Prasanna – Page 92 – Jharkhand Board Solution

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 7 Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation

June 4, 2022May 27, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 7 Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation

JAC Class 8th History Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation InText Questions and Answers

Page 85

Question 1.
Imagine you are living in the 1850s. You hear of Wood’s Despatch. Write about your reactions.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.
Hint:

As an Indian one would be quite as¬tonished to reject knowledge of the east in total.
Wood’s Despatch identified grave errors in our education system.
The British believed that by learn¬ing English education we would be more rational, scientific but they have failed to understand our most reversed spiritual text.

Page 88

Question 2.
Imagine you were born in a poor fam¬ily in the 1850s. How would you have responded to the coming of the new system of government regulated path- shalas?
Answer:
I would have responded against the new system of government regulated pathshalas because children from poor families like me were able to attend the pathshala as the time table was flexible but the new system don’t have flexibility and have strict rules.

Question 3.
Did you know that about 50 per cent of the children going to primary school drop out of school by the time they are 13 or 14? Can you think of the various possible reasons for this fact?
Answer:
The various possible reason for this fact are:

Poverty
Unemployment
Child labour
Unavailability of schools in villages and backward areas
Due to lack of knowledge and illiteracy, people don’t give importance to education.

Question 4.
Imagine you were witness to a debate between Mahatma Gandhi and Macaulay on English education. Write a page on the dialogue you heard.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own with the help of teacher.
Hints:
Mahatma Gandhi:
In. the minds of millions of Indians, English education has created a feeling of inferiority.

Macauley:
People need to be more civilized and this can be done only by English education.

Mahatma Gandhi:
Education should be such that could help Indians to restore their self-respect and sense of dignity.

Macauley:
A single shelf of a good European Library is worth than the whole native Indian literature. And so on….

JAC Class 8th History Civilising the Native, Educating the NationTextbook Questions and Answers

(LePsRecair)

Question 1.
Match the following:

William Jones	promotion of English education
Rabindranath Tagore	respect for ancient cultures
Thomas Macaulay	gurus
Mahatma Gandhi	learning in a natural environment
Pathshalas	critical of English education

Answer:

William Jones	respect for ancient cultures
Rabindranath Tagore	learning in a natural environment
Thomas Macaulay	promotion of English education
Mahatma Gandhi	critical of English education
Pathshalas	gurus

Question 2.
State whether true or false:
(a) James Mill was a severe critic of the Orientalists.
(b) The 1854 Despatch on education was in favour of English being introduced as a medium of higher education in India.
(c) Mahatma Gandhi thought that promotion of literacy was the most important aim of education.
(d) Rabindranath Tagore felt that children ought to be subjected to strict discipline.
Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) False
(d) False

(Let’s Discuss)

Question 3.
Why did William Jones feel the need to study Indian history, philosophy and law?
Answer:
William Jones felt the need to study Indian history, philosophy and law because only those texts could reveal the real ideas and laws of the Hindus and Muslims and only a new study of these texts could form the basis of future development in India.

Question 4.
Why did James Mill and Thomas Macaulay think that European education was essential in India?
Answer:
James Mill and Thomas Macaulay thought that European education was essential in India because the education should be useful and practical. They also thought that Indians are need to be civilized and should be made familiar with the Western culture and modernisation.

Question 5.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi want to teach children handicrafts?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi wanted to teach children handicrafts because he felt that education ought to develop a person’s mind and soul. Literacy to read and write by itself did not count as education. People had to work with their hands, team a craft, and know how different things operated This would develop their mind and their capacity to understand.

Question 6.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi think that English education had enslaved Indians?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi thought that English education had enslaved Indians because of the following reasons:

British education created a sense of inferiority in the minds of Indians.
It made them see Western civilisation as superior and destroyed the pride they had in their own culture.
Indians educated in these institutions began admiring British rule.

(let’s Do)

Question 7.
Find out from your grandparents about what they studied in school.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.

Question 8.
Find out about the history of your school or any other school in the area you live.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.
(Hint: Can write about as when the school was built and who built it. How many students are there? How the ‘ students make the school proud?)

JAC Class 8th History Civilising the Native, Educating the NationImportant Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
William Jones, a junior judge in Supreme court arrived in Calcutta in the year .
(a) 1785
(b) 1783
(c) 1789
(d) 1790
Answer:
(b) 1783

Question 2.
……….. started the Asiatic Society of Bengal.
(a) William Jones
(b) Henry Thomas Colebrooke
(c) Nathaniel Halhed
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 3.
………. felt that the Indian languages should be the medium of teaching.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) William Jones
Answer:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
The poet who reacted against the introduction of Western education in India was………
(a) Premchand
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 5.
William Carey was a…..
(a) Teacher
(b) British Officer
(c) Scottish missionary
(d) Merchant
Answer:
(c) Scottish missionary

Question 6.
In 1781, a madrasa was set up in ………to promote the study of Arabic, Persian and Islamic law.
(a) Calcutta
(b) Delhi
(c) Bombay
(d) Surat
Answer:
(a) Calcutta

Question 7.
The English Education Act was introduced in the year.
(a) 1855
(b) 1846
(c) 1875
(d) 1835
Answer:
(d) 1835

Question 8.
Charles Wood was the:
(a) President of the Board of Control of the Company.
(b) Governor General in India.
(c) Viceroy.
(d) English Professor.
Answer:
(a) President of the Board of Control of the Company.

Question 9.
In Shantiniketan, school was started by
(a) Aurobindo Ghose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer:
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 10.
Adam found that there were over ….. pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar.
(a) 2 lakhs
(b) 3 lakhs
(c) 1 lakhs
(d) 4 lakhs
Answer:
(c) 1 lakhs

Very Short Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What do you mean by linguist?
Answer:
A linguist is a person who knows and studies several languages.

Question 2.
William Jones was a linguist as well. What languages he knew?
Answer:
William Jones knew Greek, Latin, French, English, Arabic, Persian and Sanskrit.

Question 3.
Who sharply attacked the orientalists?
Answer:
James Mill and Thomas Babington Macaulay attacked the Orientalists.

Question 4.
Who had the opinion that Colonial education created sense of inferiority in the minds of Indians?

Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi had the opinion that Colonial education created sense of inferiority in the minds of Indians.

Question 5.
In which places the universities were first established by the company in India?
Answer:
Calcutta, Madras and Bombay were the places where the universities were first established by the company in India.

Question 6.
Which year did the East India Company decide to improve the system of vernacular education?
Answer:
After 1854 the Company decided to improve the system of vernacular education.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Orientalists?
Answer:
Orientalists are those who had a scholarly knowledge of the language and culture of Asia.

Question 8:
In pathshalas, what kind of education was given to the children?
Answer:
In pathshalas, teaching was oral and the guru decided what to teach in accordance with the needs of the students.

Question 9.
What type of task was assigned to the pandit by the Company?
Answer:
The type of task was assigned to the pandit by the Company was to visit the pathshalas and try to improve the standard of teaching.

Question 10.
In which way were Oriental institutions like the Calcutta Madrasa and Benaras Sanskrit College viewed by the British?
Answer:
The Oriental institutions like the Calcutta Madarsa and Benaras Sanskrit College were viewed as ‘temples of darkness that were falling of themselves into decay’.

Short Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What was the reason for the establishment of the Hindu College in Benaras?
Answer:
The reason for the establishment of the Hindu College in Benaras in 1791 was to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit texts that would be useful for the administration of the country.

Question 2.
In which way Mahatma Gandhi view literacy?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi viewed literacy as not the end of education nor even the beginning. It is only one of the means whereby men and women can be educated Literacy in itself is not education.

Question 3.
What did Thomas Macaulay urge the British government in India?
Answer:
Thomas Macaulay urged that the British government in India stop wasting money in promoting Oriental learning as it was of no practical use.

Question 4.
The East India Company opposed to missionary activities in India. Why?
Answer:
Until 1813, the East India Company was opposed to missionary activities in India because it feared that missionary activities would provoke reaction amongst the local population and make them suspicious of British presence in India.

Question 5.
What do you understand by Wood’s Despatch?
Answer:
The Court of Directors of the East India Company in London in 1854 sent an educational dispatch to the Governor General in India. This was issued by Charles Wood, the President of the Board of the Company and hence, it has come to be called as Wood’s Despatch.

Question 6.
What were the provisions of English Education Act of 1835?
Answer:
The provisions of English Education Act of 1835 were as follows:

English was made the medium of instruction for higher education.
Promotion of Oriental institutions such as the Calcutta Madrasa and Benaras Sanskrit College was stopped These institutions were seen as ‘temples of darkness that were falling of themselves into decay’.
English textbooks began to be produced for schools.

Question 7.
Explain the measures introduced by the British following the 1854 Wood’s Despatch.
Answer:
Following the 1854 Wood’s Despatch, several measures were introduced by the British as follows:

Education departments of the government were set up to extend control over all matters regarding education.
Steps were taken to establish a system of university education. Universities were established in Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
Attempts were also made to bring about changes within the system of school education.

Question 8.
Many British officials criticised the Orientalists. Why?
Answer:
From the early nineteenth century many British officials criticized the Orientalist vision of learning because they said that knowledge of the East was full of errors and unscientific thoughts. Eastern literature was non-serious and light-hearted Hence, they argued that it was wrong on the part of the British to spend so much effort in encouraging the study of Arabic and Sanskrit language and literature.

Question 9.
William Jones discover many things in Calcutta. What were they?
Answer:
William Jones mainly discovered the ancient Indian heritage. He discovered through his studies on ancient Indian texts on law, religion, arithmetic, medicine, science, philosophy. Soon he discovered that the interests were shared by many British officials living in Calcutta that time.

Question 10.
List the main features of educational method followed in pathshalas.
Answer:
The main features of educational method followed in pathshalas were as follows:

There were no formal schools.
Teaching was oral and guru decided what to teach.
The system of education was flexible.
In some places, classes were held in open spaces.
There were no fixed school fees, no books, no annual exams, no regular time-table.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Describe in brief the irregularities of pathshalas which were checked by the Company.
Answer:
Steps taken by the Company to check the irregularities of pathshalas were:

It appointed a number of government pandits. Each incharge of four to five schools. The task of the pandit was to visit the pathshalas and try to improve the standard of teaching.
Each guru was asked to submit periodic reports and take classes according to a regular timetable.
Teaching was now to be based on textbooks and learning was to be tested through a system of annual examination.
Students were asked to pay a regular fee, attend regular classes, sit on fixed seats and obey the new rules of discipline.

Question 2.
Which type of education did Mahatma Gandhi want in India?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi’s views on education was as follows:

Mahatma Gandhi wanted an education that could help Indians recover their sense of dignity and self-respect.
Mahatma Gandhi strongly felt that Indian languages should be the medium of teaching. Education in English crippled Indians, distanced them from their own social surroundings, and made them ‘strangers in their own lands’.
Civilising the “Native”, Educating the Nation
Speaking a foreign tongue, despising local culture, the English educated did not know how to relate to the masses.
He argued that education ought to develop a person’s mind and soul. Literacy to read and write by itself did not count as education.
People had to work with their hands, learn a craft, and know how different things operated This would develop their mind and their capacity to understand.

Question 3.
Explain about Rabindranath Tagore and his school Shantiniketan.
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore like many, also did not approve Western education wholeheartedly. At the time when several Indians urged the British to open more and more schools, colleges and universities in order to spread English education in India, Rabindranath Tagore reacted strongly against such education. He was a great educationist though he hated going to school because he saw it oppressive. In fact, he wanted to establish a school where the children were happy and were free to explore their thoughts and desires without feeling any suppression.

He advocated for giving children natural surroundings where they would be able to cultivate their natural creativity. In the year 1901, Rabindranath Tagore established Shantiniketan. He regarded it as an ‘abode of peace’. He set up his school 100 kilometres away from Calcutta in a rural setting in order to provide children a very peaceful environment. Here, they could develop their imagination and creativity. Tagore had the opinion that existing schools were killing the natural desires of the children to be creative. Hence, it was necessary to help them develop their curiosity by providing them good teachers who could understand them. By establishing an institution like Shantiniketan he did a great job in the field of education.

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Why Do We Need A Parliament?

June 4, 2022May 26, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Why Do We Need A Parliament?

JAC Class 8th Civics Why Do We Need A Parliament? InText Questions and Answers

Question 1:
What do you think the artist is trying to convey through the image of Parliament?
Answer:
The artist is trying to convey through the image of Parliament is that it is based on people’s strength and power. These people come from various background and shows unity is strength.

Page 32

Question 2.
Give one reason why you think there should be universal adult franchise.
Answer:
There should be universal adult franchise because it will help to establish equality in the society.

Question 3.
Do you think there would be any difference if the class monitor was selected by the teacher or elected by the students? Discuss.
Answer:
Yes, there would be a difference if the class monitor was selected by the teacher or elected by the students. If the
class monitor is chosen by the teacher then it will not be a democratic process. But, if the students of the class elect the monitor then he will be representative of the class and this shows a democratic process.

Page 35

Question 4.
Use the table to answer the questions below: Results of the 16th Lok Sabha Elections, (May 2014) Political Party No. of MPs National Parties

Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) 282
Communist Party of India (CPI) 1
Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPM) 9
Indian National Congress (INC) 44
Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) 6
State Parties (Regional Parties)
Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) 4
All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam 37
All India Trinamool Congress 34
All India United Democratic Front 3
Biju Janata Dal (BJD) 20
Indian National Lok Dal (INLD) 2
Indian Union Muslim League (IUML) 2
Jammu and Kashmir Peoples Democratic Party 3
Janata Dal (Secular) 2
Janata Dal (United) 2
Jharkhand Mukti Morcha (JMM) 2
Lok Jan Shakti Party 6
Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD) 4
Samajwadi Party (SP) 5
Who will be present for discussions in the Lok
Shiromani Akali Dal 4
Shiv Sena 18
Telangana Rashtra Samithi (TRS) 11
Telugu Desam (TDP) 16
Other Regional Parties 7
Registered Unrecognised Parties 16
Independents 3

Grand Total 543

Who will form the government? Why? Sabha?
Is this process similar to what you have read about in Class VII?

Answer:

BJP will form the government because they have the majority.
The MPs will be present for discussions in the Lok Sabha.
Yes, this process similar.

Question 4.
The photograph on page 28 shows results from the 3rd Lok Sabha elections held in 1962.

Use the photograph to answer the following questions:
(a) Which state has the highest number of MPs in the Lok Sabha? Why do you think this is so?
(b) Which state has the least number of MPs in the Lok Sabha?
(c) Which political party has won the most seats in all states?
(d) Which party do you think will form the government? Give reasons why.
Answer:
(a) Uttar Pradesh. This state has the largest population as compared to other states.
(b) Manipur.
(c) The Congress Party
(d) The Congress Party will form the government because they have won in majority.

Page 38

Question 5.
Lok Sabha Unstarred Question uestion No: 48 Answered On: 15.12.2017 Converge of Schemes for Children Manoj Rajoria Will the Minister of Women and Child Development be pleased to state:
(a) whether the Government proposes to converge various schemes and policies for children in the country;
(b) if so, the details thereof; and;
(c) if not, the reasons therefor?
Answer:
Minister of State in the Ministry of Women and Child Development (Dr. Virendra Kumar). (a) to (c) The Ministry has developed the National Plan of Action for Children 2016 which largely draws upon the existing programmes and schemes of various Ministries/Departments.

It provides a framework for convergence and co-ordination between Ministries/Departments and State/ UTs Governments and encourages collective action from all stakeholders to address multi dimensional vulnerabilities experienced by children. The National Plan of Action for Children 2016 categorizes children’s rights under four key priority areas.

(i) Survival, Health and Nutrition,

(ii) Education and Development,

(iii) Protection and

(iv) Participation. It identifies key programmes, schemes and policies as well as stakeholders for the implementation of different strategies. In the above question, what information is being sought information from the Minister of Women and Child Development? If you were a Member of Parliament (MP), list two questions that you would like to ask.
Answer:
The information which is being sought from the Minister of Women and Child Development were:

whether the Government proposes to converge various schemes and policies for children in the country;
if so, the details thereof; and;
if not, the reasons therefore.

If I were a MP, then I would have asked the following questions:

What is the government doing for women to bring at the level of men?
What is the government doing to give education to every child?

Page 39

Lok Sabha	Election Years	Voter Turnout (%)
1st	1951-52	61.16
4th	1967	61.33
5th	1971	55.29
6th	1977	60.49
8th	1984-85	64.01
10th	1991-92	55.88
14th	2004	57.98
15th	2009	58.19

Looking at this table would you say that people’s participation during the past 65 years has: decreased/increased/been stable after initial increase?
Answer:
After initial increase, it decreased and then increased again. It has been fluctuating.

Page 40

Question 7.
Why do you think there are so few women in Parliament? Discuss.
Answer:
People don’t want to accept women as rulers as our society is still a male dominating society. Hence, they avoid giving crucial roles to women. But, now, slowly perceptions are changing and women are coming in politics

JAC Class 8th Civics Why Do We Need A Parliament? Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think our national movement supported the idea that all adults have a right to vote?
Answer:
Our national movement supported the idea that all adults have a right to vote because the British government did not allow all adults to vote nor could people participate in decision making. Hence, in the struggle for independence people from all walks of life participated. They came from various backgrounds and were united in their aspirations for a free, equal and independent nation where decision-making would be in the hands of the people. The only way in which this would be possible through elections which will allow common people to have consent to and approve of a government that they have a right to choose.

Question 2.
In this 2004 map of Parliamentary constituencies alongside, roughly identify the constituencies in your State. What is the name of the MP from your constituency? How many MPs does your state have? Why are certain constituencies coloured green while others are coloured blue?

Answer:

Students need to do it on their own.
Certain constituencies are coloured green while others are coloured blue because they are reserved constituencies for SC and ST respectively.

Question 3.
You have read in Chapter 1 that the ‘Parliamentary form of government’ that exists in India has three tiers. This includes the Parliament (centra! government) and the various Sta Legislatures (state governments). Fill in the following table with information on the various representatives from your area:

Objective	State Government	CentralGovernment
Which political party/parties is/ are currently in power?
Who (name) is the current representative from your area?
Which political parties currently form the Opposition?
When were elections last held?
When will the next elections be held?
How many women representatives are there (from Question ‘our state)?

Answer:
Students need to do it on their own with the help of teacher.

JAC Class 8th Civics The Why Do We Need A Parliament? Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In democratic India, people elect their representatives to the Parliament, then, one group from among elected representatives forms the government. How long members are elected for?
(a) Five years
(b) Eight years
(c) Seven years
(d) Ten years
Answer:
(a) Five years

Question 2.
In which year Indian Parliament came to existence?
(a) 1952
(b) 1949
(c) 1950
(d) 1947
Answer:
(d) 1947

Question 3.
The election for Lok Sabha is usually occur once every five years. The elected candidates are known as
(a) Ministers of State
(b) Members of Parliament
(c) Members of Constitution
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Members of Parliament

Question 4.
Which of the following function/s the Parliament needs to perform?
(a) To make law
(b) To select the national government
(c) To control, guide and inform the government
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 5.
It may happen that one political party does not get a clear majority in election. In such a situation a group of parties come together to form a government. This type of government known as a……..
(a) coalition government
(b) admission government
(c) commission government
(d) opposition government
Answer:
(a) coalition government

Question 6.
……. functions primarily as the representative of the states of India in the Parliament.
(a)The Prime Minister
(b) The Judiciary
(c) The Rajya Sabha
(d) The President
Answer:
(c) The Rajya Sabha

Question 7.
Who is the leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha?
(a) The President
(b) The Vice President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Chief Minister
Answer:
(c) The Prime Minister

Question 8.
There are elected members plus members nominated by the President.
(a) 233; 12
(b) 133; 15
(c) 233; 15
(d) 123; 20
Answer:
(a) 233; 12

Question 9.
The Parliament keeps a heck on the ministers and their work. MPs have the right to question the ministers about the working of their department. This is usually done during .
(a) the answering hour
(b) the question hour
(c) the listening hour
(d) the analysis hour
Answer:
(b) the question hour

Question 10.
The seats are reserved in Parliament for…….
(a) the people from the army
(b) the royal family members
(c) SCs and STs
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(c) SCs and STs

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by EVM?
Answer:
EVM means Electronic Voting Machine.

Question 2:
When were EVMs used for the first time?
Answer:
EVMs were used throughout the country for the first time in the 2004 general elections.

Question 3.
Name the two Houses of Parliament.
Answer:
The two houses of Parliament are the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

Question 4.
How does the Parliament session begins?
Answer:
The Parliament, session begins with a question hour.

Question 5.
What do you mean by constituency?
Answer:
Constituency is an area whose voters elect a representative to a legislative body.

Question 6.
What is the main purpose of parliament?
Answer:
Parliament enables citizens of India to participate in decision making and control the government.

Question 7.
Who presides over Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Lok Sabha (House of the People), with a total membership of 545, is presided over by the Speaker.

Question 8.
How many members does the President nominates in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The President nominates 2 members to the Lok Sabha and 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.

Question 9.
What is the principle of universal adult franchise?
Answer:
The principle of universal adult franchise means that all adult citizens of the country have the right to vote.

Question 10
Who makes the opposition party?
Answer:
The opposition in Parliament is formed by all the political parties that oppose the majority party/coalition formed. The largest amongst these parties is called the Opposition

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Which house of parliament is more powerful with regard to financial matters and how?
Answer:
Lok Sabha is more powerful with regard to financial matters because money bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Hence, it controls the finances of the government.

Question 2.
Why do you think that there are reservation of seats in Parliament for SCs and STs?
Answer:
Some seats are reserved in Parliament for SCs and STs. This has been done so that the MPs elected from these constituencies will be familiar with and can represent Dalit and Adivasi’s interests in Parliament.

Question 3.
What is the role of opposition in’ democracy?
Answer:
The opposition parties play a crucial and important role in the healthy functioning of a democracy. They highlight drawbacks in various policies and programmes of the government and mobilise popular support for their own policies.

Question 4.
What are the basic ideals of democracy?
Answer:
The basic ideals of democracy are:
(i) The ideas of participation in decision-making.
(ii) The need for all democratic governments to have the consent of their citizens.

Question 5.
What are the major functions of the parliament?
Answer:
The major functions of the parliament are:

To select the National Government
To control, guide and inform the government
Law-Making for the people of the country.

Question 6.
What are the main components of Indian Parliament?
Answer:
The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body of the Republic of India. It is a two chambered legislature composed of the President of India and the two houses- the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People).

Question 7.
Which are the three categories of ministers that assist the Prime minister?
Answer:
The three categories of Council of Ministers are:

The Cabinet Ministers:
The Cabinet Ministers hold important portfolios like Home, Defence, Finance, External Affairs, Railways, etc.
Ministers of State:
They may or may not hold an independent charge of any portfolio.
Deputy Ministers:
They assist the Cabinet Ministers and the Council of Ministers.

Question 8.
‘With the coming of Independence we are going to be citizens of a free country’. What did it imply?
Answer:
With the coming of independence, we were going to be citizens of a free country. This implies that the government could not do what it felt like and the government had to be sensitive to people’s needs and demands. The dreams and aspirations of the freedom struggle were made concrete in the Constitution of Independent India that laid down the principle of universal adult franchise, i.e., that all adult citizens of the country have the right to vote.

Question 9.
What were the demands of the Indian National Congress in 1885?
Answer:
The nationalists began to openly criticise the British government and make demands. The Indian National Congress in 1885 demanded that there be elected members in the legislature with a right to discuss the budget and ask questions.

Question 10.
What do you mean by reserved constituencies? What is the purpose behind such constituencies?
Answer:
Reserved constituencies are those constituencies in which seats are reserved for SCs and STs on the basis of their population. This has been done so that the MPs elected from these constituencies will be familiar with and can represent Dalit and Adivasi’s interests in Parliament.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How the political party forms the government? How are the representatives elected to the Parliament in India?
Answer:
After the Lok Sabha elections, a list is prepared showing how many MPs belong to each political party. For a political party to form the government, they must have a majority of elected MPs. Since there are 543 elected (plus 2 Anglo-Indian nominated) members in Lok Sabha and to have a majority a party should have at least half the number, i.e., 272 members or more. The Parliament in our system has immense powers because it is the representative of the people.

Elections to the Parliament are held in a similar manner as they are for the state legislature. The Lok Sabha is usually elected once every five years. The country is divided into numerous constituencies. Each of these constituencies elect one person to the Parliament. The candidates who contest elections usually belong to different political parties. Once elected, these candidates become Members of Parliament or MPs. These MPs together make up the Parliament.

Question 2.
Why do you think our national movement supported the idea that all adults have a right to vote?
Answer:
Our national movement supported the idea that all adults have a right to vote because in our struggle for independence people from all walks of life participated. They came from various backgrounds and were united in their aspirations for a free, equal and independent nation where decision-making would be in the hands of the people. The only way in which this would be possible would be through elections-allowing common people advantage point from where they can consent to and approve of a government that “they” have a right to choose.

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Understanding Secularism

June 4, 2022May 26, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Understanding Secularism

JAC Class 8th Civics Understanding Secularism InText Questions and Answers

Page 19

Question 1.
Re-read the introduction to this chapter. Why do you think retaliation is not the proper response to this problem? What would happen if different groups followed this path?
Answer:
Retaliation is not the proper response to this problem because it generates lots of negative effects in the society. The security of the nation would break if different groups follow this way.

Page 20.

Question 2.
Discuss in class: Can there be different views within the same religion?
Answer:
Yes, there can be different views within the same religion. Can discuss with examples in the class answer given by the teacher.

Page 22

Answer:
The teacher answered that the school declares holidays on the occasions of national festivals and no religious ceremony is organized in the school. This is not done because we can not give importance to only one festival or religion. Though people are free to celebrate there festivals on their own way.

Question 4.
Government schools often have students from different religious backgrounds. Re-read the three objectives of a secular State and write two sentences on why it is important that government schools do not promote any one religion?
Answer:
It is important that government schools do not promote any one religion because if the government itself does not follow the rules in the Constitution, a nonnal citizen will also not understand the importance of following it. Also, it results in the discrimination between the students belonging to different religious backgrounds.

Page 25

Question 5 .
Can you think of a recent incident, from any part of India, in which the secular ideals of the Constitution were violated and persons were persecuted and killed because of their religious backgrounds?
Answer:
Students can do it on their own with the help of journals, old newspaper and internet.
Hint:
Communal riots in 2002 where there is a clear violation of secular ideas of the constitution).

JAC Class 8th Civics Understanding Secularism Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List the different types of religious practice that you find ¡n your neighbourhood. This could be different forms of prayer, worship of ditTerent gods, sacred sites, different kinds of religious music and singing, etc. Does this indicate freedom of religious practice’?
Answer:
The different types of religious practices that we can see in our neighbourhood are as follows:

Hindus visit Temple. They perform puja and worship the idols of their Gods and Goddesses. They do kirtans, satsang, jagran and yagna.
Muslims visit mosque and worship their sacred book the Question uran. They offer namaaz.
Sikhs visit Gurudwara. worship their sacred book Guru Granth Sahib by offering prayers and listening to shabad-kirtan.
Christians visit Church and worship Jesus Christ. They sing carols. Yes, this indicates freedom of religious practice as the people in India have the freedom to practice the religion of their choice while living together in peace and harmony.

Question 2.
Will the government intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practise infanticide? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Yes, the Government will intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practice infanticide. Infanticide involves the killing of an infant (a small child) which is clearly a cruel and harsh crime. This practice violates the human right ‘Right to Life’.

Question 3.
Complete the followig table:

Objective	One religious community does not dominate another.
Why is this important?	The State does not enforce any particular religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals.
Example of a violation of this objective	That some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community.

Answer:

Objective	Why is this important?	Example of a violation of this objective
One religious community does not dominate another.	This is important for maintain peace and harmony in the country.	A hindu religious procession was not allowed to cross the roads passing through the mosque.
The State does not enforce any particular religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals.	This is important to uphold the ideals of a democratic nation which gives freedom to citizens to follow any religion.	Demolition of Babri Masjid Lower caste people are discouraged to enter the temple.
That some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community.	This is important to establish the sense of equality.	Example of a violation of this objective

Question 4.
Look up the annual calendar of holidays of your school. How many of them pertain to different religions? What does this indicate?
Answer:
The annual calendar of our school marks several holidays that pertain to different religions. Various festivals for which holidays are declared are mentioned below:

Religion	Holidays
Hindu festivals	Diwali, Holi, Dussehra, Shivratri, Ram Navmi
Muslim festivals	Id-ul-zuha, Id-ul-fitar, Muharram
Sikh festivals	Gum Nanak Jayanti. Gum Gobind Singh Jayanti, Vaisakhi, Lohri
Christian festivals	Christmas, Good Friday

This clearly proves that India is a secular country and here all the religions are equally respected.

Question 5.
Find out some examples of different views within the same religion.
Answer:
Many religions in our country are further divided into groups and communities that hold opinions differing from each other. Some examples of such groups and communities existing within the same religion are given below:

In Hindu religion, there are hundreds of gods and goddesses that are worshipped by different groups of people and in different forms.
Jains are divided into Shwetambar and Digambar.
Muslims are divided into Shias and Sunnis.
Buddhist followers are divided into Mahayana and Hinayana.

Question 6.
The Indian State both keeps away from religion as well as intervenes in religion. This idea can be quite confusing. Discuss this once again in class using examples from the chapter as well as those that you might have come up with.
Answer:
The Indian state both keeps away from religion, as well as intervenes in religion. The central as well as state governments declare holidays on the occasions of festivals belonging to different religions, but no religious function is celebrated by any of the governments. People of the country are free to celebrate these religious festivals in their own way. However, the Indian state comes to intervene only if any religious practice disturbs the peace and harmony of the country. If some section of the people belonging to the same religion are denied the right to enter their place of worship then the state can intervene to resolve the issue and help the deprived section regain its rights.

Question 7.
This poster alongside highlights the need for ‘Peace’. It says, “Peace is a never-ending process…. It cannot ignore our differences or overlook our common interests.” Write in your own words what you think the above sentences are trying to convey? How does it relate to the need for religious tolerance?

This chapter had three drawings on religious tolerance made by students of your age. Design your own poster on religious tolerance for your peers.
Answer:
This poster gives us a message for the establishment of peace and harmony. It clarifies that peace is a long-cherished process and we cannot ignore the differences or interests. Only after establishing a coordination between the common interests, peace can be maintained. It relates to the religious tolerance because it is the most sensitive issue. Students need to do this part on their own as they have to draw posters on religious tolerance.

JAC Class 8th Civics Understanding Secularism Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Only a secular State can realise its objectives to ensure the following which is according to the Constitution:
(a) One religious community does not dominate another.
(b) Some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community.
(c) The State does not enforce any particular religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 2.
Secularism is important because
(a) Acts of discrimination take place more easily when one religion is given official recognition by the State at the expense of other religions.
(b) Acts of discrimination does not take place more easily when one religion is given official recognition by the other countries at the expense of other religions.
(c) Acts of discrimination take place more easily when one religion is not given official recognition by the State at the expense of other religions.
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Acts of discrimination take place more easily when one religion is given official recognition by the State at the expense of other religions.

Question 3.
India follows a strategy of non interference because:
(a) For faster economic development of the country.
(b) To achieve objectives of a truly religious State.
(c) To achieve objectives of a secular State.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) To achieve objectives of a secular State.

Question 4.
The term secularism refers to the separation between the power of and the power of the State.
(a) law
(b) religion
(c) science
(d) colonisation
Answer:
(b) religion

Question 5.
Everyone should wear helmets while riding a two-wheeler but Sikh people are not wearing helmets because
(a) Pagri (turban) protects person’s head equal to helmet.
(b) the Indian State recognises that wearing a pagri (turban) is central to a Sikh religious practice and inorder not to interfere with this, allows an exception in the law.
(c) the Indian State recognises that wearing a pagri (turban) is in fashion to a Sikh religious practice and in order not to interfere with this, allows an exception in the law.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) the Indian State recognises that wearing a pagri (turban) is central to a Sikh religious practice and inorder not to interfere with this, allows an exception in the law.

Question 6.
Untouch ability is an old age practice of……..
(a) Islam
(b) Sikhism
(c) Hinduism
(d) Buddhism
Answer:
(c) Hinduism

Question 7.
………….. can not be done in government schools.
(a) Celebrate religious festivals
(b) Celebrate national festivals
(c) Sing the national song
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Celebrate religious festivals

Question 8.
………is not in Indian Constitution.
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Reservations
(c) Equality
(d) Discrimination
Answer:
(d) Discrimination

Question 9.
During Hitler’s rule, in Germany.
(a) assassination of Mahatma Gandhi
(b) killing of Jews
(c) end of World War
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) killing of Jews

Question 10.
Majority of the population of Israel is ……
(a) Jewish
(b) Muslim
(c) Christian
(d) Buddhism
Answer:
(a) Jewish

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘freedom to interpret’?
Answer:
‘Freedom to interpret’ means an individual’s liberty to develop his own understanding and meaning of the religious teachings.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the concept of ‘principled distance’?
Answer:
The concept of ‘principled distance’ means that any interference in religion by the State has to be based on the ideals laid out in the Constitution.

Question 3.
How are non-Muslims treated in Saudi Arabia?
Answer:
In Saudi Arabia, non-Muslims are not allowed to build a temple, church, etc., nor can they gather in a public place for prayers.

Question 4.
Define the word ‘establishment’.
Answer:
The word ‘establishment’ means that the legislature cannot declare any religion as the official religion. Nor can they give preference to one religion.

Question 5.
State the most important aspect of secularism.
Answer:
The most important aspect of secularism is its separation of religion from State power. This is important for a country to function democratically.

Question 6.
List the former French colonies.
Answer:
The former French colonies are Morocco, Algeria and Tunisia.

Question 7.
Can anyone criticize the unpopular laws? If yes, by which medium?
Answer:
Yes, anyone criticize the unpopular laws. The medium can be newspaper, journals, social media, Television, etc.

Question 8.
What do you mean by controversial law?
Answer:
A law when it supports a group or community or disregard a group or community is called as a controversial law.

Question 9.
What do you mean by coercion?
Answer:
Coercion is a process in which we the people make other people do something forcefully or oppressing them with power.

Question 10.
Define majority.
Answer:
The people who are more in number in a fixed geographical area or in a fixed demography is known as majority.

Question 11.
When does a Bill become an Act?
Answer:
A Bill becomes an Act after the assent of the President.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What provision has been made by the government to follow religious equality in government spaces, schools and offices?
Answer:
In India, government spaces like law courts, police stations, government schools and offices are not supposed to display or promote any one religion. Government schools cannot promote any one religion either in their morning prayers or through religious celebrations.

Question 2.
How the act of discrimination took place?
Answer:
The act of discrimination takes place when members of one religious community either oppress, ill-treat or discriminate against members of other religious communities. These occurs more easily when one religion is given official recognition by the State at the expense of other religions.

Question 3.
For what reason government schools are not allowed to celebrate religious festival?
Answer:
Government schools are not allowed to celebrate religious festival because the celebration would be a violation of the government’s policy of treating all religions equally. Government schools cannot promote any one religion either in their morning prayers or through religious celebrations.

Question 4.
What is secularism in Indian context?
Answer:
Secularism refers to the separation of religion from the State. The Indian Constitution allows individuals the freedom to live by their religious beliefs and practices as they interpret these ideas. In keeping with this idea of religious freedom for all, India had adopted a strategy of separating the . power of religion and the power of the State.

Question 5.
When was law passed by French government banning religious symbols in school? What was its impact?
Answer:
In February 2004, France passed a law banning students from wearing any conspicuous religious or political signs or symbols such as the Islamic headscarf, the Jewish skullcap, or large Christian crosses. This law has encountered a lot of resistance from immigrants who are mainly from the former French colonies of Algeria, Tunisia and Morocco.

Question 6.
How does the Indian constitution ensure its objectives of secular state?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution ensures its objectives of a secular state in the following manner:

One religious community does not dominate another.
Some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community.
State does not enforce any particular religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals.

Question 7.
With the help of a situation prove that the Indian secular state can intervene to prevent the religious domination concerning different groups of the same religion.
Answer:
Where members of the same religion, the upper-caste Hindus dominate other members the lower castes within it. In order to prevent this religion-based and excludes and that violates the Fundamental Rights of people who are citizens of this country. exclusion and discrimination of lower castes, the Indian Constitution banned untouchability. In this situation, the State is intervening in religion in order to end a social practice that it believes discriminates and excludes that violates the Fundamental Rights of lower castes who are citizens of the country.

Question 8.
State Article 17 in the Right to Equality, in the Indian constitution.
Answer:
Article 17 in the Right to Equality is related to the ‘Abolition of Untouchability’ in the Indian constitution.
It states that ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability rising out of Untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.”

Question 9.
In which way the different laws are made by the government?
Answer:
When the government feels the necessity to implement certain rules and regulations inside the country for the people, it derives a law and passes it in both the parliament houses. Finally with the assent and approval from the President this becomes the law and act as a force.

Question 10.
What do you understand by Indian Secularism.
Answer:
India Secularism can be understood by the following ways:
(i) Here, one religion community does not dominate the other religion community.
(ii) Some groups of religious community does not dominate the another group of same religious community.
(iii) The States provides security to every religious community and does not imposes their own religion to other community.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does the Indian state work to prevent domination of the majority religious group?
Answer:
The Indian State works in various ways to prevent the domination of the majority religious groups in the following manner:

(i) First, it uses a strategy of distancing itself from religion. The Indian State is not ruled by a religious group and nor does it support any one religion. In India, government spaces like law courts, police stations, government schools and offices are not supposed to display or promote any one religion.

(ii) Secondly, Indian secularism works to prevent the above domination is through a strategy of non¬interference. This means that in order to respect the sentiments and give respect to all religions and not interfere with religious practices, the State makes certain exceptions for particular religious communities.

(iii) Third, Indian secularism works to prevent the domination listed earlier is through a strategy of intervention. The State intervenes in religion in order to end a social practice that it believes discriminates and excludes and that violates the Fundamental Rights of people who are citizens of this country.

Question 2.
Explain the Hindu Succession Amendment Act, 2005.
Answer:
The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 was enacted to remove gender discriminatory provisions in the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. According to the Hindu Succession Amendment Act, 2005 sons, daughters and their mothers can get an equal share of family property after the death of their father. Before this act, only the son of the family was eligible to inherit the property of his father.

There were several cases in front of the court of law regarding the discrimination taking places in families ‘ for the properties of their father. To tackle this gender discrimination and biasedness, the government brought the Hindu Succession Amendment Act, 2005. This was applied on all the religions – Hindus, Jains, Sikhs, and Buddhists. This Act enabled comprehensive system of inheritance without any sort of discrimination.

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 The Indian Constitution

June 4, 2022May 26, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 The Indian Constitution

JAC Class 8th Civics The Indian Constitution InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss with your teacher what you understand by the term ‘constitutive’. Provide one example of ‘constitutive rules’ from your everyday life.
Answer:
Students need to attempt it on their own (with the help of their teacher).
Hint:
Constitutive means fundamental.

Question 2.
Why did the people of Nepal want a new Constitution?
Answer:
The people of Nepal wanted a new Constitution because the country got a new democratic government and they were free from monarch rule. Hence, they need to change all its constitutive rules to make a new country for the people of Nepal.

Page 7

Question 3.
In what way is the class monitor misusing his power?
Answer:
The class monitor made false complains about Anil to the teacher. In this way, he was misusing his power. Though Anil did not do anything but the class monitor convinced the teacher that Anil was not obeying him and was talking loudly in the absence of teacher. When the teacher heard this, she was angry • with Anil and didn’t listen to Anil and scolded and punished him.

Question 4.
In which of the following situations is a minister misusing his power:
(a) refuses to sanction a project of his ministry for sound technical reasons;
(b) threatens to send his security staff to rough up his neighbour;
(c) calls up the police station asking them not to register a complaint that is likely to be filed against his relative.
Answer:
A minister misusing his power in thefollowing situations:
(b) threatens to send his security staff to rough up his neighbour;
(c) calls up the police station asking them not to register a complaint that is likely to be filed against his relative.

Page 8

Question 5.
Who is in a minority in the above storyboard? In what way is this minority being dominated by the decision taken by the majority?
Answer:
In the above storyboard, girls are in a minority. The minority are being dominated by the majority as they imposed their wish. Hence, girls have to do what the boys want.

Page 9

Question 6.
Why was Shabnam happy that she had not watched TV? What would you have done in a similar situation?
Answer:
Shabnam was happy that she had not watched TV because instead of watching her favoutite show, she revised her 2 chapters for the test. As a result, she performed well in the rest as most of the questions came from that 2 chapters only.
If I would have been in Shabnam’s place, I would have done the same.

Page 13

Question 7.
Discuss the difference between State and Government with your teacher.
Answer:

State	Government
The state refers to the political institution that represents a sovereign people who occupied a definite area. Such as the different states of India.	It is responsible for administering and enforcing law in the whole country. It can change with elections.

Question 8.
Which Fundamental Rights will the following situations violate:
(a) If a 13-year-old child is working in a factory manufacturing carpets.
(b) If a politician in one state decides to not allow labourers from other states to work in his state.
(c) If a group of people are not given permission to open a Telugu- medium school in Kerala.
(d) If the government decides not to promote an officer of the armed forces for being a woman.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights that violate the situations:
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right o Freedom
(c) Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) Right to Equality.

Page 15

Question 9.
The Constitution also mentions Fundamental Duties. Find out with the help of your teacher what these include and why it is important for citizens in a democracy to observe these.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own with the help of teacher.

Question 10.
Illustrate each of the 11 Fundamental Duties with drawings, pictures, poems or songs and discuss them in the classroom.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.

JAC Class 8th Civics The Indian Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why does a democratic country need a Constitution?
Answer:
A democratic country needs a Constitution because of the following reasons:

Constitution lays out certain ideals that form the basis of the kind of country that we as citizens aspire to live in.
It lays out all important instructions and regulations that govern decision making within different societies of the country.
Constitution provides as a strength of rules and principles as the basis of the way in which people want their country to be governed.
It presents rules and regulations to safeguard the interests of minorities and prevent them from being dominated by the majority section.
It also lays down certain directives based on which people belonging to different religions and communities can co-exist in harmony.
It provides rules that guard against this misuse of authority by our political leaders.
It also provides certain fundamental rights to its citizens and protects their freedom.

Question 2.
Look at the wordings of the two documents given below. The first column is from the 1990 Nepal Constitution. The second column is from the more recent Constitution of Nepal.

1990 Constitution of Nepal Part 7: Executive	2015 Constitution of’ Nepal Part 7: Federal Executive
Article 35: Executive Power: The executive power of the Kingdom of Nepal shall be vested in His Majesty and the Council of Ministers.	Article 75: Executive Power: The executive power of Nepal shall, pursuant to this Constitution and law, be vested in the Council of Ministers

What is the difference in who exercises ‘Executive Power’ in the above two Constitutions of Nepal?
Answer:
The difference in exercises ‘Executive Power’ in the above two Constitutions of Nepal are:

1990 Constitution of Nepal Part 7: Executive	2015 Constitution of’ Nepal Part 7: Federal Executive
Article 35 of the 1990 Constitution of Nepal states that the whole powers to rule the country is vested in the king of the country and the ministers appointed under him.	Article 75 of the 2015 Constitution of Nepal states that the rules and management of the country will be based on the laws mentioned in the Constitution of the country under the supervision of the council of ministers.

Question 3.
What would happen if there were no restrictions on the power of elected representatives?
Answer:
If there are no restrictions on the power of the elected representatives then the leaders might misuse their powers and authority. The outcome would have emerged as injustice against the people of the country. Therefore, the Indian constitution has provided certain guidelines to safeguard the country against such misuse of power by our political leaders.

Question 4.
In each of the following situations, identify the minority. Write one reason why you think it is important to respect the views of the minority in each of these situations.
(a) In a school with 30 teachers, 20 of them are male.
(b) In a city, 5 per cent of the population are Buddhists.
(c) In a factory mess for all employees, 80 per cent are vegetarians.
(d) In a class of 50 students, 40 belong to more well-off families.
Answer:
The minorities are:
(a) Female teachers :
The 10 female teachers teaching in the school come under the minority category. It is important to respect the views of the minority so that they do not feel underpowered by the majority. They also contribute to the standard of teacher.

(b) Buddhists:
Buddhist population are in minority and their views should be respected. People should be careful while taking any decision for the interest of the majority as it should not hurt the religious feelings or beliefs of the Buddhist population.

(c) Non-Vegetarians:
20 percent of non-vegetarians are minority. In the factory mess, it is important that the food prepared must be prepared to fulfill the diet requirements of both vegetarians and non-vegetarians.

(d) Not from well-off families – The 10 students come under the minority category who do not belong to well- off families. It is important to respect their views as they are also equal to others and there should be no kind of discrimination based on the financial backgrounds of students in the class.

Question 5.
The column on the left lists some of the key features of the Indian Constitution. In the other column write two sentences, in your own words, on why you think this feature is important:

Key Features Significance
Federalism
Separation of Powers
Fundamental Rights
Parliamentary Form of Government

Key Features	Significance
Federalism	Both Center and states have their respective powers and cooperate with each other keeping in view the integrity and unity of the nation.
Separation of Powers	Separate powers are given to legislatives, executives
Fundamental Rights	Rights are given to all citizens without any discrimination for their development on the basis of caste, creed, religion or sex.
Parliamentary Form	Parliament has two wings – Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. A bill becomes an act after passing from both the wings and consented by the President of India. To be a member of Lok Sabha, every citizen can contest an election and had to win it.

Question 6.
Write down the names of the Indian States, which share borders with the following neighbouring nations:
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Bhutan
(c) Nepal

Answer:
Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura, West Bengal, Assam, are the Indian states, shared boarders with Bangladesh. Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam, share boarder with Bhutan. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Sikkim, West Bengal share boarder with Nepal.

JAC Class 8th Civics The Indian Constitution Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Question

Question 1.
On which date the Indian Constitution came into effect?
(a) On 26 November 1949
(b) On 26 January 1950
(c) On 26 September 1949
(d) On 26 March 1950
Answer:
(b) On 26 January 1950

Question 2.
The important fundamental rights to Equality is mentioned in of the constitution?
(a) Article 14-18
(b) Article 29-30
(c) Article 23-24
(d) Article 19-22
Answer:
(a) Article 14-18

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a key feature of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Separation of Power
(b) Presidential form of Government
(c) Secularism
(d) Federalism
Answer:
(b) Presidential form of Government

Question 4.
Fundamental rights refer to:
(a) The list of subjects of the state government.
(b) The list of subjects of both the state and central governments.
(c) The list of subjects of the central government.
(d) The basic rights which are granted to citizens for the holistic growth of the individuals.
Answer:
(d) The basic rights which are granted to citizens for the holistic growth of the individuals.

Question 5.
The fundamental right that guarantees the citizens the right to practise and propagate the religion they desire is
(a) Freedom of Belief
(b) Freedom of Faith
(c) Freedom of Religion
(d) Freedom of Caste
Answer:
(c) Freedom of Religion

Question 6.
……….was the President of the Constituent Assembly.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Lala Fajpat Rai
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 7.
Dr B.R. Ambedkar is the……..
(a) Father of the Indian Constitution
(b) Father Of the Nation
(c) Nation’s pride
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Father of the Indian Constitution

Question 8.
Answer:
…….. is the third tier of Government in India.
(a) State Government
(b) Municipal Government
(c) Panchayati Raj
(d) Central Government
Answer:
(c) Panchayati Raj

Question 9.
The monarchy system was in……. till 2006.
(a) Bhutan (b) Sri Lanka
(c) Burma
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(d) Nepal

Question 10.
……. was/were the member/s of the Constituent Assembly.
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) AKAyyar
(d) A11 of these
Answer:
(d) Nepal

Very Short Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Name the Father of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Dr B.R. Ambedkar is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution.

Question 2.
In Nepal, when did the Interim Constitution come into effect?
Answer:
In Nepal, the Interim Constitution came into effect from January 15, 2007.

Question 3.
What do you mean by monarchy?
Answer:
A form of government in which final authority and power are rested with the King is known as monarchy.

Question 4.
What do you mean by a ‘State’?
Answer:
A political institution that represents a sovereign people who occupy a definite territory is known as a ‘State’.

Question 5.
What is universal adult franchise?
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise means that the right to vote should be given to all adult citizens without the discrimination of caste, class, colour, religion or gender.

Question 6.
How does the Indian Constitution protect minority rights?
Answer:
The Constitution usually contains rules and regulations that ensure that minorities are included in everything that is routinely available to the majority.

Question 7.
State any three provisions made in the Constitution to prevent exploitation.
Answer:
Three provisions made in the Constitution to prevent exploitation are as follows:

prohibits human trafficking,
forced labour,
employment of children under 14 years of age.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:
Right to Constitutional Remedies means that this allows citizens to move to the court if they believe that any of their Fundamental Rights have been violated by the State.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Right to Freedom of Religion?
Answer:
Right to Freedom of Religion means religious freedom is provided to all citizens. Every person has the right to practice, profess and propagate the religion of their choice.

Question 10.
Write in brief on Cultural and Educational Rights.
Answer:
Cultural and Educational Rights means the Constitution states that all minorities, religious or linguistic can set up their own educational institutions in order to preserve and develop their own culture.

short answer type questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by tyranny of majority?
Answer:
Tyranny of the majority refers to unhealthy situations where a majority continuously enforces decisions that exclude minorities and go against their interests. Every society is prone to this tyranny of the majority. The Constitution usually contains rules that ensure that minorities are not excluded from anything that is routinely available to the majority. Constitution is precisely prevent this tyranny or domination by the majority of a minority.

Question 2.
What are the functions of the three main organs of the government?
Answer:
Three main organs are the legislature, the executive and the judiciary. The functions of these three main organs of government are:

The basic function of Legislative body is to make laws, introduce new legislation in the Parliament or State Assembly and the members of these bodies are directly elected by the citizens for Lower Houses and indirectly in the case of Upper Houses.
The Executive body has the duty to execute and implement the laws & legislation laid out the legislative body and the duty lie with Chief Minister of a State and Prime Minister of India, both represent executive organ of State and Union respectively.
However, since some laws and legislation made needs to be interpreted as well, then in that situation Judiciary has its jurisdiction, highest court in India is Supreme Court, state highest court is High Court and rest are District Courts.

Question 3.
What are the factors the drafting committee had to take into consideration while drafting the constitution?
Answer:
The country was made up of several different communities who spoke different languages, belonged to different religions and had distinct cultures and traditions. Also, when the Constitution was being written, India was going through considerable turmoil. The partition of the country into India and Pakistan was imminent, some of the Princely States remained undecided about their future, and the socio-economic condition of the vast mass of people appeared dismal. All of these issues played on the minds of the members of the Constituent Assembly as they drafted the Constitution.

Question 4.
What is the importance of constitution?
Answer:
Importance of constitution:

A Constitution helps serve as a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of the way in which they want the country to be governed.
The Constitution often lays down rules that guard against this misuse of authority by our political leaders.
Constitution ensures that a dominant group does not use its power against other, less powerful people or groups.
The Constitution helps to protect us against certain decisions that we might take that could have an adverse effect on the larger principles that the country believes in.

Question 5.
How constitution of India is formed?
Answer:
The long experience of authoritarian rule under the colonial state convinced Indians that free India should be a democratic country in which everyone should be treated equally and be allowed to participate in government. To work out the ways in which a democratic government would be set up in India and the rules that would determine its functioning was being planned. This was done not by one person but by a group of around 300 people who became members of the Constituent Assembly in 1946 and who met periodically for the next three years to write India’s Constitution. Between December 1946 and November 1949, the Constituent Assembly drafted a constitution for independent India.

Question 6.
What do you mean by the legislature, the executive and the judiciary?
Answer:
The legislature refers to our elected representatives. The executive is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing laws and running the government. The judiciary refers to the system of courts in this country.

Question 7.
What were the important points of the text prepared by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who was the Chairman of the constitution drafting committee? The Answer:
important points of the text prepared by Dr. Ambedkar are:

Constitutional guarantees and protections for individual citizens
Freedom of religion
Abolition of untouchability
Outlawing of all forms of discrimination
Economic and social rights for women
Reservations of jobs in the civil services, schools and colleges for members of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.

Question 8.
What do you think are the negative things of a democratic society?
Answer:
The negative things in a democratic society is that power can be misused. Sometimes the majority can suppress the minority. The citizens need certain rules to save themselves from folly.

Question 9.
Define the term Constitution.
Answer:
In large societies in which different communities of people live together, the rules are formulated through consensus, and in modem countries this consensus is usually available in written form. A written document in which we find such rules is called a Constitution.

Question 10.
What did Dr Ambedkar state about scheduled caste?
Answer:
Dr. Ambedkar stated about scheduled caste that although the laws might exist, scheduled castes still had reason to fear because the administration of these laws were in the hands of ‘caste Hindu officers’. Therefore, he urged scheduled castes to join the government as well as the civil services.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Describe in detail the various features of Indian constitution.
Answer:
The various features of Indian Constitution are as follows:
Federalism:
Federalism refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the country. In India, we have governments at the state level, at the center and Panchayati Raj is the third tier of government.

Parliamentary Form of Government: The different tiers of government consist of representatives and authorities who are elected by the people. The constitution of Indian guarantees universal adult franchise for all citizens. This means that the people of India have a direct role in electing their leaders or representatives. Apart from this, every citizen of the country, irrespective of his/ her social background, can also contest j- in elections. These representatives are accountable to the people.

Separation of Powers:
According to the Constitution, there are three organs of government. They are the legislature, the executive and the judiciary. In order to prevent the misuse of power by any one branch of government, the Constitution says that each of these organs should exercise different powers.

Fundamental Rights:
The section on Fundamental Rights has often been referred to as the ‘conscience’ of the Indian Constitution. Fundamental Rights protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State. The Constitution guarantees the rights of individuals against the State as well as against other individuals. The Constitution also guarantees the rights of minorities against the majority.

The Constitution also has a section called Directive Principles of State Policy. This section was designed by the members of the Constituent Assembly to ensure greater social and economic reforms and to serve as a guide to the independent Indian State to institute laws and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses.

Secularism:
A secular state is one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion as the state religion.

Question 2.
Describe briefly on the struggle for freedom in Nepal.
Answer:
Nepal has witnessed several people’s struggles for freedom and democracy. There was a people’s struggle in 1990 that established democracy which lasted for 12 years until 2002. In October 2002, King Gyanendra, citing the Maoist uprising in the countryside as his reason, began taking over different aspects of the government with the army’s assistance. The King then finally took over as the head of government in February 2005. In November 2005, the Maoists joined other political parties to sign a 12-point agreement. This agreement signalled to the larger public an imminent return to democracy and peace. In 2006, this people’s movement for democracy began gaining immense force. It repeatedly refused the small concessions that the King made and finally in April 2006 the King restored the Third Parliament and asked the political parties to form a government. In 2007, Nepal adopted an Interim Constitution.

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Human Resource

June 4, 2022May 26, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Human Resource

JAC Class 8th Geography Human Resource InText Questions and Answers

Page 63

Question 1.
Study Fig. 6.1 and find out of the world’s total population which continent has: Of every 100 people in the world…

(a) only 5 per cent
(b) only 13 per cent
(c) only 1 per cent
(d) only 12 per cent
Answer:
(a) North America
(b) Africa
(c) Ocenia (Australia, New Zealand, Pacific islands)
(d) Europe

Page 64

Question 2.
Look at Fig 6.2 and find out: of these countries how many are in Asia? Colour them on a world map.

Answer:
There are 7 countries in Asia Japan, Russia, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Indonesia, India and China. On a world map, students need to colour on their own.

Page 67

Question 3.
Every human being is potential resource for the society. What will be your contribution as a human resource?
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.

JAC Class 8th Geography Human Resource Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 2.

(i) Which does the term population distribution refer to?
(a) How population in a specified area changes over time.
(b) The number of people who die in relation to the number of people born in a specified area.
(c) The way in which people are spread across a given area.
Answer:
(c) The way in which people are spread across a given area.

(ii) Which are three main factors that cause population change?
(a) Births, deaths and marriage
(b) Births, deaths and migration
(c) Births, deaths and life expectancy
Answer:
(b) Births, deaths and migration

(iii) In 1999, the world population reached
(a) 1 billion
(b) 3 billion
(c) 6 billion
Answer:
(c) 6 billion

(iv) What is a population pyramid?
(a) A graphical presentation of the age, sex composition of a population.
(b) When the population density of an area is so high that people live in tali buildings.
(c) Pattern of population distribution in large urban areas.
Answer:
(a) A graphical presentation of the age, sex composition of a population.

Question 3.
Complete the sentences below using some of the following words:
sparsely, favourable, fallow, artificial, fertile, natural, extreme, densely When people are attracted to an area it becomes populated Factors that influence this include climate; good supplies of resources and land.
Answer:
When people are attracted to an area it becomes ..densely., populated Factors that influence this include ..favourable., climate; good supplies of …natural… resources and …fertile… land.

Question 4.
Activity
Discuss the characteristics of a society with ‘too many under 15s’ and one with ‘too few under 15s’.
Hint:
need for schools; pension schemes, teachers, toys, wheel chairs, labour supply, hospitals.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.

JAC Class 8th Geography Human Resource Important Questions and Answer

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When was the Ministry of Human Resources Development created to help the people of India to be healthy, educated and happy?
(a) 1990
(b) 1980
(c) 1995
(d) 1985
Answer:
(d) 1985

Question 2.
More than 90 per cent of world’s population lives on about per cent of the land surface.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 40
Answer:
(c) 10

Question 3.
Population……..is the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface. India has 382 people per square per kilometer whereas the world’s average is 14 only.
(a) density
(b) pyramid
(c) distribution
(d) number
Answer:
(a) density

Question 4.
The difference between emigrant and immigrant is:
(a) An emigrant is a person leaving her home country and an immigrant is a person leaving his home country.
(b) An emigrant is a person leaving her home country and an immigrant is a person entering a new country.
(c) An immigrant is a person leaving her home country and an emigrant is a person entering a new country.
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) An emigrant is a person leaving her home country and an immigrant is a person entering a new country.

Question 5.
The main factors that brings a population change of an area are
(a) births, deaths, migration.
(b) births, deaths, style.
(c) births, deaths, religion.
(d) births, deaths, climate.
Answer:
(a) births, deaths, migration.

Question 6.
The least number of people live in the………continent.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Antarctica
(d) Europe
Answer:
(c) Antarctica

Question 7.
The most populated continent is …….
(a) North America
(c) South America
(b) Asia
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Asia

Question 8. According to population, India’s rank in the world is…….
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) second

Question 9.
Human resources differ from one another in respect of………
(a) education level
(b) sex
(c) age
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 10.
The method and way in which people are spread across the surface of the earth is called as the pattern of population.
(a) distribution
(b) density
(c) pyramid
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) distribution

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by birth rate and death rate?
Answer:
The number of live births per 1000 persons is known as birth rate. The number of deaths per 1000 persons is known as death rate.

Question 2.
Which country has experienced a loss in population due to emigration?
Answer:
Sudan is the country which has experienced a loss in population due to emigration.

Question 3.
What is the percentage of the world’s population who lives in about 10% of the land surface?
Answer:
The world’s population who lives in about 10% of the land surface is 90 per cent.

Question 4.
Why is population growth slowing in United Kingdom?
Answer:
In United Kingdom, population growth is slowing because of both low birth and death rates.

Question 5.
What do you mean by life expectancy?
Answer:
The number of years that an average person can expect to live is known as the life expectancy.

Question 6.
What is called as the pattern of population distribution?
Answer:
The way in which people are spread across the earth surface is called the pattern of population distribution.

Question 7.
What do you understand by population density?
Answer:
By population density we understand that it is the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface. It is normally expressed as per square km.

Question 8.
People migrate from rural areas to urban areas. Why?
Answer:
Within countries large number of people may move from the rural areas to urban areas in search of better employment, education and health facilities.

Question 9.
Who are immigrants?
Answer:
Immigrants are those people who arrive in a country.

Question 10.
Who are emigrants?
Answer:
Emigrants are those people who leave a country.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1:
Distinguish between productive and dependent population.
Answer:

Productive Population	Dependent Population
Population engaged in productive economic activities.	Population is dependent on productive population and not engaged in any economic activities.
15-59 years of age group belongs to this category.	Below 15 years and above 60 years belongs to this group.
People are economically independent.	People are economically dependent.

Question 2.
What is the general movement of international migrations? Why it happens?
Answer:
The general movement of international migrations is from the less developed nations to the more developed nations in search of better employment opportunities and better living standards.

Question 3.
When was Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna (PKVY) started? What was the objective of this scheme?
Answer:
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna (PKVY) was started in 2015. Its aim was to train one crore Indian youth from 2016 to 2020. The objective of this scheme is to encourage towards employable skills by giving quality training to probable and existing wage earners.

Question 4.
What does the shape of a population pyramid of Japan point out? Answer: In countries like Japan, low birth rates make the pyramid narrow at the base. Decreased death rates allow numbers of people to reach old age.

Answer:
Population Pyramid of Japan – The base of the pyramid is narrow. This indicates less birth rate when compared to the death rate. Since the birth rate is less, the number of children who grow into adults will also be considerably less. So, the overall population is also less.

Question 5.
Why some countries such as Kenya have high population growth rate?
Answer:
Some countries such as Kenya had high population growth rate because they have both high birth and death rates. Nowadays, with improved health care, the death rates have fallen but birth rates still remain high which leads to high growth rate.

Question 6.
What has caused the population explosion?
Answer:
In 1804, the world’s population reache(d) one billion. A hundred and fifty years later, in 1959 the world’s population reached 3 billion and it is often known as population explosion. Less than 40 years later, in 1999, the population doubled to 6 billion. The main reason for this growth was that with better food supplies and medicine, numbers of deaths were fallen down, while the number of births still remained fairly high.

Question 7.
Do you think climate affect the population distribution of an area? If yes, then how?
Answer:
Yes, I think climate affects the population distribution of an area. People usually avoid extreme climates that are very hot or very cold like Sahara desert, polar regions of Russia, Canada and Antarctica.

Question 8.
In brief write about the distribution of population.
Answer:
Distribution of population:

More than 90 per cent of the world’s population lives in about 10 per cent of the land surface.
The distribution of population in the world is extremely uneven. Some areas are very crowded and some are sparsely populated.
Very few people live in high latitude areas, tropical deserts, high mountains and areas of equatorial forests. Many more people live north of the Equator than south of the Equator.
Almost three-quarters of the world’s people live in two continents Asia and Africa.

Question 9.
Why do you think population study essential for the government?
Answer:
Population study is essential for the government because it helps to plan for the areas such as education, housing, social security, education, employment and environmental preservation and conservation.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain briefly the Ministry of Human Resources Development in India.
Answer:
The Ministry of Human Resources Development in India is an Indian government ministry which is responsible for the development of human resources. It has been divided into departments:

The Department of School Education and Literacy: it deals with primary education and literacy.
The Department of Higher Education: it deals with secondary and post-secondary education.

In 1910, under the British rule, the department originated as the Indian Education Department. After independence, the Ministry of Education was created in 1947. The Ministry of Education was merged with the newly created Ministry of Human Resources Development in 1985. The Ministry’s objective is to achieve universal access and enrollment, universal retention of children upto 14 years of age in school and essential and fundamental improvement in the quality of education to enable all children to achieve substantial levels of learning. Also paying special attention to disadvantaged groups such as the poor, females and the minorities.

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Industries

June 4, 2022May 26, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Industries

JAC Class 8th Geography IndustriesIn Text Questions and Answers

Page 48

Question 1.
Trace the journey of your shirt from a cotton field to your wardrobe.
Answer:
Cotton yam that is used in making cotton garments have to go through a long journey from fields to our wardrobes. The first step is naturally growing cotton in the fields which takes a long time and lot of efforts. Cotton is found in small bud like structures. During harvesting season, farmers pluck out cotton buds and separate raw cotton. The raw cotton is then spinned on a hand loom or power loom. After spinning, cotton yam is weaved to make finished cotton cloth. This cloth is used by tailors to make different garments and sold to retailers. We buy garments from retailers and that is how it reaches us.

Page 49

Question 2.
Give some examples of agro-based industries.
Answer:
Some agro-based industries are tea industry, sugar industry, textile industry, food processing industries.

Page 50

Question 3.
Find out the inputs, outputs and processes involved in the manufacture of a leather shoe.
Answer:
The inputs, outputs and processes involved in the manufacture of a leather shoe:

Input:
Raw material, labour, land cost, transportation cost, infrastmcture.

Output:
Leather shoes

Processes:
Activities to convert hide into leather, washing, cleaning, cutting into different design, sewing, polishing, packing, then out for sale in market.

Page 55

Question 4:
With the help of an atlas identify some iron and steel industries in India and mark their location on an outline map of India.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.

Page 58

Question 5.
Collect different types of pieces of cloth from a tailor’s shop and classify them under cotton, silk, synthetic and woolen. Find out the raw materials used in their manufacturing.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own. Raw material cotton crop silkworm yam wool

Page 58

Question 6.
On an outline map of the world mark the places which provide raw material to cotton textile industry of Osaka.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.

JAC Class 8th Geography Industries Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer The Following Questions.

Question 1.

(i) What is meant by the term ‘industry’?
Answer:
The term ‘Industry’ deals with the economic activity that is concerned with production of goods, extraction of minerals or the provision of services.

(ii) Which are the main factors which influence the location of an industry?
Answer:
The main factors which influence the location of an industry are land, labour, water, power, availability of raw materials, transport and market.

(iii) Which industry is often referred to as the backbone of modern industry and why?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is often referred to as the backbone of modem industry because most of the things are either made of iron or steel or whose products are used as raw materials for other industries.

(iv) Why cotton textile industry rapidly expanded in Mumbai?
Answer:
Cotton textile industry rapidly expanded in Mumbai because of many favourable conditions such as it has warm and moist climate, facility of port for importing machineries, availability of raw materials and skilled labour easily.

Tick the correct answer.

Question 2.

(i) Fort Gloster is located in
(a) West Bengal
(b) California
(c) Gujarat
Answer:
(a) West Bengal

(ii) Which one of the following is a natural fibre?
(a) nylon
(b) jute
(c) acryclic
Answer:
(b) jute

Distinguish between the followings.

Question 3.

(i) Agro-based and mineral based industry
Answer:

Agro-based industry	Mineral based industry
Plants and animal based products are used as raw materials.	Mineral ores are used as raw materials.
It provides employment mostly in rural areas.	It provides employment in both mral and urban areas.
Examples: jute industry, cotton industry, diary products, etc.	Examples: iron and steel industry, etc.

(ii) Public sector and joint sector industry
Answer:

Public sector industry	Joint sector industry
These industries are owned and run by the government.	These industries are owned and operated by the state as well as individuals.
Examples: Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd., BHEL, Steel Authority of India Ltd., etc.	Examples: Maruti Udyog, etc.
These are managed by the workforce appointed by the government.	These are managed by government as well as private employees.

Question 4.
Give two examples of the following in the space provided:
(i) Raw Materials: ………..and……….
Answer:
plants, ores.

(ii) End products:………. and………..
Answer:
Motorbikes, shoes

(iii) Tertiary Activities:……… and ………
Answer:
Banking, transport

(iv) Agro-based Industries:………… and ……
Answer:
Jute, sugar industry

(v) Cottage Industries: …… and ……
Answer:
Pottery, mats
Answer:

(vi) Co-operatives: and
Answer:
Sudha dairy, Khadi industry

Question 5.
Activity
How to identify a location for establishing an industry :
Divide your class into groups. Each group is a Board of Directors faced with the problem of choosing a suitable site for an iron and steel plant of Developed Dweep. A team of technical experts has submitted a report with notes and a map. The team considered access to iron ore, coal, water and limestone, as well as the main market, sources of labour and port facilities. The team has suggested two sites, X and Y. The Board of Directors has to take the final decision about where to locate the steel plant.

Read the report submitted by the team.
Study the map to find out the distances of the resources from each site.
Give each resource a ‘weight’ from 1 to 10, according to its importance. The greater the ‘pull’ of the factor on the industry the higher the weight from 1 to 10.
Complete the table on the next page.
The site with the lowest total should be the most satisfactory site.
Remember each group of directors can decide differently.

Report Factors/Resources affecting the location of a proposed Iron and Steel Plant on Developed Dweep.

Iron ore:
This is a very large deposit of low grade iron ore. Long distance transportation of the ore would be uneconomic.
Coal:
The only coalfield contains rich deposits of high grade coal. Transportation of the coal is by railway, which is relatively cheap.
Limestone:
This is widely available over the island, but the purest deposits are in the Chuna Mountains.
Water:
Both the tributaries of River Neel carry sufficient water to supply a large iron and steel plant in all seasons. The sea water because of its high salt content is unsuitable.
Market:
It is expected that the chief market for the Plant’s products will be the engineering works of Rajdhanipur. Transport costs for the products-mainly small steel bars and light steel plates would be relatively low.
Labour supply:
This will have to be recruited mainly from the unskilled workers in the 3 fishing villages of Hill, Rah and
Sing. It is expected that most workers will commute daily from their present homes.
Port facilities:
These are at present minimal. There is a good, deep natural harbour at port Paschimpur developed to import metal alloys.

Resource	Distance from X	Distance from X	Weighting 1-10	Distance X weight for site X	Distant X weight for site Y
Iron ore
Coal
Limestone
Water
Chief market
Labour supply
			Total =

Students need to do it on their own

JAC Class 8th Geography Industries Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1:
The countries where the textile industries concentrated are…….. .
(a) Japan
(b) India
(c) Taiwan
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 2.
Steel is widely used for industrial purposes because
(a) of ability to resist rusting.
(b) of being tough.
(c) both a and b
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) both a and b

Question 3.
The is a mineral based industry.
(a) coffee
(b) petrochemical
(c) sugar
(d) cotton
Answer:
(b) petrochemical

Question 4.
Public sector plants market their steel through:
(a) SAIL
(b) Tata Steel
(c) TISCO
(d) HAL
Answer:
(a) SAIL

Question 5.
In India, has emerged as the ‘electronic city’.
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Mumbai
(d) Pune
Answer:
(a) Bengaluru

Question 6.
The first cement plant was setup in….. .
(a) Kolkata
(b) Chennai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 7.
Silica is used as raw material in industries.
(a) steel
(b) aluminum
(c) cement
(d) none of these
A(c) cement

Question 8.
The largest producer and consumer of steel in the world is/ are
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(b) China

Question 9.
The challenge that Jute industry facein India is/are:
(a) competition from synthetic substitution.
(b) poor market price.
(c) low productivity of labour.
(d) high cost.
Answer:
(a) competition from synthetic substitution.

Question 10.
Industrial accidents usually happen due to
(a) technical failure.
(b) negligence.
(c) irresponsible handling of materials.
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which industry uses Bauxite as raw material?
Answer:
The industry which uses Bauxite as raw material is Aluminum industry.

Question 2.
Which place/city is known as the ‘Manchester of India’?
Answer:
Ahmadabad is known as the ‘Manchester of India’.

Question 3.
Where was the first textile mill in India established?
Answer:
The first textile mill in the country was established at Fort Gloster near Kolkata.

Question 4.
What are the major hubs of Information Technology industry in the world.
Answer:
The major hubs of Information Technology industry are the Silicon Valley of Central California and the Bangalore region of India.

Question 5.
In which countries iron and steel industries in the world are located?
Answer:
The countries in which iron and steel industry is located are Germany, USA, China, Japan and Russia.

Question 6.
What is the link between the mines and the industry in Pittsburgh?
Answer:
The link between mines and the industry in Pittsburgh is one of the world’s best routes for shipping ore cheaply – the famous Great Lakes waterway.

Question 7.
From where does the iron ore come to Pittsburgh?
Answer:
The iron ore come to Pittsburgh from the iron mines at Minnesota, about 1500 km from Pittsburgh.

Question 8.
What do you mean by sunrise industries? Give examples.
Answer:
Emerging industries are also known as ‘Sunrise Industries’. These industries include Information Technology, Wellness, Hospitality and Knowledge.

Question 9:
Where do we find the major industrial regions of the world?
Answer:
Major industrial regions of the world are eastern North America, western and central Europe, eastern Europe and eastern Asia.

Question 10.
In which year, the industrial disaster occurred in Bhopal?
Answer:
On 3rd December 1983, the industrial disaster occurred in Bhopal.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which industries have replaced the cotton textile industry of Osaka?
Answer:
The cotton textile industry of Osaka has been replaced by other industries, such as iron and steel, machinery, ship building, automobiles, electrical equipment and cement.

Question 2.
What does industrial system composed of?
Answer:
Industrial system composed of the following things:

input
processes
output.

Question 3.
What do you mean by marine based industries?
Answer:
The products from sea and oceans are used as raw materials in marine based industries. Some examples of this industries are manufacturing fish oil, processing sea food.

Question 4.
List the important industrial regions of India.
Answer:
Industrial regions of India are:

Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region
Mumbai-Pune region
Ahmedabad-Baroda region
Chhota Nagpur region
Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu region
Vishakhapatnam-Guntur region

Question 5.
Why several textile mills close down in Ahmedabad in recent years?
Answer:
Several textile mills have closed down in Ahmedabad in recent years because of the emergence of new textile centres in the country as well as non-upgradation of machines and technology in the mills of Ahmedabad.

Question 6.
What products do industrial plants in Jamshedpur produce?
Answer:
In Jamshedpur, several other industrial plants were set up after TISCO. They produce chemicals, locomotive parts, agricultural equipment, machinery, tinplate, cable and wire.

Question 7.
Why did the cotton textile industry in India could not compete with the industries in the west initially?
Answer:
The production of handwoven cotton textile was expensive and time consuming. Hence, traditional cotton textile industry could not face the competition from the new textile mills of the West, which produced cheap and good quality fabrics.

Question 8.
List the similar points between information technology industry in Bangalore and California.
Answer:
Similar points between information technology industry in Bangalore and California are:

Presence of high quality educational institutions and advanced scientific and technological centres.
Availability of skilled work force.
Good access to markets.
Pleasant climate with an attractive and a clean environment.
Well developed and well connected.

Question 9.
What do you mean by small scale industry?
Answer:
Small scale industries run on small capital and technology that produce large volumes of products such as silk weaving and food processing industries.

Question 10.
What do you mean by secondary activities?
Answer:
In secondary activities or manufacturing, raw materials are changed into products of more value to people. Such as, pulp changes into paper and paper into notebook. These steps represent the different level of manufacturing processes.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
On the basis of ownership, industries can be classified into how many parts? Explain.
Answer:
On the basis of ownership, industries can be classified into 4 sectors. They are private sector, state owned or public sector, joint sector and cooperative sector.Private sector industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals. Examples are Reliance Industries, Adani Groups, Birla Groups, etc The public sector industries are owned and operated by the government.

Examples are Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, Steel Authority of India Limited, BHEL, etc Joint sector industries are owned and operated by the state and individuals or a group of individuals. An example of joint sector industry is Maruti Udyog Limite(d) Co-operative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers orsuppliers of raw materials, workers or both. Example of co-operative venture are Anand Milk Union Limited and Sudha Dairy.

Question 2.
On the basis of raw materials, industries can be classified Explain.
Answer:
On the basis of raw materials, industries can be classified into the following industries: agro-based, mineral based, marine based and forest based Agro-based industries use plant and animal based products as their raw materials. Examples of agro-based industries are food processing, vegetable oil, cotton textile, dairy products and leather industries. Mineral based industries are primary industries that use mineral ores as their raw materials. The products of these industries feed other industries.

Example Iron made from iron ore is the product of mineral based industry and this is used as raw material for the manufacture of a number of other products, such as heavy machinery, building materials and railway coaches. Marine based industries use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials. Some examples are industries processing sea food or manufacturing fish oil. Forest based industries utilise forest produce as raw materials. The industries associated with forests are pulp and paper, pharmaceuticals, furniture and buildings.

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

June 4, 2022May 25, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

JAC Class 8th Geography Agriculture InText Questions and Answers

Page 43

Question 1.
Who discovered the coffee plant?
Answer:
In about AD 850, Kaldi, an Arab goat- herder, who was puzzled by the queer antics of his flock, tasted the berries of the evergreen bush on which the goats were feeding. On experiencing a sense of exhilaration, he proclaimed his discovery to the world.

JAC Class 8th Geography Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(i) What is agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture is a primary activity which includes growing crops, fruits, vegetables, flowers and rearing of livestock. It is also known as farming.

(ii) Name the factors influencing agriculture?
Answer:
The factors influencing agriculture are the climate and topography of soil.

(iii) What is shifting cultivation? What are its disadvantages?
Answer:
Shifting cultivation is also known as slash and bum agriculture. In this cultivation a plot of land is cleared by felling the trees and burning them. Then the ashes are mixed with the soil and crops are grown. The land is abandoned after the soil loses its fertility and the cultivator moves to a new plot. The disadvantages are deforestation occurs and trees are burnt which are not good for environment.

(iv) What is plantation agriculture?
Answer:
Commercial farming where only a single type of crop is grown such as banana, coffee, tea, sugarcane is known as plantation agriculture. In this type of agriculture, large amount of capital and labour are required The produce is either processed in the farm itself or in i nearby factories.

(v) Name the fibre crops and name the climatic conditions required for their growth.
Answer:
The fibre crops are cotton and jute. The climatic conditions required for their growth are:
Cotton requires high temperature, light rainfall, 210 days and bright sunshine for its growth. Jute requires high temperature, heavy rainfall and humid climate.

Tick the correct answer.

Question 2.
(i) Horticulture means
(a) growing of fruits and vegetables
(b) primitive farming
(c) growing of wheat
Answer:
(a) growing of fruits and vegetables

(ii) Golden fibre refers to
(a) tea
(b) cotton
(c) jute
Answer:
(c) jute

(iii) Leading producers of coffee
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Russia
Answer:
(a) Brazil

Question 3.
Give reasons.

In India agriculture is a primary activity.
Different crops are grown in different regions.

Answer:
1. In India agriculture is a primary activity because two third of the population depends on agriculture and it provides around 65% of work to labour force. It is also responsible for 25% of Gross Domestic Product and total value of nation’s export is 16%.

2. Since different crops require different climatic and geographical conditions hence different crops are grown in different regions. Certain human factors also play an important role such as labour, demand of yield and technology level.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the followings.

Primary activities and tertiary activities.
Subsistence farming and intensive farming.

Answer:
1.

Primary activities	Tertiary Activities
It includes all those connected with extraction and production of natural resources.	It provides support to the primary and secondary sectors through services.
Agriculture, fishing and gathering are examples of this activity.	Transport, trade, banking, insurance and advertising are examples of this activities.

Subsistence Farming	Intensive Farming
It is practised to meet the needs of the farmer’s family.	The farmer cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour.
Low levels of technology and household labour are used to produce on vsmall output.	In this type of farming, quality seeds, rich manure and fertilisers are used

Question 5.
Activity

Collect seeds of wheat, rice, jowar, bajra, ragi, maize, oilseeds and pulses available in the market. Bring them to the class and find out in which type of soil they grow.
Find out the difference between the life style of farmers in the USA and India on the basis of pictures collected from magazines, books, newspapers and the internet.

Answer:

Type of soil in which the following grows:
Rice – Alluvial clayey Wheat – Alluvial soil Jowar, bajra and ragi – Desert Maize, oilseeds – Alluvial, Black Pulses- Red, Alluvial
Students need to do on their own.

Question 6.
For Fun.
Solve the crossword puzzle with the help of given ciues

Across:
1. Crop that needs well drained fertile soils, moderate temperatures and lots of sunshine (5)
2. Increasing production through use of HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers and pesticides (5,10)
4. USA, Canada, Russia, Australia are major producers of this crop (5)
10. Type of farming to meet family needs (11)
13. Rearing of animals for sale (9)
14. Growing grapes for wines (11)

Down:
1. Coarse grains are also called (7)
3. Cultivation involving slash and bum (8)
5. Growing of crops, fruits and vegetables (11)
6. Tea, coffee, sugarcane and mbber are grown in (11)
7. Requires 210 frost-free days for growth (6)
8. Growing of flowers (12)
9. Also called ‘Golden Fibre’ (4)
11. Also known as paddy (4)
12. Activity concerned with extraction of natural resources (7)
Answer:

JAC Class 8th Geography Agriculture Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The process in which farmers use organic manure and natural pesticides instead of chemicals is called
(a) Mechanical farming
(b) Non-organic farming
(c) Organic farming
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Organic farming

Question 2.
Thescienceofcommercially cultivating grapes is called .
(a) Viticulture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Sericulture
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Viticulture

Question 3.
Tertiary activities are……
(a) provide support to only primary activities.
(b) provide support to only secondary activities.
(c) provide support to both primary and secondary activities.
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) provide support to both primary and secondary activities.

Question 4.
Coarse grains are….. .
(a) rice
(b) millets
(c) wheat
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) millets

Question 5.
The word ‘agriculture’ origins from
a. Latin term agri means soil.
(b) Latin term culture means cultivation.
(c) Neither a nor b
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(d) Both a and b

Question 6.
The inputs of a farm system are…….
(a) seeds and fertiisers
(b) labour
(c) machinery
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 7.
Out of the following which is not a cropping season of India?
(a) Kaffir
(b) Rabi
(c) Kharif
(d) Zaid
Answer:
(a) Kaffir

Question 8.
Jhumming, Ladang, Milap, Roca & Ray are also known as:
(a) Shifting Farming
(b) Commercial Farming
(c) Nomadic Farming
(d) Intensive Farming
Answer:
(a) Shifting Farming

Question 9.
………. is……. grown in winter. It requires rainfall during growing season and bright sunshine at the time of harvest.
(a) Rice
(b) Watermelon
(c) Wheat
(d) Bajra
Answer:
(c) Wheat

Question 10.
The land on which crops are grown is known as:
(a) Wet Land
(b) Arable Land
(c) Dry Land
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Arable Land

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by agricultural development?
Answer:
Agricultural development refers to efforts made to increase the production of farm in order to meet the growing demand of the increasing population.

Question 2.
What is the science of commercial silk worm rearing known as?
Answer:
The science of commercial silk worm rearing is known as Sericulture.

Question 3.
What is the position of India in terms of rice production in the world?
Answer:
India is the second largest producer of rice in the world.

Question 4.
What percentage of world’s coffee production does India produce?
Answer:
The percentage of world’s coffee production does India produce is 3.2%.

Question 5.
Name the two most important staple food crops of the world.
Answer:
The two most important staple food crops of the world are rice and wheat.

Question 6.
What requires high temperature, light rainfall, 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine?
Answer:
Cotton requires high temperature, light rainfall, 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine.

Question 7.
List some animals reared by nomadic herders.
Answer:
Sheep, camel, yak and goats are most commonly reared animals by nomadic . herders.

Question 8.
How many types of subsistence farming is present?
Answer:
Two types of subsistence farming are there. They are intensive subsistence and primitive subsistence farming.

Question 9.
What do you mean by mixed farming?
Answer:
n mixed farming the land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock.

Question 10.
Where is wheat grown extensively and substantially?
Answer:
Wheat is grown extensively and substantially in USA, Canada, Argentina, Russia, Ukraine, Australia and India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What are the activities under the secondary sector?
Answer:
All activities connected with the manufacturing of goods with natural resources comes under secondary activities. Steel manufacturing, weaving cloth are the examples of secondary activities.

Question 2.
There are different kinds of cultivation. What are they?
Answer:
The different kinds of cultivation are Agriculture, Horticulture, Viticulture, Sericulture and Pisciculture.

Agriculture is cultivation on the soil.
Horticulture is growing vegetables, fruits and flowers for commercial use.
Viticulture is cultivation of grapes.
Sericulture is rearing of silk worms to extract silk.
Pisciculture is breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds.

Question 3
Shifting cultivation is known by different names in different regions of the world What are they?
Answer:
Shifting cultivation is known by different names in different parts of the world They are:

Jhumming – North-East India
Milpa -Mexico
Roca – Brazil
Ladang – Malaysia

Question 4.
When does food security exist?
Answer:
Food security exists when all people, at all times, have access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.

Question 5.
What are the climatic conditions required for growing maize? In which countries they are grown?
Answer:
Maize requires moderate temperature, rainfall and lots of sunshine. It also needs well drained fertile soil. They are grown in North America, Brazil, China, Russia, India, Canada and Mexico.

Question 6.
What are the climatic conditions required for growing tea?
Answer:
Tea is a beverage crop grown on plantations. This requires cool climate and well distributed high rainfall throughout the year for the growth of its tender leaves. It needs well-drained loamy soils and gentle slopes. To pick the leaves, labour in large number is required.

Question 7.
Can agricultural development be achieved? How?
Answer:
Yes, agricultural development can be achieved in many ways such as increasing the cropped area, the number of crops grown, improving irrigation facilities, use of fertilisers and high yielding variety of seeds. Mechanisation of agriculture is also another aspect of agricultural development.

Question 8.
What type of agriculture is practiced in developing countries?
Answer:
Developing countries with large populations usually practise intensive agriculture where crops are grown on small holdings mostly for subsistence.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the different types of subsistence farming?
Answer:
The different types of subsistence farming are intensive subsistence and primitive subsistence farming:
(i) Intensive subsistence agriculture:
In intensive subsistence agriculture the farmer cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour. The main crop is rice. Other crops include wheat, maize, pulses and oilseeds. Intensive subsistence agriculture is prevalent in the thickly populated areas of the monsoon regions of south, south-east and east Asia.

(ii) Primitive subsistence agriculture:
It includes shifting cultivation and nomadic herding.Shifting cultivation is practised in the thickly forested areas of Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of south-east Asia and north-east India. A plot of land is cleared by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with the soil and crops like maize, yam, potatoes and cassava are grown. After the soil loses its fertility, the land is abandoned and the cultivator moves to a new plot.

Nomadic herding is practised in the semi-arid and arid regions of Sahara, Central Asia and some parts of India, like Rajasthan and Jammu and Kashmir. In this type of farming, herdsmen move from place to place with their animals for fodder and water, along defined routes.

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources

June 4, 2022May 25, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources

JAC Class 8th Geography Mineral and Power Resources InText Questions and Answers

Page 25

Question 1.
Identify the Canadian Shield, the Appalachians, Western Cordilleras and Lake Superior with the help of an atlas.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.

Page 26

Question 2.
List uses of any five minerals.
Answer:
Uses of five minerals:

Granite:
Used as a building stone such monuments, statues. Also used in highway construction and railway ballast.
Lead:
Used in television tubes and batteries.
Aluminum:
Used in manufacturing aeroplane and automobiles. It is also used in canning and bottling industries.
Copper:
Used in electric cables and wires, switches, coins and jewelry.
Gold:
Used for scientific and electronic instruments, computer circuitry, aerospace industry. Also used in jewelry, medicine and dentistry.

JAC Class 8th Geography Mineral and Power Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer The Following Questions.

(i) Name any three common minerals used by you every day.
Answer:
Three common minerals used by us every day are iron, aluminum and copper.

(ii) What is an ore? Where are the ores of metallic minerals generally located?
Answer:
Ores are the minerals which are rich in a particular element and can be mined. The ores of metallic minerals are generally located in igneous and metamorphic rock formations.

(iii) Name two regions rich in natural gas resources.
Answer:
Two regions which are rich in natural gas resources are:
In the world Russia and Norway.
In India Krishna Godavari Delta and Jaisalmer.

(iv) Which sources of energy would you suggest for
Answer:
Sources of energy suggested for:

Rural areas – Biogas and solar energy are feasible options.
Coastal areas – Tidal energy and hydel energy are good options.
Arid regions – Solar energy and wind energy are suitable options.

(a) rural areas
(b) coastal areas
(c) Arid regions

(v) Give five ways in which you can save energy at home.
Answer:
Five ways in which we can save energy at home are:

For cooking fuel use of biogas would save energy.
Misuse of electricity should be avoided such as switch off the lights and fans when not required.
Solar energy must be used as much as we can.
Energy efficient devices should be used such as LED bulbs and tubes.
While cooking using energy efficiently such as covering with lid, pressure cook, etc.

Tick the correct answer.

Question 2.
(i) Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of minerals?
(a) They are created by natural processes.
(b) They have a definite chemical composition.
(c) They are inexhaustible.
(d) Their distribution is uneven.
Answer:
(c) They are inexhaustible.

(ii) Which one of the following is a leading producer of copper in the world?
(a) Bolivia
(b) Ghana
(c) Chile
(d) Zimbabwe
Answer:
(c) Chile

(iii) Which one of the following practices will NOT conserve LPG in your kitchen?
(a) Soaking the dal for some time before cooking it.
(b) Cooking food in a pressure cooker.
(c) Keeping the vegetables chopped before lighting the gas for cooking.
(d) Cooking food in an open pan kept on low flame.
Answer:
(d) Cooking food in an open pan kept on low flame.

Question 3.
Give reasons.

Environmental aspects must be carefully looked into before building huge dams.
Most industries are concentrated around coal mines.
Petroleum is referred to as “black gold”.
Quarrying can become a major environmental concern.

Answer:

Environmental aspects must be carefully looked into before building huge dams because it can create imbalance and deforestation may happen. Humans, wild animals become displaced.
Most industries are concentrated around coal mines because it ensures the availability of fuel and transportation costs get reduced.
Petroleum is referred to as “black gold” because in the crude form it is in black colour and its derivatives are extremely valuable such as petroleum. Different products of petroleum are used in are day to day life such as petrol, diesel, kerosene.
Quarrying can become a major environmental concern because pits are not covered so they may cause environmental threats after quarrying.

Question 4.

Distinguish between the followings.

Conventional and
Biogas and natural gas
Ferrous and nonferrous minerals
Metallic and nonmetallic minerals

Conventional Sources of energy	Non-conventional N Sources of energy
From long time they have been used.	These sources have been identified in recent past.
These are mostly polluting.	These are non-polluting
Firewood, coal are the examples.	Wind energy, solar energy, tidal energy are the examples.

Biogas	Natural Gas
It is a non- conventional source of energy.	It is a conventional source of energy.
It is a renewable source.	It is a non-renewable source.
It is obtained from the decaying of the organic waste.	It is a by-product which is obtained from the extraction of petroleum.

Ferrous Minerals	Non-ferrous N minerals
Minerals which contain iron are Ferrous minerals.	Minerals which do not contain iron are Non- ferrous minerals.
Iron ore is a ferrous mineral.	Limestone is a non- ferrous mineral.
These are magnetic in nature.	These are non-magnetic in nature.
India has abundant of ferrous minerals.	India is deficient of non-ferrous mineralsv

Metallic Minerals	Non-metallic Minerals
In raw form, metals are found.	It does not contain metals.
New products can be obtained by melting them.	On melting, they do not give new products.
These are associated with igneous rocks.	These are associated with sedimentary rocks.
Bauxite is a metallic mineral.	Gypsum is a non-metallic mineral.

Question 5.
Activity

Use pictures from old magazines to show different kinds of fuels used by us in our lives and display them on your bulletin board.
Design a poster highlighting energy conservation tips you would take for your school.
Salma’s class took up an action campaign to do an energy audit of their school by surveying electricity consumption. They prepared survey sheets for the students of the school.

Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.

JAC Class 8th Geography Mineral and Power Resources Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Minerals are
(a) naturally occurring substances that have definite chemical compositions.
(b) artificially made substances that have a definite chemical compositions.
(c) human made substances that have definite chemical compositions.
(d) liquids and gases that are found everywhere.
Answer:
(a) naturally occurring substances that have definite chemical compositions.

Question 2.
Physical properties of minerals are
(a) population and economy.
(b) pollution and political factors.
(c) colour, density, hardness, and chemical properties such as solubility.
(d) weather and plant action.
Answer:
(c) colour, density, hardness, and chemical properties such as solubility.

Question 3.
The process of simply digging out minerals such as lead and coal that lie near the surface of the earth is called.
(a) drilling
(b) quarrying
(c) open cast mining
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) quarrying

Question 4.
The colour of a rock if it contains a large amount of copper is.
(a) green
(b) quarrying
(c) silver
(d) red
Answer:
(b) quarrying

Question 5.
The world’s leading tin producers are:
(a) India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan
(b) India, China, and USA
(c) China, USA, and Austral
(d) China, Malaysia, and Indonesia
Answer:
(d) China, Malaysia, and Indonesia

Question 6.
Aluminum, obtained from its ore bauxite is used in.
(a) automobiles
(b) buildings
(c) airplanes
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 7.
The ways to conserve minerals so that they may also be available to future generations are
(a) reuse, reduce use, and recycle.
(b) reuse and recycle.
(c) reduce use and recycle.
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) reuse, reduce use, and recycle.

Question 8.
The disadvantages of using firewood as a fuel are:
(a) It is polluting and promotes the greenhouse effect.
(b) It takes time to collect.
(c) It results in deforestation.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) It is polluting and promotes the greenhouse effect.

Question 9.
Natural gas is usually found with deposits of .
(a) firewood
(b) iron ore
(c) petroleum
(d) coal
Answer:
(c) petroleum

Question 10.
The main parts in a hydro-electric power station:
(a) a generator, a turbine, and a motor
(b) a water reservoir, a turbine, and a motor
(c) a generator, a rocket, and a turbine
(d) a water reservoir, a turbine, and a generator
Answer:
(d) a water reservoir, a turbine, and a generator

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many types of minerals have been identified and how many are considered as ore minerals?
Answer:
There are around 2,800 types of minerals which have been identified and only about 100 are considered ore minerals.

Question 2.
Which country has no minerals?
Answer:
Switzerland has no known minerals.

Question 3.
Which country is the largest producer of bauxite in the world?
Answer:
Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.

Question 4.
What are the two naturally occurring radioactive elements?
Answer:
Uranium and Thorium are the two naturally occurring radioactive elements.

Question 5.
Which is the most abundantly found fossil fuel?
Answer:
The most abundantly found fossil fuel is coal.

Question 6.
In which place of India has huge tidal mill farms?
Answer:
Gulf of Kachchh in India has huge tidal mill farms.

Question 7.
Name the first country to develop hydroelectricity in the world.
Answer:
Norway was the first country in the world to develop hydroelectricity in the world.

Question 8.
Name two areas in Australia which have large deposits of gold.
Answer:
Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie areas of western Australia have the largest deposits of gold.

Question 9.
Where is the site of the world’s first solar and wind powered bus shelter?
Answer:
The site of the world’s first solar and wind powered bus shelter is in Scotland.

Question 10.
Name the places where the geothermal power plants located in India.
Answer:
In India, geothermal plants are located in Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh and Puga Valley in Ladakh.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
CNG is considered an eco-friendly fuel. Why?
Answer:
Compressed natural gas (CNG) is a popular eco-friendly fuel because it causes less pollution than petroleum and diesel.

Question 2.
Give one advantage and one disadvantage of geothermal energy.
Answer:
Advantage – Clean, eco-friendly and always available. Disadvantages – Located far away from cities and so costly to transport the electricity.

Question 3.
What are the main types of power resources?
Answer:
The main types of power resources are conventional and non-conventional resources.

Question 4.
Explain in brief the mineral salt?
Answer:
The mineral salt is obtained from seas, lakes and rocks. India is one of the world’s leading producers and exporters of salt.

Question 5.
Coal is known as “buried sunshine”. Why?
Answer:
Coal is known as “Buried Sunshine” because the coal which we are using today was formed millions of years ago when giant ferns and swamps got buried under the layers of earth.

Question 6.
“All minerals are rocks but all rocks are not minerals”. Justify in brief.
Answer:
All minerals are rocks but all rocks are not minerals because more than 2,800 types of minerals have been identified but only about 100 are considered ore minerals which can be used.

Question 7.
Minerals are considered non. renewable. Why?
Answer:
Minerals are a non-renewable resource because it takes thousands of years for the formation. The rate of formation is much smaller than the rate at which the humans consume these minerals.

Question 8.
How do we get nuclear energy?
Answer:
We get nuclear power from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive elements like uranium and thorium. These fuels undergo nuclear fission in nuclear reactors and emit power.

Question 9.
What are the nuclear power stations in India.
Answer:
The nuclear power stations in India are located in Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu, Tarapur in Maharastra, Ranapratap Sagar near Kota in Rajasthan, Narora in Uttar Pradesh and Kaiga in Karnataka.

Question 10.
Distinguish between a rock and an ore.
Answer:
Difference between a rock and an ore:

A rock	Ail ore
A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals but without definite and fixed composition of constituent of mineral.	Rocks from which minerals are mined are called ores.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of
(a) Coal
(b) Crude oil
Answer:
(a) Coal
Advantages

It is extensively available.
It is efficient to convert to electricity.
It offers a low capita investment.
It is a full time energy resource.

Disadvantages

It is a source of pollution.
It is bulky to transport.
It is not a renewable resource.
It creates high level of radiation.
Clean coal also has high level of methane.

(b) Crude oil Advantages

It is easier to transport such as tankers are used.
It is the basis of petro-chemical industry.
It can be extracted easily.
It is a powerful source of energy. Disadvantages
Depletion of oxygen due to oil spillage.
Pollutants released caused acid rain.
Exploration of new fuel is not easy.
It is a non-renewable source.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the method of extraction.
Answer:
The method of extraction consists of mining, drilling and quarrying.
(i) Mining:
The process of taking out minerals from rocks which are buried under the earth’s surface is called mining. Open-cast mining Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer, this is known as open-cast mining.

Shaft mining :
Deep bores called shafts have to be made to reach mineral deposits that lie at great depths. This is known as shaft mining.

(ii) Drilling:
Petroleum and natural gas occur far below the earth’s surface. Deep wells are bored to take them out. This process is known as drilling.

(iii) Question uarrying :
Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out, by the process known as quarrying.

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

June 4, 2022May 25, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

JAC Class 8th Geography Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources InText Questions and Answers

Page 7

Question 1.
Observe the land, type of soil and water availability in the region you live. Discuss in your class, how it has influenced the lifestyle of people there.
Answer:
Students need to answer on thier own according to the places they live.

Page 8

Question 2.
Talk to some elderly person in your family or neighbourhood and collect information about changes in the land use over the years, in the place where you live. Display your findings on a bulletin board in your classroom.
Answer:
Findings:

Page 12

Question 3.
In India soils could be alluvial, black, red, laterite, desertic and mountain soil. Collect a handful of different types of soil and observe. How are they different?
Answer:
Alluvial soil are the fine-grained soil which are formed by river and it is very fertile. The colour of the soil is grey. It is found from Punjab to Assam and West Bengal. Also found in deltas in the rivers such as Krishna, Mahanadi etc. Black soil is found in central, southern and western state in India. It is a black coloured soil, very fertile and suitable for the growth of cotton crops. It is formed by the volcanic eruptions.

Red soil is made of old crystalline rock. It is red in colour because the soil contains iron. It is found in states such as Tamil Nadu, southern Karnataka, north-eastern Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha. Laterite soil are found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Orissa and Assam. This type of soil is less fertile.

It is formed in wet and hot tropical areas and soil is rich in aluminum and iron. Desert soil is formed from arid condition with very less rainfall hence also known as arid soil. The colour of the soil is red to brown. It is sandy and alkaline due to less moisture and found in Thar desert, Rajasthan. Mountain soil is the infertile soil and very thin. It is found on the hill slopes. The soils occupy about XA 0f the total land area of India.

Page 13

Question 4.
Take two trays A and B of same size. Make six holes at one end of these trays and then fill them with the same amount of soil. Leave the soil in tray A bare while sow wheat or rice grains in tray B. When the grain in tray B has grown a few centimetres high, place both the trays in such a way that they are on a slope. Pour one mug of water from the same height into each tray. Collect the muddy water that trickles down the holes of both trays in two separate containers and compare how much soil is washed out of each tray?

Answer:
From tray A, more soil is washed out whereas from tray B less soil is washed out because the soil layer is covered with grass.

Page 14

Question 5.
An average urban Indian uses about 150 litres of water every day

Use	Litres per person per day
Drinking	3
Cooking	4
Bathing	20
Flushing	40
Washing clothes	40
Washing utensils	20
Gardening	23
Total	150

Can you suggest some ways to bring down this amount?
Answer:
We should try not to waste water and use it judiciously. Some ways are:

Water used for washing vegetables can be used in gardening.
We should use bucket and mug while bathing instead of shower.
Water used for washing utensils and clothes can be used in toilet.

Page 18

Question 6.
Read the news item and find out how fire started in California? Could it be avoided?
Answer:
The winds can push a fire the length of a football field in a minute, said Scott McLean, spokesman for the California Department of Forestry and Fire Protection, or Call Fire. And the hundreds of members pushed in front of the fires become small spot fires themselves, he said. High winds also dissipate fire retardant dropped by aircraft, McLean said. The Diablo winds caused the same problems in Northern California in October. California’s deadly wildfires have a straightforward solution, experts say: stop building homes in places that are likely to bum- and make homes that already exist in those areas a whole lot tougher.

JAC Class 8th Geography Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.

(i) Which are the two main climatic factors responsible for soil formation?
Answer:
The two main climatic factors which are responsible for soil formation are:

Temperature – The fluctuations in temperature between hot and cold forms cracks in the rocks.
Rainfall – By applying pressure it contributes in breaking the rocks.

(ii) Write any two reasons for land degradation today.
Answer:
Two reasons for land degradation today are:

Deforestation – Destruction of forest region.
Due to growing population, demands are growing rapidly. It leads to excess use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides.

(iii) Why is land considered an important resource?
Answer:
Land is considered as an important resource because most activities and works are done on land. It provides us to do farming, living, forestry, industries, etc.

(iv) Name any two steps that government has taken to conserve plants and animals.
Answer:
Two steps that government has taken to conserve plants and animals are:

Awareness programs such as Vanamahotasava and social forestry are encouraged and endorsed at the community and regional level.
Establishment of wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves and national parks in different parts of the country to conserve the vegetation and wildlife.

(v) Suggest three ways to conserve water.
Answer:
Three ways to conserve water are:

Drip or trickle irrigation should be used in dry regions. Also in irrigation process, canals should be built properly so that water is not wasted.
Rainwater harvesting should be implemented. It is a process of collecting water and storing it when it rains and can used in future.
Water wastage should be minimised. We can use the water used in washing vegetables for gardening and likewise.

Tick the correct answer.

Question 2:
(i) Which one of the following is NOT a factor of soil formation?
(a) time
(b) soil texture
(c) organic matter
Answer:
(b) soil texture

(ii) Which one of the following methods is most appropriate to check soil erosion on steep slopes?
(a) shelter belts
(b) mulching
(c) terrace cultivation
Answer:
(c) terrace cultivation

(iii) Which one of the following is NOT in favour of the conservation of nature?
(a) switch off the bulb when not in use
(b) close the tap immediately after using
(c) dispose polypacks after shopping
Answer:
(c) dispose polypacks after shopping

Match the followings:

Question 3.

(i) Land use	(a) prevent soil erosion
(ii) Humus	(b) narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
(iii) Rock dams	(c) productive use of land
(iv) Biosphere	(d) organic matter deposited on top soil
(e) contour ploughing	(a) prevent soil erosion

Answer:

(i) Land use	(c) productive use of land
(ii) Humus	(d) organic matter deposited on top soil
(iii) Rock dams	(a) prevent soil erosion
(iv) Biosphere	(b) narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
(e) contour ploughing	(c) productive use of land

Question 4.
State whether the given statement is true or false. If true, write the reasons.

Ganga-Brahmaputra plain of India is an overpopulated region.
Water availability per person in India is declining.
Rows of trees planted in the coastal areas to check the wind movement is called intercropping.
Human interference and changes of climate can maintain the ecosystem.

Answer:

True. Land is very fertile and suitable for cultivation and habitat.
True. There is lot of wastage and also drying up of water resources due to water pollution. Also due to growth in population, the demand of water also increased which reduces the fresh water reserves.
False
False

Question 5.
Activity
(i) Discuss some more reasons which are responsible for changes of land use pattern. Has your place undergone any change in the land use pattern in recent years?
Answer:
Land use pattern in recent years have changed which has been reflected in the changing activities of the people such as building up of industries and markets, housing complexes in urban areas and expanding agricultural lands in rural areas. The main factor responsible for such change in land use pattern is mainly due to the rising needs and demands of the people. Other factors are urbanisation, population increase and demand for food, changes in the living standard etc.

(ii) Find out from your parents and elderly people. You can conduct an interview by asking the following questions given in the book in the form of table. Why do you think that land use patterns change over the years?
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.

JAC Class 8th Geography Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following sentence is true about land?
(a) Low-lying areas are susceptible to water logging.
(b) Thick forested areas are normally densely populated by humans.
(c) Plains and river valleys are sparsely populated as they offer land suitable for agriculture.
(d) About 70% of the area of the earth’s surface is covered with land.
Answer:
(d) About 70% of the area of the earth’s surface is covered with land.

Question 2.
The human factors that determine the patterns of land use are…….
(a) population and technology.
(b) geographic shapes and atmosphere.
(c) atmosphere and population.
(d) time and technology.
Answer:
(c) atmosphere and population.

Question 3.
Community land also known as…….
(a) Common property resources.
(b) Personal property resources.
(c) Group property resources.
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Common property resources.

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not a method used to conserve land?
(a) Aforestation
(b) Land reclamation
(c) Regulated use of chemical pesticide and fertilisers
(d) Increased use of fossil fuels
Answer:
(d) Increased use of fossil fuels

Question 5.
The natural phenomena which triggers landslides are ……
(a) floods
(b) earthquakes
(c) volcanoes
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 6.
The breaking up and decay of exposed rocks, by temperature changes, frost action, plants, animals and man are called as .
(a) Articulating
(c) Weathering
(b) Recycling
(d) Feathering
Answer:
(c) Weathering

Question 7.
The following method/s are used to conserve soil is/are
(a) mulching and intercropping.
(b) terrace farming and contour ploughing.
(c) shelter belts and rock dams.
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 8.
The cause/s of the contamination of water is/are
(a) treatment of effluents before discharging them into bodies of water.
(b) discharge of untreated or partially treated sewage, agricultural chemicals, and industrial effluents in bodies of water.
(c) fall in the number of industrial effluents entering bodies of water.
(d) building of canals that dispose effluent waste deep into the oceans.
Answer:
(b) discharge of untreated or partially treated sewage, agricultural chemicals, and industrial effluents in bodies of water.

Question 9.
The growth of vegetation primarily depend on
(a) temperature and moisture.
(b) technology and temperature.
(c) technology and moisture.
(d) population and technology.
Answer:
(a) temperature and moisture.

Question 10.
The hunting of these animals is banned in India:
(a) lions, tigers, deer, great Indian bustards, and peacocks
(b) lions, tigers, dogs, great Indian bustards, and cats
(c) lions, tigers, fish, horses, and peacocks
(d) lions, tigers, giraffe, great Indian bustards, and peacocks
Answer:
(a) lions, tigers, deer, great Indian bustards, and peacocks

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the major threats to soil as a resource.
Answer:
The major threats to soil as a resource are soil erosion and depletion.

Question 2.
Which process of soil conservation is used in coastal and dry regions?
Answer:
Shelter belts are used for conservation of the soil in coastal and dry regions.

Question 3.
What is the percentage of fresh water which is fit for human use?
Answer:
Only 1 per cent of freshwater is available and fit for human use.

Question 4.
List the major types of vegetation in the world.
Answer:
The major types of vegetation in the world are forests, grasslands, scrubs and tundra.

Question 5.
How the soil becomes fertile?
Answer:
The soil becomes fertile by the right mix of minerals and organic matter.

Question 6.
What do you mean by national parks?
Answer:
National park is a natural area designed and designated to protect the ecological integrity of one or more ecosystems for present and future generations of animals and birds.

Question 7.
What do you mean by rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is the method of collecting rainwater from roof tops and directing or passing it to an appropriate location and storing if for future use.

Question 8.
What do you mean by intercropping?
Answer:
Intercropping is a multiple cropping practice or method in which different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the soil from rain wash.

Question 9.
What do you understand by the term biosphere?
Answer:
Natural vegetation and wildlife exist only in the narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere is known as biosphere.

Question 10.
What is ecosystem?
Answer:
In the biosphere, the life supporting system is known as the ecosystem where the living beings are interrelated and interdependent on each other for survival.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Land is considered as an important resource. Why?
Answer:
Land is used for different purposes such as agriculture, forestry, mining, building houses, roads and setting up of industries. Hence, the land is considered as an important resource.

Question 2.
Name the areas which are sparsely populated or uninhabited?
Answer:
The areas which are sparsely populated or uninhabited are the rugged topography, steep slopes of the mountains, low- lying areas susceptible to water logging, desert areas, and thick forested areas.

Question 3.
What are the possible reasons for water shortage?
Answer:
The possible reason for water shortage may be the outcome of variation in seasonal or annual precipitation or rainfall or can be caused by overexploitation and contamination of water sources.

Question 4.
List the major causes affecting soil formation.
Answer:
The major causes affecting soil formation are the nature of the parent rock and climatic factors. Other causes and factors are the topography, role of organic material and time taken for the composition of soil formation.

Question 5.
What do you mean by landslides and how do they occur?
Answer:
Landslides are defined as the mass movement of rock, debris or earth down a slope. They often take place in conjunction and concurrence with earthquakes, floods and volcanoes. A prolonged spell of rainfall can cause heavy landslide that can block the flow of river for quite some time. The formation of river blocks can cause havoc to the settlements downstream on its bursting.

Question 6.
In India, per person water availability is declining. Why is it happening?
Answer:
In India, per person water availability is declining due to increasing population, rising demands for food and cash crops, increasing urbanisation and rising standards of living. These are the major causes leading to scarcity in supply of fresh water either due to drying up of water sources or water pollution.

Question 7.
Distinguish between tropical forests and deciduous forests.
Answer:

Tropical Forests	Deciduous Forests
Tropical forests do not shed their leaves simultaneously in any season of the year.	Deciduous forests shed their leaves in a particular season to conserve loss of moisture through transpiration.
These are also known as evergreen forests. Conifers, Eucalyptus ytrees are found here.	Maple, Aspen, elm are some of the trees found here.

Question 8.
Do you think rainfall affect vegetation? If yes, how?
Answer:
In areas of heavy rainfall, huge trees may thrive and grow. Thus, the forests are associated with areas having abundant water supply. As the amount of moisture decreases the size of trees and their density reduces. In the areas of moderate rainfall short stunted trees and grasses grow forming the grasslands of the world. In dry areas of low rainfall, thorny shrubs and scrubs grow. In such areas plants have deep roots and leaves have thorny and waxy surface to reduce loss of moisture by transpiration. So we can say that rainfall affect the vegetation.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Vegetation and wildlife are valuable resources.” Describe in brief.
Answer:
“Vegetation and wildlife are valuable resources.” The following points will describe it:

Plants provide us with food for animals and insects, give shelter to animals.
It produces oxygen we breathe, gives us timber.
It protects soils so essential for growing crops, act as shelter belts.
Help in storage of underground water, give us fruits, nuts, latex, turpentine oil, gum, medicinal plants and paper.
Wildlife includes animals, birds, insects as well as the aquatic life forms. They provide us milk, meat, hides and wool.
Insects like bees provide us honey, help in pollination of flowers and have an important role to play as decomposers in the ecosystem.
The birds feed on insects and act as decomposers as well. Vulture due to its ability to feed on dead livestock is a scavenger and considered a vital cleanser of the environment.

Question 2.
Describe what are the threats exist in natural vegetation and wildlife?
Answer:
Threats that exist in natural vegetation and wildlife are:

The loss of natural habitats for the plants and animals are due to changes of climate and human interferences.
Many species have become vulnerable or endangered and some are on the verge of extinction.
Some of the human made and natural factors which together accelerate the process of extinction of these great natural resources are deforestation, soil erosion, constructional activities, forest fires, tsunami and landslides.
One of the major issues is the increasing incidents of poaching that result in a sharp decline in the number of particular species.
For self-interest, human beings are cutting precious trees which is also one of the major threats.

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 1 Resources

June 4, 2022May 24, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 1 Resources

JAC Class 8th Geography Resources InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List out five resources you use in your home and five you use in your classroom.
Answer:
Five resources we use in our home are:
Question 2.
Circle those resources from Amnia’s list that are regarded as having no commercial value.

Five resources we use in our classroom are:

Amma’s List

Cotton cloth
Iron ore
Intelligence
Medicinal plants
Medical knowledge
Coal deposits
Beautiful scenery
Agricultural land
Clean environment
Old folk songs
Good weather
Resourcefulness
A good singing voice
Grandmother’s home remedies
Affection from friends and family

Answer:
Student need to do it on their own.

Question 3.
Think of a few renewable resources and mention how their stock may get affected by overuse.
Answer:
Some of the renewable resources that regenerate over-time such as trees, crops, wind, solar energy and water. Their stock may get affected by overuse or over utilisation because of certain reasons such as land degradation, deforestations, pollution, etc. Rivers are drying up, air becomes more polluted due to smoke from vehicles and industries. Trees are cut down to make more buildings, etc.

Question 4.
Make a list of five human made resources that you can observe around you.
Answer:
A list of five human made resources that we observe around are:

Phones
Buildings
Vehicles
Aeroplanes
Roads

JAC Class 8th Geography Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(i) Why are resources distributed unequally over the earth?
Answer:
The resources are distributed unequally over the earth because it is controlled by different factors. One of the factors is physical nature which includes climate, altitude, terrain which vary from place to place.

(ii) What is resource conservation?
Answer:
Resource conservation is to use the resources efficiently, carefully and properly and giving time to get renewed and to regenerate the resource so that it will be available for the coming generations.

(iii) Why are human resources important?
Answer:
Human resources are important because they can utilise the natural resources in a best possible way to generate more resources as they have an intelligent mind. Human resources also include technology and skills to find the suitable resource. Advantage and usefulness of resources can be best judged by human beings only.

(iv) What is sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is to use the resources in a balanced way so that we conserve it for the future generation and utilise it efficiently for our needs.

Tick the correct answer.

Question 2.
(i) Which one of the following does NOT make substance a resource?
(a) utility
(b) value
(c) quantity
Answer:
(c) quantity

(ii) Which one of the following is a human made resource?
(a) medicines to treat cancer
(b) spring water
(c) tropical forests
Answer:
(a) medicines to treat cancer

(iii) Complete the statement. Non-renewable resources are
(a) those which have limited stock
(b) made by human beings
(c) derived from non-living things
Answer:
(a) those which have limited stock

Question 3.
Activity:
“Rahiman paani raakhiye, Bin paani sab soon. Paani gaye na ubere Mod, manus, choon…” [Says Rahim, keep water, as without water there is nothing. Without water pearl, swan and dough cannot exist.] These lines were written by the poet Abdur Rahim Khankhana, one of the nine gems of Akbar’s court. What kind of resource is the poet referring to? Write in 100 words what would happen if this resource disappeared?
Answer:
The poet is referring to the water. If this resource disappear then we will face serious difficulties as water is one of the most invaluable and irreplaceable resource of life. Without water, we cannot survive and sustain. It serves many purposes such as to drink, to clean clothes and utensils and bath. For irrigation and farming, water is required very much. It is also used for cooking food. Water helps in generating electricity, industries and factories. Apart from human beings, animals, plants and trees also require water to sustain. Without water, the earth will become desert and no life will sustain. For Fun

Question 1.
Pretend that you live in the prehistoric times on a high windy plateau. What are the uses you and your friends could put the fast winds to? Can you call the wind a resource? Now imagine that you are living in the same place in the year 2138. Can you put the winds to any use? How? Can you explain why the wind is an important resource now?
Answer:
Wind has long been in use, since ancient time. It has been used for sailing boats, for navigation. Gradually wind mills were built to grind crops also to pump out water. Wind was regarded as a potential resource. However due to lack of technology it could not be harnessed completely. In 2138, we can surely see wind being used to the fullest as an actual resource. We have built wind turbines to generate electricity. We can see more and more wind turbines brings used in industrial areas, in agricultural farms to meet irrigation and electricity needs.

Question 2.
Pick up a stone, a leaf, a paper straw and a twig. Think of how you can use these as resources. See the example given below and get creative!

Answer:
Students can do the other two on their

JAC Class 8th Geography Resources Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A substance is made a resource when it has………
(a) Value
(b) usability
(c) utility
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 2.
Value means
(a) worth
(b) deserves
(c) both ka’ and ‘b’
(d) neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
Answer:
(c) both ka’ and ‘b’

Question 3.
Time and technology are two important factors that can change substances into .
(a) stock
(b) resource
(c) patent
(d)value
Answer:
(b) resource

Question 4.
Natural resources contains
(a) air
(b) wind
(c) water
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 5.
The distribution of natural resources depends on…….
(a) terrain
(b) altitude
(c) both ka’ and kb’
d. none of these
Answer:
(c) both ka’ and kb’

Question 6.
Non-renewable resource is…….
(a) natural gas
(b) solar energy
c. wind energy
d. soil
Answer:
a. natural gas

Question 7.
Water is a………
(a) non-renewable resource.
(b) renewable resource.
(c) either ‘a’ or ‘b’
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) renewable resource.

Question 8.
Resources to conserved for…..
(a) future generations.
(b) present generations.
(c) not required to conserve.
(d) both ‘a’ and kb’
Answer:
(d) both ‘a’ and kb’

Question 9.
Human resource refers to the
(a) quantity
(c) mental ability
(b) physical ability
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 10.
Buildings, bridges are
(a) human-made.
(b) non-renewable.
(c) renewable resource.
(d) resource conservation.
Answer:
(a) human-made.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which value is associated with resources?
Answer:
Economic value is associated withresources.

Question 2.
What do you mean by patent?
Answer:
Patent means the full and unshared right over any idea or invention of any particular thing.

Question 3.
What are the different types of resource?
Answer:
The different types of resources are:

Natural resources
Human made resources
Human resources

Question 4.
What do mean by natural resource?
Answer:
Natural resources are the resources which are drawn from nature, environment and used without much alterations and moderations.

Question 5.
Name the two natural resources.
Answer:
The two natural resources are:

Renewable resource
Non-renewable resource

Question 6.
Which resource has a limited stock? Answer: Non-renewable resource has a limited stock.

Question 7.
What do mean by human made resource?
Answer:
Human made resources are the resources which are generated and made by human beings.

Question 8.
Define human resource development.
Answer:
Human resource development means to improve the caliber, standard and quality of human expertise in order to make them more efficient and useful.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention few concepts of Sustainable Development.
Answer:
Few concepts of Sustainable Development are:

Respect and care for all forms of life.
Improve the quality of human life.
Conserve the earth’s vitality and diversity.
Minimise the depletion of natural resources.
Change personal attitude and practices toward the environment.
Enable communities to care for their own environment.

Question 2.
What is the importance of time and technology in making a substance a resource?
Answer:
Two major and important factors are time and technology that can change substances into resources. Each invention opens new routes to many others. The invention of fire led to the practice of cooking and other processes while the invention of the wheel resulted in development of newer modes of transport. The technology to create electricity from water i.e., hydroelectricity has turned energy in fast flowing water into an important resource.

Question 3.
Our duty is to maintain and preserve the life support system that nature provides us. What are they?
Answer:
Our duty is to maintain and preserve the life support system that nature provides us. They are:

All uses of renewable resources are maintained at a certain level.
The varied range of life on the earth is conserved.
The damage to natural environmental system is lessened and reduced.

Question 4.
Stock of certain renewable resources may get affected by overuse. How?
Answer:
If we don’t use certain renewable resources efficiently such as water, soil and forest, these can affect their stock. Though water seems to be an unlimited renewable resource but shortage and drying up of natural water sources is a major issue in many parts of the world nowadays.

Question 5.
Describe the term resource and how they are classified.
Answer:
Any object, substance or material that has utility or usability makes a resource. The substances which have certain values become a resource.
Resources are classified into three parts:
Natural Resources These resources are those which are taken from nature.

Human made Resources:
These resources are those which are made by the humans and used their skill and knowledge to make the things for their own use.

Human Resources:
These resources includes human beings who serves in many ways such as teachers, doctors, etc.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between natural resources and human made resources.
Answer:

Natural Resources	Human Made Resources
Natural resources are the resources that are used from nature and used without much alteration and changes.	When humans use natural things to make something new that provides utility and value to our lives, it is called human-made resources. For instance, when we use metals, wood, cement, sand, and solar energy to make buildings, machinery,
Most of these resources can be used directly as they are free gifts of nature.	vehicles, bridges, roads, etc. they become man-made resources.
Natural resources are the air we breathe, the water in our rivers and lakes, the soils minerals.	Natural substances become resources only when their original form has been changed or modified to use such as iron is extracted from iron ore.

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 8 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 India After Independence

June 4, 2022May 24, 2022 by Prasanna

JAC Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 India After Independence

JAC Class 8th History India After Independence InText Questions and Answers

Page 131

Question 2.
Imagine a conversation between a father and son in a Muslim family. After Partition, the son thinks it would be wiser for them to move to Pakistan while the father believes that they should continue to live in India. Taking information from the chapter so far (and Chapter 11), act out what each would say.
Answer:
Students need to do it on their own.

Page 132

Question 3.
Discuss in your class, one advantageand one disadvantage today of the decision to keep English as a language of India.
Answer:
One advantage and one disadvantage of the decision to keep English as a language of India today are:

Advantage:
The Indians are kept united by using the English language in India.
Disadvantage:
The English language caused hindrance in the development of the national language i.e., hindi. It also made them non-native in their own land.

Look at Figs. 5 (a), 5 (b) and 5 (c). Notice how the Princely States disappear in 5 (b). Identify the new states that were formed in 1956 and later and the languages of these states.

Answer:
After the creation of Andhra, other linguistic communities also demanded their own separate states. A States Reorganisation Commission was set up, which submitted its report in 1956, recommending the redrawing of district and provincial boundaries to form compact provinces of Assamese, Bengali, Oriya, Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu speakers respectively. The large Hindi-speaking region of north India was also to be broken up into several states. A little later, in 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into separate states for Marathi and Gujarati speakers. In 1966, the state of Punjab was also divided into Punjab and Haryana, the former for the Punjabi speakers (who were also mostly Sikhs), the latter for the rest (who spoke not Punjabi but versions of Haryanvi or Hindi).

Page 137

Question 5.
Discuss in your class whether Mira Behn was right in her view that science and machinery would create problems for human beings. You may like to think about examples of the effects of industrial pollution and deforestation on the world today.
Answer:
Mira Behn was right in her view that science and machinery would create problems for human beings. They create different types of problems such as industrial pollution, deforestation can be termed as environmental problems. These problems caused many natural disasters like flood, drought. Industrial pollution lead to toxic air which causes many diseases. Mira Behn followed the Gandhiji’s principals and devoted her life to the development of human beings. Mira Behn followed the Gandhiji’s principals and devoted her life to the development of human beings.

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Question 6.
Imagine you are witness to an argument between an adivasi and a person who is opposed to the reservation of seats and jobs. What ~ might be the arguments you heard each of them put forward? Act out the conversation.
Answer:
An argument between an adivasi and a person who is opposed to the reservation of seats and jobs can be as follows:
Adivasi:
We are weak in every context, like economically, socially, education. We are backward in everything so we should get reservation.

Person:
It will affect our lives too much. Our jobs and seats are decreasing and there are more people for one job.

Adivasi:
You people have dominated us for many generations and made us work as slaves as well. Now the time has come to be equal by getting education and jobs.

Person:
You are responsible for your own condition and not us. People will always try to take advantage but you I have to handle it tactfully. God has made everyone equal. Reservations would not make us equal.

Adivasi:
But the Government of India would help us and look after us.

JAC Class 8th History India After Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

( Let’s Recall )

Question 1.
Name three problems that the newly independent nation of India faced.
Answer:
(i) The three problems that the newly independent nation of India faced are:
India After Independence come to India and they had to be given food and shelter.

(ii) There were almost 500 princely states and their Maharajas and Nawabs had to be persuaded to join in the development of the new nation.

(iii) The new country had to frame and acquire a new political system for the benefit of the country’s people.

Question 2.
What was the role of the Planning Commission?
Answer:
The role of the Planning Commission was to formulate, draw up plan and execute suitable and appropriate policies for the economic development.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks:
(a) Subjects that were placed on the Union List were and…….
(b) Subjects on the Concurrent List were and…….
(c) Economic planning by which both the state and the private sector played a role in development was called a model.
(d) The death of sparked off such violent protests that the government was forced to give in to the demand for the linguistic state of Andhra.
Answer:
(a) Taxes, defence, foreign affairs.
(b) forests, agriculture
(c) Mixed economy
(d) Potti Sriramulu

Question 4.
State whether true or false:
(a) At independence, the majority of Indians lived in villages.
(b) The Constituent Assembly was made up of members of the Congress party.
(c) In the first national election, only men were allowed to vote.
(d) The Second Five Year Plan focused on the development of heavy industry.
Answer:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) False
(d)True

(Let’s Discuss)

Question 5.
What did Dr. Ambedkar mean when he said that “In politics we will have equality, and in social and economic life we will have inequality”?

Answer:
Dr. Ambedkar meant that political democracy had to be accompanied by economic and social democracy. Giving the right to vote would not automatically lead to the removal of other inequalities such as between rich and poor or between upper and lower castes when he said that “In politics we will have equality, and in social and economic life we will have inequality”.

Question 6.
After Independence, why was there a reluctance to divide the country on linguistic lines?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress had promised that once the country won independence, each major linguistic group would have its own province, it was said in 1920s. However, after independence the Congress did not take any steps to fulfill the promise. The reason was that India had been divided on the basis of religion. As a result of the partition of India, more than a million people had been killed in riots between Hindus and Muslims. Country could not afford further divisions on the basis of language. Both Prime Minister Nehru and Deputy Prime Minister Vallabhbhai Patel were against the creation of linguistic states.

Question 7.
Give one reason why English continued to be used in India after Independence.
Answer:
English continued to be used in India after Independence because the south Indians opposed to Hindi as they were not comfortable with the language. In the Assembly, T.T. Krishnamachari conveyed “a warning on behalf of people of the .South”, also some of whom threatened to separate from India if Hindi was imposed on them. Hence, a compromise was finally arrived at that while Hindi would be the “official language” of India, English would be used in the courts, the services, and communications between one state and another.

Question 8.
How was the economic development of India visualised in the early decades after Independence?
Answer:
The economic development of India visualised in the early decades after Independence were as follows:

In 1950, the government set up a Planning Commission to help design, implement and execute suitable policies for economic development.
There was a broad agreement known as “mixed economy” model. In this type of economy, both the State and the private sector would play important and complementary roles in increasing production and generating jobs.
Planning Commission task was to define which industries should be initiated by the state and which by the market and how to achieve a balance between the different regions and states.
The Second Five Year Plan was formulated in 1956. This focused strongly on the development of heavy industries such as steel and on the building of large dams.
These sectors would be under the control of the State. They focussed on heavy industry and the effort at state regulation of the economy was to guide economic policy for the next few decades.

(Let’s Do)

Question 9.
Who was Mira Behn? Find out more about her life and her ideas.
Answer:
Madeleine Slade (1892 – 1982), also known as Mirabehn or Meera Behn, was a British woman and the daughter of the British Rear-Admiral Sir Edmond Slade. She left her home in Britain to live and work with Mohandas Gandhi, the leader of the Indian Independence Movement. She devoted her life to human development and the advancement of Gandhi’s principles.

Question 10.
Find out more about the language divisions in Pakistan that led to the creation of the new nation of Bangladesh. How did Bangladesh achieve independence from Pakistan?
Answer:
In 1947, India was divided into India and Pakistan. Pakistan had two regions – West Pakistan and East Pakistan. It was divided on the basis of linguistic majority. West Pakistan was dominated by Urdu speaking majority and East Pakistan was dominated by Bangla speaking majority. The West Pakistan people always considered the East Pakistan people as inferior and subservient to them. The East Pakistan people were not having all the fundamental rights and facilities.

This caused rage and dissatisfaction among the Bengali Muslims of East Pakistan. Hence, they revolted against West Pakistan. They began to migrate to India. Hence, India was compelled to intervene the situation which supported the East Pakistan. And, the war broke between India and Pakistan. Finally, India won the war in favour of East Pakistan and Bangladesh emerged as a new country in 16th December 1971. It was recognised as a sovereign nation and Muziburr Rehman was its first President.

JAC Class 8th History India After Independence Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Question

Question 1.
The Congress and the Muslim League could not agree to specific details of the proposal. After the failure of the Cabinet Mission, the Muslim League decided on mass agitation for winning its demand for Pakistan and it announced Direct Action Day on
(a) 16 August 1946
(b) 23 August 1945
(c) 16 July 1946
(d) 29 August 1946
Answer:
(a) 16 August 1946

Question 2.
The Indian Constitution came into being on………
(a) 20 August 1947
(b) 30 February 1949
(c) 20 January 1950
(d) 26 January 1950
Answer:
(d) 26 January 1950

Question 3.
The constitution adopted Universal Adult Franchise means all Indians above the age of would be allowed to vote in state and national elections. Later, this limit was reduced to 18 years.
(a) 19 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 21 years
(d) 25 years
Answer:
(c) 21 years

Question 4.
The Constitution helped to abolish the practice of untouchability by
(a) a certain percentage of seats in legislatures as well as jobs in government were reserved for women.
(b) all seats in local legislatures as well as jobs in government were reserved for members of the lowest castes.
(c) a certain percentage of seats in legislatures as well as jobs in government were reserved for
(d) a certain percentage of seats in legislatures as well as jobs in government were reserved for members of the lowest castes.
Answer:
(d) a certain percentage of seats in legislatures as well as jobs in government were reserved for members of the lowest castes.

Question 5.
Franchise means
(a) the right to free speech.
(b) the right to vote.
(c) both a and b.
(d) the right to choose religion.
Answer:
(b) the right to vote.

Question 6.
……… was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee who played the most important role in framing the Constitution of India and supervised the finalising of document.
(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(b) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(c) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

Question 7.
Both Prime Minister Nehru and Deputy Prime Minister were against the creation of linguistic states.
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Sanjeev Reddy
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer:
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 8.
The veteran Gandhian Potti Sriramulu go on a hunger fast in October 1952 in demand for
(a) the formation of state a Malay to protect the interests of Malayalam speakers.
(b) the formation of an Andhra state to protect the interests of Tamil speakers.
(c) the formation of an Andhra state to protect the interests of Telugu speakers.
(d) the formation of a Tamil state to protect the interests of Telugu speakers.
Answer:
(c) the formation of an Andhra state to protect the interests of Telugu speakers.

Question 9.
The new state of Andhra Pradesh come into being on .
(a) 1st October, 1953
(b) 26th January, 1951
(c) 13th August, 1953
(d) 10th December, 1955
Answer:
(a) 1st October, 1953

Question 10.
The state of Punjab was divided into in 1966.
(a) Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
(b) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh
(c) Punjab and Rajasthan
(d) Punjab and Haryana
Answer:
(d) Punjab and Haryana

Very Short Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What were the main focuses on in the second five year plan for economic development and to create more jobs?
Answer:
The main focuses were on in the second five year plan for economic development and to create more job was on heavy industries.

Question 2.
In which year the state of Bombay was divided into separate states for Marathi and Gujarati speakers?
Answer:
In 1960, the state of Bombay was divided into separate states for Marathi and Gujarati speakers.

Question 3.
What does the ‘State List’ include?
Answer:
The ‘State List’ includes the education and health – principal responsibilities.

Question 4.
Several members of the Constituent Assembly wanted to replace English with Hindi. But non-Hindi speakers wanted English to be continued. What was the solution to this?
Answer:
Hindi was made .the official language of India; while English would be used in the court, the services, and in communication between states.

Question 5.
What was the basic objective of the foreign policy of Independent India?
Answer:
The basic objective of the foreign policy of Independent India was non-alignment, i.e., the American and Soviet alliances.

Question 6.
What became the symbol of development of Independent India?
Answer:
Dams and bridges became the symbol of development of Independent India.

Question 7.
In which year the Bhilai Steel Plant set up?
Answer:
The Bhilai Steel Plant was set up with the help of the former Soviet Union in 1959.

Question 8.
In what manner the Bhilai Steel Plant was seen?
Answer:
The Bhilai Steel Plant was seen as an important sign of the development of modem India after Independence.

Question 9.
Where is the world’s largest slum?
Answer:
Dharavi in Mumbai is the largest slum in the world.

Question 10.
How many Princely States were there in India at the time of partition?
Answer:
There were nearly 500 Princely States in India at the time of Partition.

Short Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Which step of Constitution has been described as revolutionary?
Answer:
The step of Constitution which had been described as revolutionary was its adoption of universal adult franchise. All Indians above the age of 21 years would be allowed to vote in state and national elections. It was never done before and Indians had been allowed to choose their own leaders.

Question 2.
What was the intensity and measure of development at the time India got independence?
Answer:
At Independence time, the majority of Indians lived in the villages. Farmers and peasants depended on the monsoon for their survival. So did the non-farm sector of the rural economy for if the crops failed, barbers, carpenters, weavers and other service groups would not get paid for their services either. In the cities as well the condition was not quite good, factory workers and labourers lived in crowded slums. They had very little access to healthcare or education and they had minimum facilities.

Question 3.
How are the powers divided between state and Centre?
Answer:
The Constitution of India provides for a division of powers between the Union (Centre) and states. It divides all the subjects into 3 lists. They are a Union List, with subjects such as taxes, defence and foreign affairs, which would be the exclusive responsibility of the Centre; a State List of subjects, such as education and health, which would be taken care of principally by the states; a Concurrent List, under which would come subjects such as forests and agriculture, in which the Centre and the States would have joint responsibility.

Question 4.
Write in brief the problems in unifying the people of India after it got independence.
Answer:
The problems in unifying the people of India after it got independence were:

(i) India’s population in 1947 was almost 345 million. It was quite large. It was also divided. There were divisions between high castes and low castes, between the majority Hindu community and Indians who practised other faiths such as Muslims, Sikhs, etc.

(ii) The citizens of this vast land spoke many different languages, wore many different kinds of dress, ate different kinds of food and practised different professions.

Question 5.
Describe the special privileges that were offered to the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians by the constitutions.
Answer:
The special privileges that were offered to the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians by the constitutions were:

The practice of untouchability was abolished.
Hindu temples, previously open to only the higher castes, were open to all, including the former untouchables.
A certain percentage of seats in legislatures as well as jobs in government be reserved for members of the lowest castes.
Along with the former Untouchables, the adivasis or Scheduled Tribes were also granted reservation in seats and jobs.

Question 6.
Why a compromise was made with respect to language?
Answer:
A compromise was made with respect to language because many members believed that the English language should leave India with the British rulers. Hindi should be taken in its place, they argued. But, those who did not speak Hindi were of a different opinion. Speaking in the Assembly, T.T. Krishnamachari conveyed “a warning on behalf of people of the South”, some of whom threatened to separate from India if Hindi was imposed on them. A compromise was finally arrived at that while Hindi would be the “official language” of India, English would be used in the courts, the services, and communications between one state and another.

Question 7.
List the new Government’s priorities.
Answer:
The government’s main priorities after independence was that a majority of people had to be lifted above the poverty line and to achieve the agricultural productivity which had to be increased to feed the enormous population. Industries had to be set up to provide jobs for the jobless.

Question 8.
What do you mean by mixed economy?
Answer:
Mixed economy model is the economic planning by which both the state and the private sector plays a role in development.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
How did Andhra Pradesh come into existence?
Answer:
The Kannada speakers, Malayalam speakers, the Marathi speakers, had all looked forward to having their own state. However, the strongest protests, came from the Telugu-speaking districts of what was the Madras Presidency. When Nehru went to campaign there during the general elections of 1952, he was met with black flags and slogans demanding “We want Andhra”. In October 1952, a veteran Gandhian named Potti Sriramulu went on a hunger fast demanding the formation of Andhra state to protect the interests of Telugu speakers. As the fast went on, it attracted much support from people. Hartals and bandhs were observed in many towns and cities. On 15 December 1952, fifty-eight days into his fast, Potti Sriramulu died. But the protests were so widespread and intense that the central government was forced to give in to the . demand. Thus, on 1 October 1953, the new state of Andhra Pradesh came into being.

Question 2.
Describe briefly on abolition of untouchability and Reservation Policy.
Answer:
Abolition of untouchability and the Reservation Policy was another important feature of the Indian constitution. The Constitution offered special privileges and advantages for the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians. The practice of untouchability was abolished. Hindu temples, previously open to only the higher castes, were open to all, means it includes the untouchables. The Constituent Assembly also recommended that a certain percentage of seats in legislatures as well as jobs in government be reserved for members of the lowest castes.

Many members of the Constituent . Assembly argued against the Reservation Policy. But many members stated that the policy was necessary to uplift the Harijans and the backward people as they have been suppressed for thousands of years. Along with the former Untouchables, the Adivasis or Scheduled Tribes were also granted reservation in Educational Institutions and jobs. Like the Scheduled Castes, these Indians too had been deprived and discriminated against. The new constitution sought to provide them with good education, health care and a profitable livelihood.

Question 3.
Describe briefly the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was set up to draft out the constitution of India. The Constituent Assembly met numerous times while the Indian constitution was being written. The writing of the constitution took almost three years to be completed; from December 1946 to November 1949. The meetings of the “Constituent Assembly” were held in New Delhi. The members of the assembly came from all over India, and from different political parties.

The most important role was played by Dr B.R. Ambedkar, who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. Under the supervision of Dr B.R. Ambedkar the document was finalised. The Indian constitution was completed and adopted on 26 January 1950. On 26th January, India became a Republic and since Republic Day has been celebrated on 26th January every year.