोलबाला रहता था, जिन्हें ‘अभिजात’ कहा जाता था। रोम में सैनेट का अस्तित्व कई शताब्दियों तक रहा। इसमें कुलीन एवं अभिजात वर्गों के लोगों का प्रतिनिधित्व था, परन्तु कालान्तर में इतालवी मूल के जमींदारों को भी सम्मिलित कर लिया गया। जब रोम में एक ‘गणतन्त्र’ था, तब सत्ता पर सैनेट का नियन्त्रण था। सम्राटों की परख इस बात से की जाती थी कि वे सैनेट के प्रति किस प्रकार का व्यवहार करते थे।
(3) सेना – रोम की सेना एक व्यावसायिक सेना थी जिसमें प्रत्येक सैनिक को वेतन दिया जाता था। सेना साम्राज्य की सबसे बड़ी एकल संगठित निकाय थी और उसके पास सम्राटों का भाग्य निर्धारित करने की शक्ति थी।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

प्रश्न 2.
रोमन सम्राट् अपने इतने बड़े साम्राज्य पर शासन कैसे कर लेता था ? इसके लिए किसका सहयोग महत्त्वपूर्ण था ?
उत्तर:
सम्पूर्ण रोमन साम्राज्य में दूर-दूर तक अनेक नगर स्थापित किये गए थे जिनके माध्यम से समस्त साम्राज्य पर नियन्त्रण रखा जाता था। भूमध्य सागर के तटों पर स्थापित बड़े शहरी केन्द्र जैसे कार्थेज, सिकन्दरिया तथा एंटिऑक आदि साम्राज्यिक प्रणाली के मूल आधार थे। इन्हीं शहरों के माध्यम से रोमन सरकार प्रान्तीय ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों पर कर लगाने में सफल हो पाती थी, जिनसे साम्राज्य को अधिकांश धन-सम्पत्ति प्राप्त होती थी।

इस प्रकार स्थानीय उच्च वर्ग रोमन साम्राज्य को कर वसूली तथा अपने क्षेत्रों के प्रशासन के कार्य में महत्त्वपूर्ण सहयोग देते थे। दूसरी और तीसरी शताब्दियों में अधिकतर प्रशासक तथा सैनिक अधिकारी इन्हीं उच्च प्रान्तीय वर्गों में से होते थे। इस प्रकार उनका एक नया संभ्रांत वर्ग बन गया जो सैनेट के सदस्यों की तुलना में कहीं अधिक शक्तिशाली था, क्योंकि उसे सम्राटों का समर्थन प्राप्त था।

पृष्ठ 66

क्रियाकलाप 2 : रोमन साम्राज्य में ‘स्त्रियाँ’ कहाँ तक आत्मनिर्भर थीं? रोमन परिवार की स्थिति की तुलना आज के भारतीय परिवार की स्थिति से करो।
उत्तर:
रोमन साम्राज्य में स्त्रियाँ काफी आत्मनिर्भर थीं। स्त्री अपने पति को अपनी सम्पत्ति हस्तान्तरित नहीं करती थी। वह अपने पैतृक परिवार में अपने पूरे अधिकार बनाए रखती थी। यद्यपि महिला का दहेज वैवाहिक अवधि के दौरान उसके पति के पास चला जाता था, किन्तु महिला अपने पिता की मुख्य उत्तराधिकारी बनी रहती थी और अपने पिता की मृत्यु के उपरान्त उसकी सम्पत्ति की स्वतन्त्र मालिक बन जाती थी। इस प्रकार रोम की स्त्रियों को सम्पत्ति के स्वामित्व तथा संचालन में अनेक कानूनी अधिकार प्राप्त थे। कानून के अनुसार पति-पत्नी को संयुक्त रूप से एक वित्तीय हस्ती नहीं, बल्कि अलग-अलग दो वित्तीय हस्तियाँ माना जाता था तथा पत्नी को पूर्ण कानूनी स्वतन्त्रता प्राप्त थी। रोम में तलाक देना अपेक्षाकृत सरल था।

रोमन परिवार की स्थिति की वर्तमान भारतीय परिवार की स्थिति से तुलना –
(i) एकल परिवार के स्वरूप में अन्तर – रोमन समाज में एकल परिवार का व्यापक रूप से चलन था। वयस्क पुत्र अपने पिता के परिवार के साथ नहीं रहते थे। वयस्क भाई भी बहुत कम साझे परिवार में रहते थे। दूसरी ओर, दासों को परिवार में सम्मिलित किया जाता था क्योंकि रोमवासियों के लिए परिवार की यही अवधारणा थी। वर्तमान भारत में भी एकल परिवार का व्यापक चलन है अधिकांश वयस्क पुरुष एकल परिवार में रहना पसन्द करते हैं। परन्तु वे अपने परिवारों में दासों को सम्मिलित नहीं करते।

(ii) स्त्रियों की आत्मनिर्भरता सम्बन्धी अन्तर – रोमन साम्राज्य में स्त्रियाँ काफी आत्मनिर्भर थीं। यद्यपि शहरों में रहने वाली भारतीय महिलाएँ कुछ सीमा तक आत्मनिर्भर हैं, परन्तु उनकी संख्या काफी सीमित है। ग्रामीण स्त्रियाँ पूरी तरह से पुरुषों पर निर्भर रहती हैं।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

(iii) विवाह सम्बन्धी अन्तर – रोम में पुरुष 28-29, 30-32 की आयु में विवाह करते थे तथा लड़कियाँ 16-18 तथा 22-23 की आयु में विवाह करती थीं। परन्तु भारत में 18 वर्ष के लड़के तथा लड़की को वयस्क माना जाता है। 18 वर्ष से कम आयु की लड़की को विवाह करने का वैधानिक अधिकार प्राप्त नहीं है। भारत में शहरों में रहने वाले पुरुष प्रायः 25-26 वर्ष की आयु में तथा लड़कियाँ प्राय: 22-23 वर्ष की आयु में विवाह करना पसन्द करते हैं। फिर भी स्त्रियों को अनेक सामाजिक और आर्थिक विषमताओं का सामना करना पड़ता है1

(iv) तलाक सम्बन्धी अन्तर – रोम में तलाक देना अपेक्षाकृत सरल था, परन्तु भारतीय महिलाओं के लिए तलाक देने की प्रक्रिया काफी जटिल है।

(v) पति – पत्नी सम्बन्ध सम्बन्धी तुलना-रोम में महिलाओं पर उनके पतियों का प्रभुत्व रहता था और वे प्रायः अपनी पत्नियों की पिटाई करते थे। पिताओं का अपने बच्चों पर अत्यधिक कानूनी नियन्त्रण होता था। अवांछित बच्चों के मामले में उन्हें जीवित रखने या मार डालने का कानूनी अधिकार प्राप्त था। यद्यपि वर्तमान भारतीय परिवारों में भी पुरुषों. की प्रधानता स्थापित है, परन्तु प्रायः पुरुष अपनी पत्नियों की पिटाई करना पसन्द नहीं करते। उनका अपने बच्चों पर कानूनी नियन्त्रण भी नहीं होता है अर्थात् अवांछित बच्चों के मामले में उन्हें अपने बच्चों को मार डालने का कानूनी अधिकार प्राप्त नहीं है।

पृष्ठ 67

क्रियाकलाप 3 : मिट्टी के बर्तनों के अवशेषों पर काम करने वाले पुरातत्त्वविद् बहुत कुछ जासूसों की तरह होते हैं। क्यों? स्पष्ट करो। ‘एम्फोरा’ हमें रोमन काल के भूमध्यसागरीय क्षेत्र के आर्थिक जन-जीवन के बारे में क्या बताते हैं?
उत्तर:
मिट्टी के बर्तनों के अवशेषों पर काम करने वाले पुरातत्त्वविद् बहुत कुछ जासूसों की तरह होते हैं। शराब, जैतून का तेल तथा अन्य तरल पदार्थों की ढुलाई ऐसे मटकों या कंटेनरों में होती थी जिन्हें ‘एम्फोरा’ कहते थे। इन मटकों के टूटे हुए टुकड़े बहुत बड़ी संख्या में अभी भी विद्यमान हैं।

पुरातत्त्वविद् इन टुकड़ों को ठीक से जोड़कर इन कंटेनरों को फिर से सही रूप देने और यह पता लगाने में सफल हुए हैं कि उनमें क्या-क्या ले जाया जाता था। इसके अतिरिक्त, प्राप्त वस्तुओं की मिट्टी का भूमध्यसागरीय क्षेत्रों में उपलब्ध चिकनी मिट्टी के नमूनों के साथ मिलाने करके पुरातत्त्वविद् हमें उनके निर्माण-स्थल के बारे में जानकारी देने में सफल हुए हैं। इसी प्रकार जासूस विभिन्न साक्ष्यों को इकट्ठा कर, उनका विश्लेषण कर अज्ञात एवं रहस्यात्मक तथ्यों का पता लगा लेते हैं।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

भूमध्यसागरीय क्षेत्र में अनेक खुदाई के स्थलों पर पाए गए भिन्न-भिन्न प्रकार के एम्फोरा पात्रों के अवशेषों और उनके मिलने के स्थानों के आधार पर पुरातत्त्वविद् यह बताने में सफल हुए हैं कि स्पेन के जैतून के तेल के उत्पाद अपने इतालवी प्रतिद्वन्द्वियों से तेल का बाजार छीनने में सफल हुए।

बाद में उत्तरी अफ्रीका के उत्पादकों ने स्पेन के जैतून के तेल के उत्पादकों जैसा स्थान प्राप्त कर लिया और तीसरी तथा चौथी शताब्दियों के अधिकांश भाग में इनका उस क्षेत्र में वर्चस्व रहा। दूसरे शब्दों में, भिन्न-भिन्न प्रदेशों के जमींदार एवं उत्पादक अलग-अलग वस्तुओं का बाजार हथियाने क लिए आपस में प्रतिस्पर्द्धा करते थे। पुरातत्त्वविदों की भाँति जासूस भी विभिन्न घटनाओं के साक्ष्यों को इकट्ठा कर, उनका विश्लेषण कर निष्कर्ष निकाल लेते हैं।

पृष्ठ 70

क्रियाकलाप 4: इस अध्याय में तीन ऐसे लेखकों का उल्लेख किया गया है जिनकी रचनाओं का प्रयोग यह बताने के लिए किया गया है कि रोम के लोग अपने कामगारों के साथ कैसा बर्ताव करते थे? क्या आप उनके नाम बता सकते हैं? उस अनुभाग को स्वयं फिर से पढ़िए और उन दो तरीकों का वर्णन कीजिए जिनकी सहायता से रोम के लोग अपने श्रमिकों पर नियन्त्रण रखते थे।
उत्तर:
रोमन लोगों का अपने कामगारों के साथ बर्ताव – निम्नलिखित तीन लेखकों कोलूमेल्ला, वरिष्ठ प्लिनी तथा आगस्टीन ने अपनी रचनाओं में यह बताया है कि रोम के लोग अपने कामगारों के साथ कैसा बर्ताव करते थे।

(1) कोलूमेल्ला (निरीक्षण द्वारा श्रमिकों पर नियन्त्रण) – दक्षिणी स्पेन से आए पहली शताब्दी के लेखक कोलूमेल्ला ने सिफारिश की थी कि जमींदारों को अपनी आवश्यकता से दुगुनी संख्या में उपकरणों तथा औजारों का सुरक्षित भण्डार रखना चाहिए जिससे उत्पादन निरन्तर होता रहे क्योंकि दास सम्बन्धी श्रम- समय की हानि ऐसी मदों की लागत से अधिक बैठती है।

मालिकों की यह आम धारणा थी कि निरीक्षण बिना कभी भी कोई काम ठीक से नहीं करवाया जा सकता। इसलिए मुक्त तथा दास दोनों प्रकार के श्रमिकों के लिए निरीक्षण सर्वाधिक महत्त्वपूर्ण पक्ष था। निरीक्षण को सरल बनाने के लिए कामगारों को कभी-कभी छोटे दलों में बाँट दिया जाता था। कोलूमेल्ला ने दस-दस श्रमिकों के समूह बनाने का सुझाव दिया था और उसने यह दावा किया कि इन छोटे समूहों में यह बताना अपेक्षाकृत सरल होता है कि उनमें से कौन काम कर रहा है और कौन काम नहीं कर रहा है।

(2) वरिष्ठ प्लिनी (श्रमिकों को दागना) – प्रकृति विज्ञान के प्रसिद्ध लेखक वरिष्ठ प्लिनी ने दास – समूहों के प्रयोग की यह कहकर निन्दा की कि यह उत्पादन आयोजित करने का सबसे खराब तरीका है क्योंकि इस प्रकार पृथक् – पृथक् समूह में काम करने वाले दासों को प्राय: पैरों में जंजीर डालकर एक-साथ रखा जाता था। ऐसे तरीके कठोर और क्रूर मालूम होते हैं, परन्तु हमें यह नहीं भूलना चाहिए कि आज विश्व में ज्यादातर कारखाने श्रम नियन्त्रण के कुछ इसी प्रकार के सिद्धान्त लागू करते हैं। वास्तव में रोमन साम्राज्य में कुछ औद्योगिक प्रतिष्ठानों ने तो इससे भी अधिक कठोर नियन्त्रण लागू कर रखे थे।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

वरिष्ठ प्लिनी ने सिकन्दरिया की फ्रैंकिन्सेंस अर्थात् सुगन्धित राल के कारखानों की स्थिति का वर्णन किया है। “कामगारों के एप्रेनों पर एक सील लगा दी जाती है, उन्हें अपने सिर पर एक गहरी जाली वाला मास्क या नेट पहनना पड़ता है और उन्हें कारखाने से बाहर जाने के लिए अपने सभी कपड़े उतारने पड़ते हैं। ” तीसरी शताब्दी के राज्यादेश में मिस्र के किसानों द्वारा अपने गाँव छोड़ कर जाने का उल्लेख है जिसमें यह कहा गया है कि वे इसलिए गाँव छोड़कर जा रहे थे ताकि उन्हें खेती के काम में न लगना पड़े।

शायद यही बात ज्यादातर फैक्ट्रियों और कारखानों पर लागू होती थी। 398 ई. के एक कानून में यह कहा गया है कि कामगारों को दागा जाता था ताकि यदि वे भागने और छिपने का प्रयत्न करें तो उन्हें पहचाना जा सके। कई निजी स्वामी कामगारों के साथ ऋण- संविदा के रूप में करार ले लेते थे ताकि वे यह दावा कर सकें कि उनके कर्मचारी उनके कर्जदार हैं और इस प्रकार वे अपने कामगारों पर कड़ा नियन्त्रण रखते थे। बहुत से निर्धन परिवारों ने तो जीवित रहने के लिए ही कर्जदारी स्वीकार कर ली थी।

(3) आगस्टीन – अभी हाल ही में खोजे गए आगस्टीन के पत्रों में से एक पत्र से हमें ज्ञात होता है कि कभी-कभी माता-पिता अपने बच्चों को 25 वर्ष के लिए बेचकर बन्धुआ मजदूर बना देते थे। आगस्टीन ने एक बार अपने एक वकील मित्र से पूछा कि पिता की मृत्यु हो जाने पर क्या इन बच्चों को स्वतन्त्र किया जा सकता था। ग्रामीण ऋणग्रस्तता और भी अधिक व्यापक थी। इस ऋणग्रस्तता का एक उदाहरण इस घटना से मिलता है कि 66 ईस्वी के प्रबल यहूदी विद्रोह में क्रान्तिकारियों ने जनता का समर्थन प्राप्त करने के लिए साहूकारों के ऋण-पत्र (बॉण्ड) नष्ट कर दिये थे।

रोमन लोगों द्वारा अपने श्रमिकों पर नियन्त्रण के दो तरीके –
(1) निरीक्षण द्वारा – रोमन मालिकों की यह मान्यता थी कि निरीक्षण या देखभाल के बिना कोई भी कार्य ठीक ढंग से नहीं करवाया जा सकता। इसलिए मुक्त तथा दास, दोनों प्रकार के श्रमिकों के लिए निरीक्षण एक महत्त्वपूर्ण कार्य था। निरीक्षण को सरल बनाने हेतु कामगारों को कभी-कभी छोटे दलों में बाँट दिया जाता था।

(2) श्रमिकों को दागना – रोमन साम्राज्य में कामगारों को दागने की प्रथा प्रचलित थी, रोम में 398 के एक कानून में यह कहा गया है कि कामगारों को दागा जाता था, जिससे यदि वे भागने और छिपने का प्रयत्न करें, तो उन्हें पहचाना जा सके। कई निजी मालिक कामगारों के साथ ऋण संविदा के रूप में एक समझौता कर लेते थे ताकि वे यह दावा कर सकें कि उनके कर्मचारी उनके कर्जदार हैं और इस प्रकार वे अपने कामगारों पर कड़ा नियन्त्रण रखते थे। आगस्टीन के एक पत्र से ज्ञात होता है कि कभी-कभी माता-पिता अपने बच्चों को 25 वर्ष के लिए बेच कर बन्धुआ मजदूर बना देते थे। मालिक इन बच्चों को दाग देते थे ताकि निश्चित अवधि तक वे उनके बन्धुआ मजदूर ही रहे।

Jharkhand Board Class 11 History तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य Text Book Questions and Answers

लघूत्तरात्मक प्रश्न –

प्रश्न 1.
यदि आप रोम साम्राज्य में रहे होते, तो कहाँ रहना पसन्द करते- नगरों में या ग्रामीण क्षेत्र में ? कारण बताइए थी।
उत्तर- यदि मैं रोम साम्राज्य में रहा होता, तो नगरों में रहना पसन्द करता। इसके निम्नलिखित कारण थे –
(1) शहरों में खाने-पीने की कोई कमी नहीं थी।
(2) अकाल के दिनों में भी शहरों में ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों की तुलना में अच्छी सुविधाएँ प्राप्त होने की सम्भावना रहती
(3) सार्वजनिक स्नान – गृह रोम के शहरी जीवन की एक प्रमुख विशेषता थी।
(4) शहरी लोगों को उच्चस्तर के मनोरंजन उपलब्ध थे।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य
(5) शहर उद्योग-धन्धों एवं व्यापार के भी प्रमुख केन्द्र होते थे। नगरों में अनेक खानें, खदानें, ईंट-भट्टे, जैतून के तेल की फैक्टरियाँ आदि उपलब्ध थीं जिससे वहाँ का आर्थिक आधारभूत ढाँचा सुदृढ़ था। यहाँ आजीविका कमाने की कोई समस्या नहीं थी। लोगों का जीवन स्तर उन्नत था। उनका जीवन सुख-सुविधाओं से परिपूर्ण था। शहर आर्थिक सम्पन्नता के केन्द्र बने हुए थे।
(6) नगरों में साक्षरता की दर भी अधिक थी। नगरों में अनेक विद्यालय स्थापित थे, जहाँ विद्यार्थी शिक्षा प्राप्त करते थे।
(7) नगरों में लोगों का जीवन ग्रामीण लोगों के जीवन की अपेक्षा सुरक्षित था। नगर प्रशासनिक इकाइयों के रूप में क्रियाशील थे। इसलिए वहाँ पर लोगों की सुख-सुविधाओं पर ज्यादा ध्यान दिया जाता था।

प्रश्न 2.
इस अध्याय में उल्लिखित कुछ छोटे शहरों, बड़े नगरों, समुद्रों और प्रान्तों की सूची बनाइये और उन्हें नक्शे पर खोजने की कोशिश कीजिये। क्या आप अपने द्वारा बनाई गई सूची में संकलित किन्हीं तीन विषयों के बारे में कुछ कह सकते हैं?
उत्तर:
(1) छोटे शहरों की सूची – इटली में कैम्पेनिया, सिसली, पोम्पेई, मिस्र में फैय्यूम, गैलिली, बाइजैकियम ( ट्यूनीशिया), दक्षिणी गाल, बेटिका, हिसपेनिया, नुमीडिया। आदि।
(2) बड़े शहरों की सूची – कार्थेज, एंटिओक, कुंस्तुन्तुनिया, सिकन्दरिया, रोम, बगदाद, दमिश्क, मक्का, मदीना
(3) समुद्रों की सूची – अटलांटिक महासागर, लाल सागर, काला सागर, कैस्पियन सागर, एड्रियाटिक सागर, आयोनियन सागर, एजियन सागर, टिरेनियन सागर, भूमध्यसागर।
(4) प्रान्तों की सूची – गाल (आधुनिक फ्रांस), हिसपेनिया, बेटिका, ब्रिटेन, मारिटामिया ( मोरक्को), ट्यूनीशिया, मिस्र; मकदूनिया, कैम्पेनिया।

तीन विषयों का वर्णन –
(1) नगर – रोमन साम्राज्यं के नगर उद्योग, व्यापार, शिक्षा, साहित्य, कला, ज्ञान-विज्ञान आदि के प्रमुख केन्द्र थे। यहाँ के निवासियों को अनेक सुविधाएँ प्राप्त थीं तथा उनका जीवन स्तर उन्नत था।

(2) समुद्र – रोमन साम्राज्य के प्रमुख नगर समुद्रों के किनारों पर स्थित थे। इन मुहानों पर बड़े बन्दरगाह और पत्तन बनाए गए थे। इनके माध्यम से अनेक देशों के साथ व्यापार किया जाता था। रोमन साम्राज्य का व्यापार बहुत उन्नत था।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

(3) प्रान्त – इंटली के सिवाय, रोमन साम्राज्य के सभी क्षेत्र प्रान्तों में बँटे हुए थे और उनसे कर वसूला जाता था। सम्पूर्ण साम्राज्य में दूर-दूर तक अनेक नगर स्थापित किए गए थे जिनके माध्यम से समस्त साम्राज्य पर नियन्त्रण रखा जाता था। इन्हीं शहरों के माध्यम से सरकार प्रान्तीय ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों पर कर लगाती थी। दूसरी और तीसरी शताब्दियों के दौरान अधिकतर प्रशासक तथा सैनिक अधिकारी उच्च प्रान्तीय वर्गों में से होते थे।

प्रश्न 3.
कल्पना कीजिए कि आप रोम की एक गृहिणी हैं जो घर की जरूरत की वस्तुओं की खरीददारी की सूची बना रही हैं। अपनी सूची में आप कौनसी वस्तुएँ शामिल करेंगी?
उत्तर:
यदि मैं रोम की एक गृहिणी होती, तो मैं घर की जरूरत की वस्तुओं की खरीददारी की सूची में निम्नलिखित वस्तुएँ शामिल करती-गेहूँ, जौ, मक्का, चावल, बाजरा, दालें, सब्जियाँ, फल, दूध, मक्खन, अण्डे, मांस, जैतून का तेल, मसाले, लकड़ी, कोयला, विभिन्न प्रकार के बर्तन, बच्चों, पुरुषों तथा परिवार के अन्य सदस्यों के लिए वस्त्र, बच्चों के लिए खिलौने, खेल-सामग्री तथा अन्य आवश्यक वस्तुएँ, फर्नीचर जैसे कुर्सी, मेज, पलंग, आभूषण, सौन्दर्य प्रसाधन, दवाइयाँ आदि।

प्रश्न 4.
आपको क्या लगता है कि रोमन सरकार ने चाँदी में मुद्रा को ढालना क्यों बन्द किया होगा और वह सिक्कों के उत्पादन के लिए कौनसी धातु का उपयोग करने लगे?
उत्तर:
परवर्ती रोमन साम्राज्य में प्रथम तीन शताब्दियों से प्रचलित चाँदी – आधारित मौद्रिक प्रणाली समाप्त कर दी गई। इसका कारण यह था कि स्पेन की खानों से चाँदी मिलना बन्द हो गया था और रोमन सरकार के पास चाँदी की मुद्रा के प्रचलन के लिए ‘पर्याप्त चाँदी नहीं रह गई थी । इसलिए रोमन सरकार ने चाँदी की मुद्रा को ढालना बन्द कर दिया। दूसरी ओर रोमन साम्राज्य में सोना प्रचुर मात्रा में उपलब्ध था । अतः रोमन सम्राट कान्स्टैन्टाइन ने सोने पर आधारित नई मौद्रिक – प्रणाली स्थापित की। उसने सालिडास नामक सोने का सिक्का चलाया जो शुद्ध रूप में 45 ग्राम सोने का बना था। यह सिक्का रोमन साम्राज्य स्थापित होने के बाद भी चलता रहा।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

निबन्धात्मक प्रश्न

प्रश्न 5.
अगर सम्राट त्राजान भारत पर विजय प्राप्त करने में वास्तव में सफल रहे होते और रोमवासियों का इस देश पर अनेक सदियों तक कब्जा रहा होता, तो क्या आप सोचते हैं कि भारत वर्तमान समय के देश से किस प्रकार भिन्न होता?
उत्तर:
रोमन लोगों के अधीन रहने पर भारत का वर्तमान समय के देश से भिन्न होना यदि सम्राट त्राजान भारत पर विजय प्राप्त करने में वास्तव में सफल रहे होते और रोमवासियों का इस देश पर अनेक सदियों तक कब्जा रहा होता, तो भारत वर्तमान समय के देश से काफी भिन्न होता।

(1) प्रशासन – भारतीय प्रशासन परं रोमन प्रशासन का प्रभाव पड़ता। भारत में लोकतन्त्र के स्थान पर राजतन्त्र होता। रोमन साम्राज्य की भाँति भारतीय प्रशासन में सम्राट, सैनेट (अभिजात वर्ग) तथा सेना का प्रमुख स्थान होता। भारत के प्रशासनिक ढाँचे में उन्नति हुई होती।

(2) शहरों का महत्त्व – रोमन साम्राज्य में शहर साम्राज्यिक प्रणाली के मूल आधार थे। इन्हीं शहरों के माध्यम से सरकार प्रान्तीय ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों पर कर लगाने में सफल हो पाती थी। रोम के सन्दर्भ में नगर एक ऐसा शहरी केन्द्र था, जिसके अपने दण्डनायक, नगर परिषद् और अपना एक सुनिश्चित राज्य – क्षेत्र था जिसमें अनेक ग्राम शामिल थे। भारत में भी शहरों के राजनीतिक, आर्थिक, सामाजिक महत्त्व में वृद्धि होती। सार्वजनिक स्नान-गृह रोम के शहरी जीवन की एक प्रमुख विशेषता थी। शहरी लोगों को उच्च स्तर के मनोरंजन उपलब्ध थे। भारत के शहरी जीवन पर भी इसका प्रभाव पड़ता।

(3) स्त्रियों की स्थिति – रोम की महिलाओं को सम्पत्ति के स्वामित्व व संचालन में व्यापक कानूनी अधिकार प्राप्त थे तलाक देना अपेक्षाकृत सरल था और इसके लिए पति अथवा पत्नी द्वारा केवल विवाह – भंग करने के निश्चय की सूचना देना ही पर्याप्त था। इस प्रकार भारत में तलाक देना और सरल हो जाता। रोम में बाल विवाह का प्रचलन नहीं था। अतः भारत में भी बाल-विवाह का प्रचलन नहीं होता।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

(4) परिवार – रोम में एकल परिवार का व्यापक रूप से प्रचलन था । अतः भारत में संयुक्त परिवार प्रथा की बजाय एकल परिवार का ही प्रचलन होता। रोम में परिवार में पिता का अपने बच्चों पर अत्यधिक कानूनी नियन्त्रण होता था। भारतीय परिवारों पर भी इसका प्रभाव पड़ता।

(5) आर्थिक क्षेत्र में उन्नति – रोमन साम्राज्य का आर्थिक आधारभूत ढाँचा काफी सुदृढ़ था। रोमन साम्राज्य में व्यापार की अत्यधिक उन्नति हुई थी। वहाँ के अनेक क्षेत्र अत्यधिक उपजाऊ थे। वहाँ उत्पादकता का स्तर बहुत ऊँचा था। वहाँ चाँदी के सिक्कों के स्थान पर सोने के सिक्कों का प्रचलन था। अतः भारत भी आर्थिक क्षेत्र में अत्यन्त समृद्ध होता तथा यहाँ भी सोने के सिक्के प्रचलन में होते। भारत के यूरोपीय देशों के साथ घनिष्ठ सम्बन्ध स्थापित होते।

(6) दास प्रथा – रोम में दास प्रथा का प्रचलन था। दासों के साथ क्रूरतापूर्ण व्यवहार किया जाता था। भारत में भी दास प्रथा का प्रचलन होता।

(7) ईसाई धर्म का प्रचार – रोमन साम्राज्य में ईसाई धर्म का व्यापक प्रचार था। रोमन सम्राट कान्स्टैन्टाइन ने ईसाई धर्म को राजधर्म घोषित कर दिया था। इसका भारत पर भी प्रभाव पड़ता और सम्भवतः ईसाई धर्म को राजधर्म बना दिया जाता।

(8) भारतीय संस्कृति पर प्रभाव – रोमन साम्राज्य का भारतीय संस्कृति पर प्रभाव पड़ने की सम्भावना थी। इससे भारत में पश्चिमीकरण की प्रक्रिया प्रारम्भ हो सकती थी। परिणामस्वरूप रोमन सभ्यता का भारतीय सभ्यता एवं संस्कृति पर प्रभाव पड़ना स्वाभाविक था। इससे भारतीय सभ्यता एवं संस्कृति के आध्यात्मिक तत्त्वों को हानि पहुँच सकती थी तथा भौतिकवाद में वृद्धि हो सकती थी। इसके अतिरिक्त चित्रकला, भवन निर्माण कला, मूर्तिकला पर भी रोमन कला का प्रभाव होता।

प्रश्न 6.
अध्याय को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़ कर उसमें से रोमन समाज और अर्थव्यवस्था को आपकी दृष्टि में आधुनिक दर्शाने वाले आधारभूत अभिलक्षण चुनिए।
उत्तर:
I. रोमन समाज को आधुनिक दर्शाने वाले आधारभूत अभिलक्षण – रोमन समाज को आधुनिक दर्शाने वाले आधारभूत अभिलक्षण निम्नलिखित हैं –
(1) एकल परिवार – रोमन समाज की अपेक्षाकृत अधिक आधुनिक विशेषताओं में से एक विशेषता यह थी कि उन दिनों एकल परिवार का व्यापक रूप से चलन था। वयस्क पुत्र अपने पिता के परिवारों के साथ नहीं रहते थे तथा वयस्क भाई बहुत कम संयुक्त परिवार में रहते थे।

(2) स्त्रियों की स्थिति – प्रथम शताब्दी ई. पू. तक स्त्रियों को सम्पत्ति सम्बन्धी अनेक अधिकार प्राप्त थे। पत्नी अपने पति को अपनी सम्पत्ति हस्तान्तरित नहीं किया करती थी । परन्तु अपने पैतृक परिवार में वह अपने पूरे अधिकार बनाए रखती थी।

स्त्री का दहेज वैवाहिक अवधि के दौरान उसके पति के पास चला जाता था, परन्तु स्त्री अपने पिता की मुख्य उत्तराधिकारिणी बनी रहती थी और अपने पिता की मृत्यु होने पर उसकी सम्पत्ति की स्वतन्त्र स्वामिनी बन जाती थी। इस प्रकार रोम की स्त्रियों को सम्पत्ति के स्वामित्व व नियन्त्रण में व्यापक कानूनी अधिकार प्राप्त थे। रोम में तलाक देना अपेक्षाकृत सरल था और इसके लिए पति अथवा पत्नी द्वारा केवल विवाह – विच्छेद करने के निश्चय की सूचना देना ही पर्याप्त था।

(3) विवाह – रोमन समाज में वयस्क होने पर ही विवाह किया जाता था। पुरुष 28 – 29, 30-32 की आयु में विवाह करते थे तथा लड़कियाँ 16-18 व 22-23 वर्ष की आयु में विवाह करती थीं।

(4) साक्षस्ता – कामचलाऊ साक्षरता अर्थात् पढ़ने-लिखने की योग्यता की दरें साम्राज्य के विभिन्न भागों में अलग-अलग थीं। एक ओर पोम्पई नगर में काम चलाऊ साक्षरता व्यापक रूप में पाई जाती थी जबकि मिस्र में साक्षरता संजीव पास बुक्स की दर काफी कम थी। यहाँ भी साक्षरता निश्चित रूप से कुछ वर्गों के लोगों जैसे सैनिकों, सैनिक अधिकारियों, सम्पत्ति – प्रबन्धवों आदि में अपेक्षाकृत अधिक व्यापक थी।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

(5) सार्वजनिक स्नान गृह – सार्वजनिक स्नान गृह रोम के शहरी जीवन की एक प्रमुख विशेषता थी।

(6) मनोरंजन के साधन – शहरी लोगों को उच्च स्तर के मनोरंजन उपलब्ध थे। उदाहणार्थ, से हमें ज्ञात होता है कि एक वर्ष में कम-से-कम 176 दिन वहाँ कोई-न-कोई मनोरंजक कार्यक्रम या प्रदर्शन अवश्य होता था।

II. रोमन अर्थव्यवस्था को आधुनिक दर्शाने वाले आधारभूत लक्षण –
(1) आर्थिक आधारभूत संरचना का मजबूत होना – रोमन साम्राज्य में बन्दरगाहों, खानों, खदानों, ईंट-भट्टों, जैतून के तेल की फैक्ट्रियों आदि की संख्या काफी अधिक थी जिनसे उसका आर्थिक आधारभूत ढाँचा काफी मजबूत था। गेहूँ, शराब, जैतून का तेल आदि मुख्य व्यापारिक वस्तुएँ थीं। ये वस्तुएँ मुख्यतः स्पेन, गैलिक प्रान्तों, उत्तरी अफ्रीका, मिस्र तथा अपेक्षाकृत कम मात्रा में इटली से आती थीं जहाँ इन फसलों के लिए उपयुक्त स्थितियाँ उपलब्ध थीं।

(2) शराब, जैतून का तेल तथा अन्य तरल पदार्थों की ढुलाई- शराब, जैतून के तेल तथा अन्य तरल पदार्थों की ढुलाई ऐसे मटकों या कन्टेनरों में होती थी जिन्हें ‘एम्फोरा’ कहते थे। स्पेन में जैतून का तेल निकालने का उद्यम 140-160 ई. के वर्ष में अपनी चरम उन्नति पर था । स्पेन में उत्पादित जैतून का तेल मुख्य रूप से ऐसे कन्टेनरों में ले जाया जाता था जिन्हें ‘ड्रेसल – 20’ कहते थे। भिन्न-भिन्न प्रदेशों के जमींदार एवं उत्पादक विभिन्न वस्तुओं के बाजार पर अधिकार करने के लिए आपस में प्रतिस्पर्द्धा करते रहते थे ।

(3) उर्वर प्रदेश – रोमन साम्राज्य के बहुत से प्रदेश अत्यधिक उपजाऊ थे। इन प्रदेशों में इटली में कैम्पैनिया, सिसली, मिस्र में फैय्यूम, गैलिली, बाइजैकियम (ट्यूनीसिया ), दक्षिणी गाल तथा बाएंटिका ( दक्षिणी स्पेन) अपनी असाधारण उर्वरता के लिए प्रसिद्ध थे। स्ट्रैबो तथा प्लिनी जैसे इतिहासकारों के अनुसार ये सभी प्रदेश साम्राज्य के घनी जनसंख्या वाले और सबसे धनी प्रदेशों में से कुछ थे। सबसे बढ़िया किस्म की अंगूरी शराब कैम्पैनिया से आती थी। सिसली और बाइजैकियम रोम को भारी मात्रा में गेहूँ का निर्यात करते थे । गैलिली में गहन खेती की जाती थी। इतिहासकार जोसिफ ने लिखा है कि ” प्रदेशवासियों ने जमीन के एक-एक इंच टुकड़े पर खेती कर रखी है। ”

(4) जल शक्ति का विकास – भूमध्य सागर के आस-पास पानी की शक्ति का भिन्न-भिन्न प्रकार से प्रयोग किया जाता था। इस काल में जल-शक्ति से मिलें चलाने की प्रौद्योगिकी में काफी उन्नति हुई। स्पेन की सोने और चाँदी की खानों में जल – शक्ति से खुदाई की जाती थी और पहली तथा दूसरी शताब्दियों में इन खानों से बड़े पैमाने पर खनिज निकाले जाते थे।

(5) उत्पादकता का स्तर ऊँचा होना- उस समय उत्पादकता का स्तर इतना ऊँचा था कि 19वीं शताब्दी तक अर्थात् लगभग 1700 वर्ष बाद भी ऐसे उत्पादन के स्तर देखने को नहीं मिलते। उस समय सुगठित वाणिज्यिक और बैंकिंग व्यवस्था थी और धन का व्यापक रूप से प्रयोग होता था। रोमन सम्राट कान्स्टैन्टाइन ने ‘सालिडास’ नामक सोने का सिक्का, चलाया, जो रोमन साम्राज्य के समाप्त होने के पश्चात् भी चलता रहा था। परवर्ती काल में साम्राज्य में सोने के सिक्के प्रचलित रहे।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य

(6) रोमन अभिजात वर्ग के पास अतुल धन-सम्पत्ति का होना – रोमन अभिजात वर्ग के पास अतुल धन- सम्पत्ति थी। बहुत से रोमन परिवारों को अपनी सम्पत्ति से प्रतिवर्ष 4 हजार पौण्ड सोने की आय प्राप्त होती थी, जिसमें अनाज, शराब और अन्य उपज शामिल नहीं थीं। इन उपजों को बेचने पर सोने में प्राप्त आय के एक-तिहाई के बराबर आय हो सकती थी। रोम में ‘द्वितीय श्रेणी के परिवारों की आय 1000 अथवा 1500 पौण्ड सोना थी।

तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य JAC Class 11 History Notes

पाठ- सार

1. रोम साम्राज्य- रोम साम्राज्य दूर-दूर तक फैला हुआ था। इसमें आज का अधिकांश यूरोप और उर्वर अर्द्ध- चन्द्राकार क्षेत्र अर्थात् पश्चिमी एशिया तथा उत्तरी अफ्रीका का बहुत बड़ा भाग शामिल था। यह साम्राज्य अनेक स्थानीय संस्कृतियों तथा भाषाओं के वैभव से सम्पन्न था; स्त्रियों की कानूनी स्थिति काफी सुदृढ़ थी। लेकिन अर्थव्यवस्था दास-श्रम के बल पर चलती थी। इस कारण जनता का एक बड़ा भाग स्वतंत्रता से वंचित था। पांचवीं शताब्दी व उसके बाद इसका पश्चिमी साम्राज्य छिन्न-भिन्न हो गया लेकिन पूर्वी भाग अत्यन्त समृद्ध बना रहा।

2. रोमन तथा ईरानी साम्राज्य – ईसा मसीहा के जन्म से लेकर 630 के दशक की अवधि में अधिकांश यूरोप, उत्तरी अफ्रीका और मध्य पूर्व तक के विशाल क्षेत्र में दो सशक्त साम्राज्यों-रोम साम्राज्य और ईरान साम्राज्य-का शासन था तथा ये आपस में संघर्षरत रहे।

3. रोम के इतिहासकारों के पास स्रोत- सामग्री – रोम के इतिहासकारों के पास स्रोत- सामग्री का विशाल भण्डार था। इस स्रोत -सामग्री को तीन वर्गों में बाँटा जा सकता है –
(1) पाठ्य सामग्री
(2) प्रलेख या दस्तावेज
(3) भौतिक अवशेष।

4. रोमन साम्राज्य का आरम्भिक काल – रोमन साम्राज्य को मोटे तौर पर दो चरणों में बाँटा जा सकता है, जिन्हें ‘पूर्ववर्ती चरण’ और ‘परवर्ती चरण’ कहा जा सकता है। रोमन साम्राज्य में प्रशासन के प्रयोजन के लिए लैटिन तथा यूनानी भाषाओं का प्रयोग किया जाता था।

5. पूर्ववर्ती चरण –
(i) गणतन्त्र में वास्तविक सत्ता ‘सैनेट’ नामक निकाय में निहित थी। गणतन्त्र 509 ई. पूर्व से 27 ई. पूर्व तक चला। 27 ई. पूर्व में रोम सम्राट् आगस्टस ने जो राज्य स्थापित किया, उसे ‘प्रिंसिपेट’ कहा जाता था। उसने सैनेट के महत्त्व को बनाए रखा। सैनेट में कुलीन एवं अभिजात वर्गों का प्रतिनिधित्व था। सम्राट और सैनेट के बाद सामाजिक शासन की एक अन्य प्रमुख संस्था सेना थी। यह व्यावसायिक सेना थी। इस प्रकार सम्राट, अभिजात वर्ग तथा सेना साम्राज्य के राजनीतिक इतिहास में तीन मुख्य खिलाड़ी थे। 509 ई. पूर्व से तीसरी शताब्दी के मुख्य भाग तक के काल को पूर्ववर्ती रोमन साम्राज्य कहा जाता है।

(ii) रोमन साम्राज्य का विस्तार – रोमन साम्राज्य के प्रत्यक्ष शासन का काफी विस्तार हुआ। इसके लिए अनेक आश्रित राज्यों को रोम के प्रान्तीय राज्य में सम्मिलित कर लिया गया। दूसरी शताब्दी में रोमन साम्राज्य स्काटलैण्ड से आर्मेनिया की सीमाओं तक और सहारा से फरात तथा कभी-कभी उससे भी आगे तक फैला हुआ था।

(iii) नगरों के माध्यम से साम्राज्य पर नियन्त्रण रखना – सम्पूर्ण साम्राज्य में दूर-दूर तक अनेक नगर स्थापित किये गये थे, जिनके माध्यम से समस्त साम्राज्य पर नियन्त्रण रखा जाता था। इन्हीं नगरों के माध्यम से सरकार प्रान्तीय ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों पर कर लगाने में सफल हो पाती थी।

(iv) सार्वजनिक स्नान गृह – सार्वजनिक स्नानगृह रोम के शहरी जीवन की एक प्रमुख विशेषता थी। शहरी लोगों को उच्च स्तर के मनोरंजन उपलब्ध थे।

(v) तीसरी शताब्दी का संकट – तीसरी शताब्दी में रोम को अनेक संकटों का सामना करना पड़ा। ईरान के शासक शापुर प्रथम ने रोम साम्राज्य की पूर्वी राजधानी एंटिआक पर अधिकार कर लिया। कई जर्मन मूल की जनजातियों ने राइन तथा डेन्यूब नदियों की सीमाओं की ओर बढ़ना शुरू कर दिया और उन प्रान्तों की सीमाओं पर आक्रमण किया।

(vi) लिंग – रोम में एकल परिवार का प्रचलन था। महिलाओं को सम्पत्ति के स्वामित्व तथा संचालन में व्यापक कानूनी अधिकार प्राप्त थे। तलाक देना अपेक्षाकृत आसान था। स्त्रियों पर उनके पतियों का नियन्त्रण रहता था। पिता का अपने बच्चों पर कानूनी नियन्त्रण होता था। कानून के अनुसार पति और पत्नी को अलग-अलग दो वित्तीय हस्तियाँ माना जाता था तथा पत्नी को पूर्ण वैधिक स्वतंत्रता प्राप्त थी।

(vii) साक्षरता- कामचलाऊ साक्षरता की दरें साम्राज्य के विभिन्न भागों में काफी अलग-अलग थीं। पोम्पई नगर में काम-चलाऊ साक्षरता व्यापक रूप में विद्यमान थी।

(viii) संस्कृति – रोमन साम्राज्य में सांस्कृतिक विविधता कई रूपों में दिखाई देती है, जैसे-धार्मिक सम्प्रदायों तथा स्थानीय देवी-देवताओं की भरपूर विविधता, बोलचाल की अनेक भाषाएँ, वेशभूषा की विविध शैलियाँ, अलग-अलग प्रकार के भोजन आदि।

(ix) आर्थिक विस्तार – साम्राज्य में बन्दरगाहों, खदानों, ईंट-भट्टों, जैतून के तेल के कारखानों आदि की संख्या काफी अधिक थी। गेहूँ, अंगूरी शराब तथा जैतून का तेल मुख्य व्यापारिक मदें थीं। इटली में कैम्पेनिया, सिसली, मिस्र में फैय्यूम, गैलिली, बाइजैकियम, दक्षिणी गाल तथा बाएटिका अत्यधिक उपजाऊ क्षेत्र थे।

सिसली तथा बाइजैकियम रोम को भारी मात्रा में गेहूँ का निर्यात करते थे। परन्तु रोम क्षेत्र के अनेक बड़े-बड़े हिस्से बहुत कम उन्नत अवस्था में थे। स्पेन की सोने और चाँदी की खानों में जल – शक्ति से खुदाई की जाती थी और इन खानों से खनिज निकाले जाते थे। उत्पादकता का स्तर ऊँचा था। बैंकिंग व्यवस्था थी।

(x) श्रमिकों पर नियन्त्रण – रोमन साम्राज्य में दासों की बहुत बड़ी संख्या थी। जहाँ उच्च वर्ग के लोग दासों के प्रति प्राय: क्रूरतापूर्ण व्यवहार करते थे, वहीं दूसरी ओर साधारण लोग उनके प्रति कहीं अधिक सहानुभूति रखते थे। जब दासों की आपूर्ति में कमी आने लगी तो दास प्रजनन अथवा वेतनभोगी मजदूरों जैसे विकल्पों का सहारा लिया गया। रोमन साम्राज्य में कुछ औद्योगिक प्रतिष्ठानों ने श्रमिकों से सम्बंन्धित कड़े नियन्त्रण लगा रखे थे। कामगारों को दागा जाता था ताकि यदि वे भागने का प्रयत्न करें तो उन्हें पहचाना जा सके।

(xi) सामाजिक श्रेणियाँ – साम्राज्य में सैनेटर, अश्वारोही वर्ग, जनता का सम्माननीय वर्ग, निम्नतर वर्ग, दास आदि विभिन्न सामाजिक समूह थे। सैनेटर तथा अश्वारोही वर्ग अभिजात वर्ग थे। मध्यम वर्ग में नौकरशाही और सैनिक लोग शामिल थे, परन्तु इसमें समृद्ध सौदागर तथा किसान भी शामिल थे। निम्नतर वर्ग में ग्रामीण श्रमिक शामिल थे।

6. परवर्ती पुराकाल या परवर्ती साम्राज्य – तीसरी शताब्दी के उत्तरार्द्ध से लेकर सातवीं शताब्दी तक के काल में परवर्ती रोमन साम्राज्य के नाम से जाना जाता है। सम्राट डायोक्लीशियन (284-305 ई.) ने सामरिक तथा आर्थिक दृष्टि से महत्त्वहीन क्षेत्रों को छोड़कर साम्राज्य के विस्तार को कम किया। सम्राट कांस्टेन्टाइन ने इनके अतिरिक्त कुछ अन्य परिवर्तन साम्राज्य के अन्तर्गत किए।

यथा –

  • सम्राट कान्स्टैन्टाइन ने ‘सालिडस’ नामक एक नया सिक्का चलाया।
  • उसने दूसरी राजधानी कुस्तुन्तुनिया का निर्माण किया।
  • उसके समय में तेल की मिलों, शीशे के कारखानों आदि की स्थापना हुई। इन सभी के फलस्वरूप शहरी सम्पदा और समृद्धि में अत्यधिक वृद्धि हुई।
  • धार्मिक स्थिति – रोमन लोग अनेक देवी-देवताओं की उपासना करते थे। ये लोग जूपिटर, जूनो, मिनर्वा, मार्स आदि अनेक देवताओं की पूजा करते थे। यहूदी धर्म रोम साम्राज्य का एक अन्य बड़ा धर्म था। चौथी या पाँचवीं शताब्दियों में साम्राज्य का ईसाईकरण हुआ।
  • रोमन साम्राज्य का पतन – जर्मन मूल के अनेक समूहों ने पश्चिमी साम्राज्य के सभी बड़े प्रान्तों पर अधिकार कर लिया और अपने-अपने राज्य स्थापित कर लिए जिन्हें रोमोत्तर राज्य कहा जा सकता है। सातवीं शताब्दी के प्रारम्भिक दशकों तक आते-आते रोम और ईरान के बीच लड़ाई फिर छिड़ गई। ईरानी शासकों ने मिस्र सहित सभी विशाल पूर्वी प्रान्तों परं आक्रमण कर दिया। 642 तक अरबों ने पूर्वी रोमन और ससानी दोनों राज्यों के बड़े-बड़े भागों पर अधिकार कर लिया।

JAC Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 3 तीन महाद्वीपों में फैला हुआ साम्राज्य - 1

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources 

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources

JAC Class 10th Geography Minerals and Energy Resources InText Questions and Answers

Page 48

Question 1.
Find out how many minerals are used to make a light bulb. Answer:Minerals used to make a light bulb are:

Part of BulbMaterial UsedMineral from which obtained
FilamentTungstenScheelite, Wolframite, ferberite or hubnerite (Metallic oxides of Tungsten)
BulbGlassSilica (Silicon dioxide)
Connecting wiresCopperChalcolite (Cuprous sulphide)
Metallic part of bodyAluminiumBauxite (Aluminium oxide)

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 2.
Collect “Nutritional Facts” printed on food labels.
Answer:
Do it yourself activity. Sample answer is given.A sample of nutritional facts printed on a packet of glucose biscuits is given below:

Energy453 cal
Fat13.0 gm
Carbohydrate77.5 gm
Protein6.5 gm
Calcium15 mg
Dietary fibre0.6 gm


Page 50

Question 3.
What is the difference between an open pit mine, a quarry and an underground mine with shafts?
Answer:
Differences between an open pit mine, a quarry and an underground mine with shafts are as follows:

Open pit mineQuestion uarryUnderground mine with shafts
Minerals are removed from a pit dug in the ground.Minerals are removed from a shallow pit dug in the ground.Minerals are removed through deep shafts dug in the ground.
Used where commercially useful minerals are found near the surface.Generally, used for extracting building materials like dimension stone.Used where the mineral occurs as veins in hard rock deep below the surface of the Earth.
Extracted using Earthmoving machinery.Extracted using Earthmoving machinery.Extracted using elevators that can carry minerals, extraction equipment as well as persons into the area where the mineral is available.

page 51

Question 4.
Superimpose the maps showing distribution of iron ore, manganese, coal and iron and steel industry. Do you see any correlation? Why?
Answer:
The iron and steel industries are located in the same regions of India where the iron ore, coal and manganese mines are located. As coal and manganese are required as inputs to the iron and steel industry, their availability in the same region saves the transportation costs and ease of availability. So it is profitable to locate these industries in the regions where these minerals are available.

Page 53

Question 5.
Locate the mines of bauxite on the physical map of India.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Page 54

Question 6.
Study the maps to explain why Chota Nagpur is a storehouse of minerals.
Answer:
We can understand by studying the maps given in the textbook why the Chota Nagpur plateau is considered as a storehouse of minerals. The reasons are:

  1. Chota Nagpur is a part of old Gondwana land. Part of it is made of solidified magma. The area is rich in minerals.
  2. It is such in minerals like iron ore, coal, manganese, bauxite, copper, mica, etc.
  3. The coal fields in this area supply most of the cooking coal to the industries.

Page 55

Question 7.
Name some river valley projects and write the names of the dams built on these rivers.
Answer:
Name of some river valley projects and dams-built on them:

  1. Bhakra Nangal Project: Bhakra and Nangal dams on the Satluj river in Punjab.
  2. Hirakud Project: Hirakud dam on the Mahanadi river in Odisha.
  3. Nagarjuna Sagar Project: Nagaijuna Sagar dam on the Krishna river in Andhra Pradesh.
  4. Chambal Project: Jawahar Sagar, Gandhi Sagar and Rana Pratap Sagar dams on the Chambal river in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
  5. Tungabhadra Project: Tungabhadradam on the Tungabhadra river in Karnataka.
  6. Mettur Project: Mettur dam on the Kaveri river in Tamil Nadu.
  7. Sardar Sarovar Project: Sardar Sarovar dam on the Narmada river in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.
  8. Damodar Valley Project: On the Damodar river in Bihar.
  9. Farakka Project: On the Ganga river in West Bengal.
  10. Mahi Project: Mahi dam on the Mahi river in Gujarat.
  11. Tehri Project: Tehri dam on the Bhagirathi river in Uttarakhand.

Page 60

Question 8.
Collect information about thermal/ hydel power plants located in your state. Show them on the map of India.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 9.
Collect information about newly established solar power plants in India.
Answer:
India is now home to world’s largest solar plant on a ‘single location’. The plant, in Kamuthi, Tamil Nadu, comes with a capacity of 648 MW and covers an area of 10 sq m/km. It also bears the capacity of charging its own solar panels. Furthermore, when in full swing, the plant is capable of producing electricity for 150,000 homes.

The cost of this project was ‘ 46,535,570,550. With this, India’s total installed capacity of solar plants has nudged across the 10 GW mark. Thus, India will be the world’s third-biggest solar market from next year onwards, after China and the US. However, we are still lagging a bit in regard to the expectations that the government has set for the nation.

Question 10.
Locate the 6 nuclear power stations and find out the state in which they are located.
Answer:

  • Tarapur Atomic Power Station: it is located in Maharashtra.
  • Rajasthan Atomic Power Station: it is located in Rajasthan
  • Kakrapar Atomic Power Station: it is located in Gujarat
  • Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant: it is located in Tamil Nadu
  • Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant: it is located in Karnataka
  • Gorakhpur Atomic Power Station: it is located in Haryana

JAC Class 10th Geography Minerals and Energy Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.
(i) Which one of the following minerals is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of weathered material?
(a) Coal
(b) Bauxite
(c) Gold
(d) Zinc
Answer:
(a) Coal

(ii) Koderma, in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Mica
(c) Iron ore
(d) Copper
Answer:
(b) Mica

(iii) Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the stratas of which of the following rocks?
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Igneous rocks
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sedimentary rocks

(iv) Which one of the following minerals is contained in the Monazite sand?
(a) Oil
(b) Ur0anium
(c) Thorium
(d) Coal
Answer:
(c) Thorium

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words.
(a) Distinguish between the following in not more than 30 words.

  1. Ferrous and non-ferrous minerals
  2. Conventional and non-conventional sources of energy

(b) What is a mineral?
(c) How are minerals formed in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
(d) Why do we need to conserve mineral resources?

Ferrous mineralsNon-ferrous minerals
(i) Ferrous minerals contain iron ; content.(i) These minerals do not contain iron content.
(i) They provide a strong base in the development of metallurgical industries.(ii) They play an important role in a number of industries like, engineering and electrical industries.
(iii) Iron ore, manganese, cobalt, etc., are the examples of ferrous kminerals.(iii) Copper, zinc, lead and aluminium are the examples of non-ferrous minerals.

 

Conventional sources of energyNon-conventional sources of energy
(i) Conventional sources of energy have been used since a long time.(i) The sources of energy which are of recent origin and have not been commonly used.
(ii) These are expensive in the long run.(ii) These are cheaper in the long mn.
(iii) These are used extensively.(iii) These are used locally.
(iv) They are non-renewable and exhaustible sources of energy.(iv) They are renewable sources of energy.

(b) A mineral is a naturally occurring homogeneous substance with a definable interior structure. Mineral that will be formed from a certain combination of elements depends upon the physical and chemical conditions under which the material forms.

(c) In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface. They cool and solidify as they rise.

(d) We are rapidly consuming mineral resources that require millions of years to be created and concentrated. The geological processes of mineral formation are so slow that the rates of replenishment are infinitely small in comparison to the present rates of consumption. Mineral resources are, therefore, finite and non¬renewable. That is why we need to conserve mineral resources and use them wisely.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in about 120 words.
(a) Describe the distribution of coal in India.
(b) Why do you think that solar energy has a bright future in India?
Answer:
(a) In India, coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel. It provides a substantial part of the nation’s energy needs.

(i) In India, coal occurs in rock series of two main geological ages, viz., Gondwana, a little over 200 million years in age and in tertiary deposits which are only about 55 million years old. The major resources of Gondwana coal, which are metallurgical coal, are located in Damodar valley (West Bengal-Jharkhand). The important coal fields are Jharia, Raniganj and Bokaro. The Godavari, Mahanadi, Son and Wardha valleys also contain coal deposits.

(ii) Tertiary coals occur in the north eastern states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

(iii) Lignite is a low grade brown coal, which is soft with high moisture content. The principal lignite reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu and are used for generation of electricity.

Distribution of coal in India:

  1. Anthracite is found in Jammu and Kashmir.
  2. Bituminus is found in Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh.
  3. Lignite is found in Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan.

(b) India has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy. Photovoltaic technology converts sunlight directly into electricity. Solar energy is fast becoming popular in rural and remote areas. Some big solar power plants are being established in different parts of India which will minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood and dung cakes, which in turn will contribute to environmental conservation and adequate supply of manure in agriculture.

NCERT Activity

Question 1.
Fill the name of the correct mineral in the crossword below:
JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources  1
DOWN

  1. Found in placer deposit (4)
  2. Iron ore mined in Bailadila (8)
  3. Indispensable for electrical industry (4)
  4. Geological Age of coal found in northeast India (8)
  5. Formed in veins and lodes (3)

ACROSS

  1. A ferrous mineral (9)
  2. Raw material for cement industry (9)
  3. Finest iron ore with magnetic properties (9)
  4. Highest quality hard coal (10)
  5. Aluminium is obtained from this ore (7)
  6. Khetri mines are famous for this mineral (6)
  7. Formed due to evaporation (6)

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources 2

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What proportion of the Indian population is engaged in agriculture?
(a) One-third
(b) Two-fourths
(c) Three-fourths
(d) Two-thirds
Answer:
(d) Two-thirds

Question 2.
Which of the following is a plantation crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Bajra
(c) Rubber
(d) Wheat
Answer:
(c) Rubber

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 3.
Which of this is a zaid season crop?
(a) Maize
(b) Cucumber
(c) Groundnut
(d) Peas
Answer:
(b) Cucumber

Question 4.
Which country is the second largest producer of rice in the world after China? *
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) Philippines
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) India

5. Which crop is used both as food and fodder?
(a) Wheat
(b) Cotton
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
Answer:
(d) Maize

Question 6.
Which crop is a kharif crop in the north and rabi crop in south India?
(a) Wheat
(b) Sesamum
(c) Tea
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Sesamum

Question 7.
What is the rearing of silkworms known as?
(a) Pisciculture
(b) Agriculture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Horticulture
Answer:
(c) Sericulture

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 8.
Which was one of the strategies initiated to improve the lot of Indian agriculture?
(a) Revolution 2020
(b) White Revolution
(c) Operation Desert Storm
(d) Operation Blue Star
Answer:
(b) White Revolution

Question 9.
Which is one of the schemes introduced by the Government of India for the benefit of the farmers?
(a) Agenda 21
(b) Agglomeration economies
(c) Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS)
(d) Golden Question uadrilateral Super Highways
Answer:
(c) Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS)

Question 10.
Which movement was initiated by Vinoba Bhave?
(a) Operation Flood
(b) Bhoodan-Gramdan
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Tehri Dam Andolan
Answer:
(b) Bhoodan-Gramdan

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is the land productivity low in primitive subsistence farming?
Answer:
The land productivity is low in primitive subsistence farming because the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modem inputs.

Question 2.
Where is primitive subsistence farming practised?
Answer:
Primitive subsistence farming is practised in north-eastern states, such as Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Manipur; Bastar district of Chhattisgarh; Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Western Ghats, south-eastern Rajasthan, Himalayan belt and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 3.
In which area is intensive subsistence farming practised?
Answer:
Intensive subsistence farming is practised in the areas of high population.

Question 4.
Mention the climatic factor which helps in the success of rabi crops.
Answer:
The western temperate cyclones bring precipitation during winter months, which helps in the success of rabi crops.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 5.
Name the three crops of paddy grown in a year and in which states of India are they grown?
Answer:
Aus, Aman and Bow are three crops of paddy grown in a year. They are grown in Assam, West Bengal and Odisha.

Question 6.
How has it become possible to grow rice in the areas of less rainfall?
Answer:
It has become possible to grow rice in the areas of less rainfall, such as Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan with the development of dense network of canal irrigation and tube wells.

Question 7.
What type of soil is required for growing bajra?
Answer:
Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil.

Question 8.
Name the major maize-producing states.
Answer:
The major maize-producing states are Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 9.
Why is tea processed within the tea garden?
Answer:
Tea is processed within the tea garden to restore its freshness.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 10.
Where is rubber grown?
Answer:
Rubber is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Garo Hills of Meghalaya, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe ‘slash and burn’ agriculture.
Answer:
In ‘slash and bum’ agriculture, a farmer clears’a patch of land and grows cereals and other food crops to sustain his family. When the fertility of the soil decreases, the farmer shifts to another area and clears a fresh patch of land. This shifting allows the nature to replenish the soil through natural processes. Primitive tools are used, and family or community labours are involved. Farmers depend on monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and other environmental conditions required for the crops to be grown. The productivity is low, fertilisers or other modem inputs are not used.

Question 2.
What are the various terms used for ‘slash and burn’ agriculture in various parts of the country and the world?
Answer:
It is known as Jhumming in the north¬eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland; Pamlou in Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is known as Dahiya or Bewar in Madhya Pradesh, Podu or Penda in Andhra Pradesh; Pama Dabi, Koman or Bringa in Odisha, Kumari in Western Ghats, Valre or Waltre in South-eastern Rajasthan, Khil in the Himalayan belt and Kuruwa in Jharkhand.

Question 3.
What is intensive subsistence farming? Why there is immense pressure on agricultural land in this type of farming?
Answer:
Intensive subsistence farming is labour-intensive farming. High doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used to obtain higher production. This type of farming is practised in the areas of high population. The ‘right of inheritance’ has led to division of land among successive generations, which has rendered land-holding size uneconomical. However, the farmers continue to extract maximum output from the limited land in the absence of alternative source of livelihood. Therefore, there is a tremendous pressure on agricultural land in this type of farming.

Question 4.
Discuss the characteristics of commercial farming.
Answer:
Commercial farming includes the use of higher doses of modem inputs, e.g., high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity. The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to another. For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop. Plantation is also a type of commercial farming.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 5.
What are the features of plantation agriculture?
Answer:
Plantation is a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. It has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital-intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. As the production is only for the market, a well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.

Question 6.
Give the geographical conditions required for the growth of rice. In which states is rice grown?
Answer:
Rice is a kharif crop. It grows in high temperature, above 25°C and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. In the areas of less rainfall, it grows . with the help of irrigation. Rice is grown in the plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions. Development of dense network of canal irrigation and tube wells has iffade it possible to grow rice in the areas of less rainfall, such as Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan.

Question 7.
Why are pulses grown in rotation with other crops? What is the rank of India in the world in pulse production and name the various pulses and states growing them.
Answer:
Except arhar, all pulses are leguminous crops. They help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. These pulses are grown in rotation with other crops. India is the largest producer as well as consumer of pulses in the world. These are the major sources of protein in a vegetarian diet. Major pulses grown in India are tur, urad, moong, masur, peas and gram. Major pulse producing states of India are Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Question 8.
What type of soil and climatic conditions are required for growing rubber? Where is it grown and discuss its use.
Answer:
Rubber requires moist and humid climate with rainfall more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C. It is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Garo hills of Meghalaya. Rubber has various uses. It is an important industrial raw material. It is used for making cycle tyres and tubes, auto tyres and tubes, camel back, footwears, belts and hoses, latex foam, dipped goods, and other products.

Question 9.
Specify the geographical conditions required for the growth of cotton. In which states is cotton grown?
Answer:
Cotton is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to grow. It needs high temperature, light rainfall, 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth. Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan plateau. Major cotton producing states are Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 10.
Write a short note on fibre crops.
Answer:
Four major fibre crops grown in India are cotton, jute, hemp and natural silk. While cotton, jute and hemp are crops grown in the soil, silk is obtained from cocoons of silkworms fed on green leaves, especially mulberry. Rearing of silkworms for the production of silk fibre is known as sericulture.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between rabi, kharif and zaid cropping seasons.

Rabi cropsKharif cropsZaid crops
(i) These are sown in winter from October to December.(iii) These are sown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country.(ii) In between the rabi and kharif seasons, there is a short season during summer months, known as the zaid season.
(ii) Wheat, barley, peas, gram, mustard are rabi crops.(ii) Paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur, moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut, soyabean are kharif crops.(ii) Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops are zaid crops. Sugarcane takes a year to grow.
(iii) These are harvested in summer from April to June.(iii) These are harvested in September-October.

Question 2.
Write the conditions required for growing sugarcane. What are the uses of sugarcane? Name the sugarcane producing states.
Answer:
Sugarcane is a tropical as well as a subtropical crop. ,

  1. It grows well in hot and humid climate with a temperature of 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100 cm.
  2. Irrigation is required in regions of low rainfall. ‘
  3. It can grdw on a variety of soil.
  4. It needs manual labour from sowing to harvesting. It is-the main source of sugar, gur (jaggery), khandsari and molasses. The major sugarcane producing states are Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab, and Haryana.

Question 3.
Name the different types of oilseeds grown in India and its uses. Identify the kharif and rabi oilseeds.
Answer:
Different types of oilseeds are grown covering approximately 12 per cent of the total cropped area of the country. Major oilseeds produced in India are groundnut, mustard, and coconut, sesame (til), soyabean, castor seeds, cotton seeds, linseed and sunflower seeds. Most of the oilseeds are edible and used as cooking mediums.

Some of them are also used as raw material in the production of soap, cosmetics and ointments. Groundnut is a kharif crop. Linseed and mustard are rabi crops. Sesame is a kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south India. Castor seed is grown both as rabi and kharif crop.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 4.
Mention the geographical conditions favourable for tea cultivation. Name the states where tea plantations are found.
Answer:
Tea grows well in tropical and subtropical climates.

  1. Tea requires deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter.
  2. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost- free climate all through the year.
  3. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves.
  4. It is processed within the tea garden to restore its freshness. Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts of West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura also produce tea.

Question 5.
Describe the technological and institutional reforms in agriculture in India after Independence.
Answer:
Agriculture which provides livelihood for more than 60 per cent of its population needed some serious technical and institutional reforms. Government introduced the reforms in the J 960s and 1970s.

  1. Collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring institutional reforms in the country after independence.
  2. Land teform was the main focus of the First Five-Year Plan.
  3. Green Revolution based on the use of package technology and White Revolution (Operation Flood) were some of the strategies initiated to improve Indian agriculture.
  4. In the 1980s and 1990s, a comprehensive land development programme was initiated, which included both institutional and technical reforms.
  5. Steps like provision for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease, establishment of Grameert banks, cooperative societies and loan facilities for farmers by banks at low interest rates were taken.
  6. Kisan Credit Card (KCC) and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) were schemes introduced by the Government of India for the benefit of the farmers.
  7. Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes were broadcasted on television and radio.
  8. The government has also announced minimum support price, remunerative and procurement prices for important crops to check the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.

Question 6.
Discuss the Bhoodan-Gramdan movement initiated by Vinoba Bhave.
Answer:
Vinoba Bhave was one of the votaries of Gandhi’s concept of gram swarajya. In Andhra Pradesh, few landless villagers demanded land for their economic well-being. Vinoba Bhave assured that he would talk to the Government of India regarding provision of land if they undertook cooperative farming. Shri Ram Charan Reddy offered 80 acres of land to be distributed among the landless villagers. This was known as Bhoodan. Some zamindars offered to distribute villages among the landless. This was known as Gramdan. Many landowners, in fear of land ceiling act, chose to provide some part of their land to the poor farmers. This was known as Bhoodan-Gramdan movement or Blood-less Revolution.

Activity Based Questions

Question 1.
On a political map of India, mark the cotton, jute and rubber producing regions.
Answer:
Jute, cotton and rubber producing regions
JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture 1

Question 2.
On a political map of India, mark the tea and coffee producing regions of India.
Answer:
Tea and coffee producing regionsg.
JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture 3

Question 3.
On a political map of India, mark the sugarcane producing regions of India.
Answer:
Sugarcane producing regions
JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture 2

Question 4.
Study the picture carefully and answer the following questions:
JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture 5
(a) Who introduced tea plantation in India?
(b) What type of labour is required for this industry or plantation?
(c) What is the rank of India in tea production in the world?
Answer:
(a) Tea cultivation was introduced in India by the British.
(b) Abundant, cheap and skilled labour is required for this industry.
(c) As per 2015-16 records, India was the second largest producer of tea after China.

Question 5.
Study the pictures carefully and answer the following questions:
JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture 6
(a) What is the rank of India in fruits and vegetables production in the world?
(b) Where are apples, pears, apricots and walnuts grown?
(c) Name the vegetables grown in India.
Answer:
(a) India ranks second in fruits and vegetables production in the world, after China.
(b) Apples, pears, apricots and walnuts are grown in Jammu and Kashmir, and Himachal Pradesh.
(c) India is an important producer of pea, cauliflower, onion, cabbage, tomato, brinjal and potato.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter  4 Agriculture

JAC Class 10th Geography Agriculture InText Questions and Answers

Page 34

Question 1.
Can you name some industries based on agricultural raw material?
Answer:
Few industries based on agricultural raw materials are the oilseed industry, jute and cotton industry, woollen and textile industry, paper industry and food processing units.

Question 2.
Can you name some such types of farmings?
Answer:
Jhumming: The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in Mexico and Central America, ‘Conuco’ in Venzuela, ‘Roca’ in Brazil, ‘Masole’ in Central Africa, ‘Ladang’ in Indonesia, ‘Ray’ in Vietnam. In India, this primitive form of cultivation is called ‘Bewar’ or ‘Dahiya’ in Madhya Pradesh, ‘Podu’ or ‘Penda’ in Andhra Pradesh, ‘Pama Dabi’ or ‘Roman’ or Bringa’ in Odisha, ‘Kumari’ in Western Ghats, ‘Valre’ or ‘Waltre’ in South-eastern Rajasthan, ‘Khil’ in the Himalayan belt, ‘Kuruwa’ in Jharkhand, and ‘Jhumming’ in the Northeastern region.

Poge 35

Question 3.
Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring.

She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family’s search for fresh a patch of land in the next season. Can you name the type of farming Rinjha’s family is engaged in?
Answer:
Rinjha’s family is engaged in ‘slash and bum’ or jhumming agriculture.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 4.
Can you enlist some crops which are grown in such farming?
Answer:
Crops such as jowar, millet, cassava, com, beans, etc. are grown.

Question 5.
Can you name some of the states of India where intensive subsistence farming is practised?
Answer:
Intensive subsistence farming is practised in Punjab, some parts of Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Haryana.

Question 6.
Can you give some more examples of crops which may be commercial in one region and may provide subsistence in another region?
Answer:
While wheat is grown on a large scale as a commercial crop in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh, it is grown as a subsistence crop in eastern states like Bihar and West Bengal.

Page 42

Question 7.
List the items w hich are made of rubber and are used by us.
Answer:
Rubber is an important industrial raw material. It is used for a variety of purposes
JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture 1

Page 45

Question 8.
Can you name any gene-modified seed used vastly in India?
Answer:
Cotton is the only gene-modified see vastly used in India

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 9.
Change in cropping patterns, for example, from cereals to high-value crops will mean that India will have to import food. During 1960s this would have been seen as a disaster. But if India imports cereals while exporting high-value commodities, it will be following successful economies like Italy, Israel and Chile. These countries export farm products (fruits, olives, especially seeds and wine) and import cereals. Are we ready to take this risk? Debate the issue.
Answer:
Self-help.
Hints:

  1. India can take this risk with the assistance from the government.
  2. Some government-owned land or cooperatives can be involved in the beginning for trial.
  3. If the crop production is successful and there is a good sale, then gradually the cropping pattern can be changed.
  4. Farmers need to be educated on the techniques of cultivating high-value crops

JAC Class 10th Geography Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.
(i) Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area?
(a) Shifting agriculture
(b) Plantation agriculture
(c) Horticulture
(d) Intensive agriculture
Answer:
(b) Plantation agriculture

(ii) Which one of the following is a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Gram
(c) Millets
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Gram

(iii) Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?
(a) Pulses
(b) Jowar
(c) Millets
(d) Sesamum
Answer:
(a) Pulses

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in 30 words.
(a) Name one important beverage crop and specify the geographical conditions required for its growth.

(b) Naitte one staple crop of India and the regions where it is produced.

(c) Enlist the various institutional reform programmes introduced by the government in the interest of farmers.

(d) The land under cultivation has got reduced day by day. Can you imagine its consequences?
Answer:
(a) Tea is an important beverage crop. It grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates having deep and fertile well- drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over
the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. It is processed within the tea garden to restore its freshness.

(b) Rice is a staple crop of a majority of the people in India. It is grown in the plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions. Development of dense network of canal irrigation and tube wells has made it possible to grow rice in the areas of less rainfall, such as Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan.

(c) The Government of India introduced several institutional reforms for the benefit of the farmers and agriculture of India. Land reform was the main focus of our first five year plan. Collectivisation, consolidation of land holdings, cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring institutional reforms in the country after Independence. 1980s and 1990s a land development programme was initiated, which included both institutional and technical reforms.

(d) The competition for land between non- agricultural uses such as housing, etc. and agriculture has led to reduction in net sown area. This will lead to shortage of food. Food is a basic need and every citizen of the country should have access to food which provides minimum nutritional balance. There will be a huge pressure on the country’s future food security.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in about 120 words:
(a) Suggest the initiative taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural production.
(b) Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian agriculture.
(c) Describe the geographical conditions required for the growth of rice.
Answer:
(a) Various initiatives taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural production are:

  1. Collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of Zamindari, etc., were given priority to bring about institutional reforms in the country after independence.
  2. Laftd Reform was the main focus of our ‘First Five Year Plan’.
  3. The Green Revolution was based on the use of package technology and the White Revolution were some of the strategies initiated to improve the Indian agriculture.
  4. provision for crop insurance against drought, floods, diseases, etc.
  5. Grameen Banks, Kissan Credit Card and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme are some of the reforms by the Indian Government for the benefit of the farmers.

(b) Globalisation has been existent since the time of colonisation of India. After the 1990s, the Indian farmers have been exposed to new challenges as they are not able to compete with the developed countries because of the highly subsidised agriculture in those countries.

A fewveconomists think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they keep growing foodgrains on small landholdings for ever increasing population. Despite being an important producer of rice, cottbn, rubber, tea, coffee, jute and spices, the agricultural products are unable to face the stiff competition.

Overuse of chemicals, dying aquifers and vanishing diversity has led to land degradation. It is said that Green Revolution is responsible for it.Farmers should adopt to genetic engineering, which is recognised as a powerful supplement in inventing new hybrid varieties of seeds. Organic farming has become popular. Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will increase income and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

(c) Rice is a kharif crop. It requires high temperature, above 25°C and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation. Rice grows well in the plains of north and north¬eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions. Development of dense network of canal irrigation and tube wells has made it possible to grow rice in the areas of less rainfall, such as, Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan.

NCERT ‘Project’ Work

Question 1.
Group discussion on the necessity of literacy among farmers.
Answer:
Self-help Hints:

  1. Literacy is a must for development and progress of a country.
  2. Farmers of a country need proper guidance to understand the quality of their land, what is required to keep their land fertile. To know and understand this, they need to be literate.
  3. They need to know how to run and maintain all the farming machines and implements.
  4. To understand what nutrients, fertilisers and pesticides are required for their soil.
  5. To read and understand the terms and conditions of loans taken from various sources.

Question 2.
On an outline map of India show major wheat and rice producing states.
JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture 3

NCERT Activity

Solve the puzzle by following your search horizontally and vertically to find the hidden answers.

Question 1.
The two staple food crops of India.
Answer:
Rice and wheat

Question 2.
This is the summer cropping season of India.
Answer:
Kharif

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 3.
Pulses like arhar, moong, gram, urad contain
Answer:
Protein

Question 4.
It is a coarse grain.
Answer:
Jo war

Question 5.
The two important beverages in India are…….
Answer:
Tea, Coffee

Question 6.
One of the four major fibres grown on black soils.
Answer:
Cotton
JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture 4

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

JAC Class 10th Economics Consumer Rights Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why are rules and regulations required in the marketplace? Illustrate with a few examples.
Answer:
Rules and regulations are required in the market place to protect the consumers from unfair trade practices and exploitation by the sellers. Exploitation in the marketplace happens in various ways. For example, sometimes traders indulge in unfair trade practices, such as, when shopkeepers weigh less than what they should or when traders add charges that were not mentioned before, or when adulterated/defective goods are sold.

Question 2.
What factors gave birth to the consumer movement in India? Trace its evolution.
Answer:
The consumer movement arose out of dissatisfaction of the consumers as many unfair practices were being indulged in by the sellers.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 3.
Explain the need for consumer consciousness by giving two examples.
Answer:
Consumer consciousness is when consumers acquire knowledge about their rights to become a well – informed consumer, while purchasing various goods and services, e.g.,

  1. While buying commodities check for logos like ISI, Agmark or Hallmark. These logos and certification help consumers get assured of quality while purchasing the goods and services.
  2. Consumer Rights to healthy environment against water, noise and air pollution.

Question 4.
Mention a few factors which cause exploitation of consumers.
Answer:
Traders try to earn a profit by using unfair means like weighing less, unfair trade practices and resort to adulteration, hoarding and black – marketing. Ignorance of the consumers.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 5.
What is the rationale behind the enactment of Consumer Protection Act 1986?
Answer:
The Indian Government enacted the Consumer Protection Act in 1986, popularly known as COPRA for the protection of consumers.

  1. Putting pressure on pvt. firms and the govt, to curb unfair trade practices.
  2. Recognising various rights of the consumers to seek redressal.

Question 6.
Describe some of your duties as consumers if you visit a shopping complex in your locality.
Answer:
Join Consumer Awareness Organisations, take warrantee card with purchase, cash memos/bills with items, purchase quality marke products with ISI mark, Agmark, etc., make complaints for genuine grievances.

Question 7.
Suppose you buy a bottle of honey and a biscuit packet. Which logo or mark you will have to look for and why?
Answer:
We would look for the ‘agmark’ symbol on them because this mark is certified by the government and assures the quality of the product.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 8.
What legal measures were taken by the government to empower the consumers in india?
Answer:

  1. Under COPRA a three-tier quasi – judicial machinery at the district, state and national levels was. set up for redressai of consumer disputes.
  2. The district level court deals with the cases involving claims upto 20 Iakh, the state level courts between 20 lakh and I crore and the national level court deals with the cases involving claims exceeding 1 crore.
  3. Thus, the Act has enabled us as consumers to have the right to represent in the consumer courts.

Question 9.
Mention some of the rights of consumers and write a few sentences on each. j
Answer:

  1. Right to safety: The consumers have the right to be protected against the selling of hazardous goods to life and property.
  2. Right to be informed: Consumers have the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, purity, standard and price of goods.
  3. Right to be informed: Consumers can raise their voice against exploitation at consumer forums or consumer courts.
  4. Right to choose: Consumers have a right to choice from various goods and services at competitive prices.
  5. Right to seek Redressal: Consumers have the right to fair settlement or compensation of genuine grievances against unfair trade practices or exploitation.

Question 10.
By what means can the consumers express their solidarity?
Answer:
Consumer Clubs, Resident Welfare Associations are some of the ways in which consumers can express their solidarity.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 11.
Critically examine the progress of consumer movement in India.
Answer:

  1. The consumer redressal process in India is time-consuming and expensive as a consumer has to engage the lawyers.
  2. If cash memos are not issued evidences are not easy to gather.
  3. The existing laws are also not very clear on the issue of compensation for defective products.
  4. Laws to protect workers in the unorganised sectors are weak.
  5. Rules and regulations for working of markets are often not followed.

Question 12.
Match the following.

(i) Availing details of ingredients of a product(a) Right to safety
(ii) Agmark(b) Dealing with consumer cases
(iii) Accident due to faulty engine in a scooter(c) Certification of edible oil and cereals
(iv) District – Consumer Courtt(d) Agency that develop standards for goods and services
(v) Consumers  International(e) Right to information
(vi) Bureau of Indian Standards(f) Global level institution of consumer welfare organisations

Answer:

(i) Availing details of ingredients of a product(e) Right to information
(ii) Agmark(c) Certification of edible oil and cereals
(iii) Accident due to faulty engine in a scooter(a) Right to safety
(iv) District – Consumer Courtt(b) Dealing with consumer cases
(v) Consumers . International(f) Global level institution of consumer welfare organisations
(vi) Bureau of Indian Standards(d) Agency that develop standards for goods and services

Question 13.
(i) COPRA applies only to goods.
Answer:
False

(ii) India is one of the many countries in the world which has exclusive courts for consumer redressal.
Answer:
True

(iii) When a consumer feels that he has been exploited, he must file a case in the District Consumer Court.
Answer:
True

(iv) It is worthwhile to move to consumer courts only if the damages incurred are of high value.
Answer:
False

(v) Hallmark is the certification maintained for standardisation of jewelry.
Answer:
True

(vi) The consumer redressal process is very simple and quick.
Answer:
False

(vii) A consumer has the right to get compensation depending on the degree of the damage.
Answer:
False

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions