JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life

JAC Board Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life

JAC Class 9th Science The Fundamental Unit of Life InText Questions and Answers

Page 59

Question 1.
Who discovered cells and how?
Answer:
Robert Hooke discovered cells in 1665. He observed the cells in thin slices of cork. They appeared like small compartments when viewed under the microscope.

Question 2.
Why is the cell called structural and functional unit of life?
Answer:
A cell is capable of carrying out all the life functions such as nutrition, excretion, respiration, etc Hence, a cell is called the functional unit of life. Additionally, the cell is the smallest unit of life and all the living beings are made up of cells. Therefore, a cell is called the structural unit of life.

Page 61

Question 1.
How do substances like CO, and water move in and out of the cell? Discuss.
Answer:
Substances move in and out of the cell because of diffusion. Diffusion is the random movement of particles in order to attain concentration equilibrium. The movement of water molecules through a semi – permeable membrane is called osmosis. It is important to note that plasma membrane is a semi – permeable membrane. Water always moves from its higher concentration to its lower concentration.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life

Question 2.
Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively permeable membrane?
Answer:
Plasma membrane allows passage to some selected substances. Hence, it is called a selectively permeable or semi- permeable membrane.

Page 63

Question 1.
Fill in the gaps in the following table illustrating difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

Prokaryotic cell Eukaryotic cell
(a) Size: generally small (1 – 10µm) (a) Size: generally large (5 – 100µm)
(b) Nuclear region …………….
…………………
…………………and known as ….
…………………
(b) Nuclear region: well – defined and surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
(c) Chromosome: single (c) More than one chromosome.
(d) Membrane bound cell organelles absent. (d) ……………
……………….
……………….

Answer:

  • Prokaryotic cell (b): Nuclear region is poorly defined due to absence of a nuclear membrane and is known as nucleoid.
  • Eukaryotic cell (d): Membrane bound cell organelles are present.

Page 65

Question 1.
Can you name the two organelles we have studied that contain their own genetic material?
Answer:
Mitochondria and chloroplast contain their own genetic material.

Question 2:
If the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence, what will happen?
Answer:
Various parts of a cell are responsible for various functions. They work in tandem
to continue life in the cell. In case, the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence, the cell will die.

Question 3.
Why are lysosomes known as suicide bags?
Answer:
Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes. In case of a rupture in lysosomes, the enzymes are released in the cytoplasm and end up digesting the contents of the cell. This results in cell death. Due to this, lysosomes are also known as suicide bags of cells.

Question 4.
Where are proteins synthesised inside the cell?
Answer:
The proteins are synthesised in the ribosomes present on RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum). They are also known as protein factories.

JAC Class 9th Science The Fundamental Unit of Life Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Make a comparison and write the ways in which plant cells are different from animal cells.
Answer:

Plant cell Animal cell
(a) Plant cells have cell wall. (a) Animal cells don’t have a cell wall.
(b) They contain chloroplast. (b) They don’t have chloroplasts.
(c) They do not have centrioles. (c) Centriole is present in them.
(d) Vacuole is large and present in centre of the cell. (d) Vacuoles are numerous and small.
(e) Nucleus is present at the periphery of the plant cell. (e) Nucleus is present in the centre of the animal cell.

Question 2.
How is a prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic cell?
Answer:

Prokaryotic cell Eukaryotic cell
(a) Cell size is generally small (1 – 10µm). (a) Cell is , generally large (5 – 100µm).
(b) Nuclear region, called nucleoid, is not surrounded by a nuclear membrane. (b) Nuclear material is surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
(c) Nucleolus is absent. (c) Nucleolus is present.
(d) Membrane bound cell organelles are absent. (d) Cell organelles bounded by membrane are present.
(e) Cell division by fission or budding (no mitosis). (e) Cell division by mitosis or meiosis.

Question 3.
What would happen if the plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down?
Answer:
Plasma membrane provides a container for the cell organelles and cytoplasm. Moreover, plasma membrane also protects the contents of a cell from external environment. In case the plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down, the cell contents would be exposed to the external environment. This would prove lethal for the cell and the cell would cease to exist.

Question 4.
What would happen to the life of a cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?
Answer:
If Golgi apparatus is not present, the packaging and transport of materials would cease to happen. Various substances would not be transformed into useful materials of the cell. Plasma membrane will also be affected The secretory activities of the cell would also cease to occur. Hence, the cell will eventually die off.

Question 5.
Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell? Why?
Answer:
Mitochondrion is known as the powerhouse of the cell. The reason for this is the fact that cellular respiration takes place in mitochondria and the energy released after that, gets stored in mitochondria in the form of ATP. As ATP instantly provides energy, they are called energy currency of the cell.

Question 6.
Where do the lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane get synthesised?
Answer:
Lipids are synthesised in the endoplasmic reticulum (smooth ER). Protein is synthesised in ribosomes which are usually present on the rough ER.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life

Question 7.
How does Amoeba obtain its food?
Answer:
Amoeba obtains its food through a process called phagocytosis. The cell membrane of amoeba is projected into numerous finger – like outgrowths called pseudopodia Amoeba surrounds a food particle by pseudopodia and makes a food vacuole after engulfing the food.

Question 8.
What is osmosis?
Answer:
Osmosis is the process of movement of water molecules from a region of higher water concentration, through a semi – permeable membrane, to a region of lower water concentration.

Question 9.
Carry out the following osmosis experiment:
Take four peeled potato halves and scoop each one out to make potato cups, one of these potato cups should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough containing water. Now,
(a) Keep cup A empty.
(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B.
(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C.
(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D.
Keep these for two hours. Then, observe the four potato cups and answer the following:
1. Explain why water gathers in the hollowed portion of B and C.
2. Why is potato A necessary for this experiment?
3. Explain why water does not gather in the hollowed out portions of A and D.
Answer:

  1. Water gathers in the hollowed portion of potato B and C because: Living plasma membrane of potato cells act as semi – permeable membrane. There is higher concentration of water in trough than the hollowed portions of B and C. So water, by the process of osmosis, moves into the hollowed portions of potato cups B and C.
  2. Potato cup A is kept empty to act as control set – up.
  3.  potato is necessary because
    • (a) As the potato cup A is empty, water does not gather in hollowed out portions of A.
    • (b) In the potato cup D, the potato cell membrane lose semi – permeability due to boiling. So, no water movement occurs from the trough into the potato cup D.

Question 10.
Which type of cell division is required for growth and repair of body and which type is involved in formation of gametes?
Answer:
Growth and repair of body – Mitosis. Formation of gametes – Meiosis.

JAC Class 9 Science Solutions

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

JAC Board Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

JAC Class 9th Science Structure of the Atom InText Questions and Answers

Page 47

Question 1.
What are canal rays?
Answer:
Canal rays are radiations which are positively charged. They were the key in the discovery of proton, another positively charged sub – atomic particle.

Question 2.
If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?
Answer:
Since an electron is a negatively charged particle and the proton, a positively charged one, the net charge becomes neutral as both particles neutralise each

Page 48

Question 1.
On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.
Answer:
According to Thomson’s model of an atom:

  1. an atom consists of a positively charged sphere in which the negatively charged electrons are embedded.
  2. the number of protons and electrons are equal in an atom, thereby, neutralising their charge keeping the overall system neutral.

Question 2.
On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which sub-atomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?
Answer:
As per Rutherford’s model of atom, the positively charged protons are the ones that are present in the nucleus of an atom.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 3.
Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.
Answer:
Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells:
JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 1

Question 4.
What do you think would be the observation if the α – particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold?
Answer:
When any other metal foil is used instead of gold, the observation would remain the same. This is because the structure of an atom, when considered individually, remains the same.

Page 49

Question 1.
Name the three subatomic particles of an atom.
Answer:
An atom consists of three subatomic particles:

  1. Protons : Positively charged
  2. Electrons : Negatively charged
  3. Neutrons : Neutral in nature (no charge)

Question 2.
Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4u and two protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons does it have?
Answer:
Atomic mass of He = 4u
Atomic mass = number of (protons + neutrons)
4 = 2 + number of neutrons Number of neutrons = 4 – 2
= 2 Helium atom has 2 neutrons.

Page 50

Question 1.
Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.
Answer:
1. Carbon atom:
Atomic number = 6
Number of protons = 6 = Number of electrons
Distribution of electrons = K – 2, L – 4.

2. Sodium atom:
Atomic number = 11
Number of protons = 11 = Number of electrons
Distribution = K – 2, L – 8, M – 1.

Question 2.
If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of electrons in the atom?
Answer:
Number of electrons K shell can hold = 2 Number of electrons L shell can hold = 8
Hence, when both the shells are full, the total number of electrons present = 2 + 8 ⇒ 10 electrons.

Page 52

Question 1.
How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?
Answer:
Valency is the combining capacity of the atom of an element.
1. Chlorine: Atomic number = 17
Number of protons = Number of electrons = 17
Distribution: K – 2, L – 8, M – 7 Chlorine needs 1 electron to complete its outermost orbit shell. Its valency is – 1 (gains 1 electron).

2. Sulphur: Atomic number = 16 Number of protons = Number of electrons = 16
Distribution: K – 2, L – 8, M – 6 Sulphur needs 2 electrons to complete its outermost shell. Its valency is – 2 (gains 2 electrons).

3. Magnesium: Atomic number = 12
Number of protons = Number of electrons = 12
Distribution: K – 2, L – 8, M – 2 Magnesium needs to donate 2 electrons from its outermost shell to become stable. Its valency is + 2 (donate 2 electrons).

Question 2.
If the number of electrons in an atom is 8 and number of protons is also 8, then
(a) what is the atomic number of the atom?
(b) what is the charge on the atom?
Answer:
Number of electrons = 8, Number of protons = 8
(a) Atomic number of the atom = Number of protons = 8

(b) As the number of electrons is equal to the number of protons on the atom, their charges neutralise each other. Therefore, the atom does not possess any charge.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 3.
With the help of the table 4.1, find out the mass number of oxygen and sulphur atom.
Answer:

  1. Oxygen: Number of protons = 8 Number of neutrons = 8 Atomic number = 8
    Mass number = Number of (protons + neutrons) = 8 + 8 = 16u.
  2. Sulphur: Number of protons = 16 Number of neutrons = 16 Atomic number = 16
    Mass number = Number of (protons + neutrons) = 16 + 16 = 32u.

Page 53

Question 1.
For the symbols H, D and T, tabulate three subatomic particles found in each of them.
Answer:
The symbols H, D and T, tabulate three subatomic particles:

Element H (Protium) (11H) D (Deute – rium) (2H) T (Tritium) (31H)
Number of protons 1 1 1
Number of electrons 1 1 1
Number of neutrons Nill 1 2

Question 2.
Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.
Answer:
(a) Isotopes : Isotopes are atoms which have the same number of protons but the number of neutrons differs. This leads to the variation in mass number too.
Example :
The simplest example is the carbon molecule which exists as \({ }_{6} \mathrm{C}^{12}\) and \({ }_{6} \mathrm{C}^{14}\) but when their electronic configuration is noticed, both have K – 2, L – 4.

(b) Isobars : Isobars are the atoms having the same mass number but differ in the atomic numbers. Electronic configuration of an isobar pair is as follows:
Example :
40Ca20: K – 2, L – 8, M – 8, N – 2
40Ar18 : K – 2, L – 8, M – 8

JAC Class 9th Science Atoms and Molecules Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons.
Answer:
The properties of electrons, protons and neutrons:

Electrons Protons Neutrons
Negatively charged Positively charged No charge
Present outside the nucleus Present within the nucleus Present inside the nucleus of an atom
Negligible mass 1 a.m.u. 1 a.m.u.
Get attracted towards positive electrode Get attracted towards negative electrode Do not get attracted to any charged particle.

Question 2.
What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of an atom?
Answer:
According to J.J. Thomson’s model of an atom, the electrons are embedded all over in the positively charged sphere. But experiments done by the other scientists show that protons are present only in the centre of the atom and electrons are distributed around it.

Question 3.
What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of atom?
Charged bodies, when move in circular motion, emit radiations. Thus, electrons revolving round the nucleus, as suggested by Rutherford, will lose energy and will come closer and closer to the nucleus and will finally merge into the nucleus. This means that atoms are quite unstable which is not true.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 4.
Describe Bohr’s model of atom.
Answer:
(a) The nucleus of an atom is present in the centre.
(b) Negatively charged electrons revolve around this nucleus.
(c) Discrete orbits of electrons are present inside the atom.
(d) While revolving in the orbit, the electrons do not radiate energy.
(e) These discrete orbits are represented as K, L, M, N orbits or denoted by
JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life 8

Question 5.
Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in this chapter.
Answer:

Thomson’s atomic model Rutherford’s atomic model Bohr’s atomic model
Sphere of positive charge Sphere of positive charge in centre is called nucleus. All mass of an atom resides in the nucleus. Positive charge in centre is called nucleus.
Electrons are spread randomly all over in the sphere. Electrons revolve around the nucleus in well defined orbits. Electrons revolve in discrete orbits and do not radiate energy.
Positive charge = negative charge. Size of nucleus is very small as compared to the size of atom. The orbits were termed as energy shells
Atom is electricity – neutral. Rutherford’s atomic model labelled as K, L, M, N or n = 1,2, 3, 4.

Question 6.
Summarise the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the first 18 elements.
Answer:
(a) Generally, the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a shell is given by the formula: 2n2, where n = 1, 2, 3 … .

(b) Maximum number of electrons in different shells are:
K shell (n = 1), 2n2 = 2(1)2 = 2
L shell (n = 2), 2n2 = 2(2)2 = 8
M shell (n = 3), 2n2 = 2(3)2 = 18
N shell (n = 4), 2n2 = 2(4)2 = 32.

(c) The electrons are not taken in unless the inner shells are completely filled.

Question 7
Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.
Answer:
Valency is the combining capacity of an atom. Take the examples of silicon and oxygen:

Oxygen Silicon
Atomic Number : 8 Atomic Number : 14
Electronic Config : K – 2, L – 6 Electronic Config : K – 2, L – 8, M – 4
Valence electrons : 6 Valence electrons : 4
Valency : 8 – 6 = 2 Valency : 8 – 4 = 4

In the atoms of oxygen, the valence electrons are 6.
To fill the orbit, 2 electrons are required In the atom of silicon, the valence electrons are 4.
To fill this orbit 4 electrons are required Hence, the  combining capacity of oxygen is 2 and of silicon is 4, i.e., valency of oxygen = 2 and valency of silicon = 4.

Question 8.
Explain with examples.
(a) Atomic number
(b) Mass number
(c) Isotopes
(d) Isobars
Give any two uses of isotopes.
Answer:
(a) Atomic number : The atomic number of an element is the total number of protons present in the atom of that element. For example, nitrogen has 7 protons in its atom. Thus, the atomic number of nitrogen is 7.

(b) Mass number : The mass number of an element is the. sum of the number of protons and neutrons present in the atom of that element. For example, the atom of boron has 5 protons and 6 neutrons. So, the mass number of boron is 5 + 6 =11.

(c) Isotopes : These are atoms of the same element having the same atomic number, but different mass numbers. For example, chlorine has two isotopes with atomic number 17 but mass numbers 35 and 37 represented by \({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}\) \({ }_{17}^{37} \mathrm{Cl}\).

(d) Isobars : These are atoms having the same mass number but different atomic number, i.e, isobars are atoms of different elements having the same mass number. For example,
Ca has atomic number 20 and Ar has atomic number 18 but both of them have mass number 40 represented by \({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca}\) and \({ }_{18}^{40} \mathrm{Ar}\) respectively.

Two uses of isotopes:

  1. An isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors.
  2. An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 9.
Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.
Answer:
The atomic number of sodium is 11. So, neutral sodium atom has 11 electrons and its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 1. But Na+ has 10 electrons. Out of 10, K – shell contains 2 and L – shell has 8 electrons. Thus, Na+ has completely filled K and L shells.

Question 10.
If bromine atom is available in the 79 form of, say, two isotopes \({ }_{35}^{79} \mathrm{Br}\) (49.7%) and \({ }_{35}^{81} \mathrm{Br}\) (50.3%), calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom.
Answer:
The atomic masses of two isotopic atoms are 79 (49.7%) and 81 (50.3%).
Thus, total mass = (79 × \(\frac{49.7}{100} \) ) + (81 × \(\frac{50.3}{100} \)) = 39.263 + 40.743 = 80.006u.

Question 11.
The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of isotopes \({ }_{8}^{16} \mathrm{X}\) and \({ }_{8}^{18} \mathbf{X}\) in the sample?
Answer:
It is given that the average atomic mass of the sample of element X is 16.2 u. Let the % of isotope \({ }_{8}^{16} \mathrm{X}\) be y%. Thus, the % of isotopes \({ }_{8}^{18} \mathbf{X}\) will be (100 – y) %. Therefore,
16 × \(\frac{\mathrm{y}}{100}\) + \(\frac{18 \times(100-y)}{100}\) = 16.2
\(\frac{16 y}{100}\) + \(\frac{18(100-y)}{100}\) = 16.2
\(\frac{16 y+1800-18 y}{100}\) = 16.2
1800 – 2y = 1620 or 2y = 1800 – 1620 = y – 90
Therefore, the % of isotope \({ }_{8}^{16} \mathrm{X}\) is 90%.
And, the % of the isotope \({ }_{8}^{18} \mathbf{X}\) is (100 – 90) % = 10%.

Question 12.
If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.
Answer:
Z = atomic number = 3 (given) Electronic configuration = K – 2, L – 1 Thus, valency = 1 The element with atomic number 3 is lithium.

Question 13.
The composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under

X Y
Protons 6 6
Neutrons 6 8

Give the mass number of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?
Answer:
Mass number of X = Protons + Neutrons = 6 + 6 = 12
Mass number of Y = Protons + Neutrons = 6 + 8 = 14
Since the atomic numbers of both the species are the same, they are the same element. Also, since they have different number of neutrons, their mass number is different and they are the isotopes.

Question 14.
For the following statements, write T for true and F for false.
(a) J. J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it is neutral.
(c) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of proton.
(d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a medicine.
Answer:
(a) False
(b) False
(c) True
(d) False
Put tick against correct choice and cross against wrong choice in questions 15, 16 and 17.

Question 15.
Rutherford’s alpha – particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of:
(a) Atomic nucleus
(b) Proton
(c) Electron
(d) Neutron
Answer:
(a) Atomic nucleus.

Question 16.
Isotopes of an element have:
(a) the same physical properties
(b) different number of neutrons
(c) different number of protons
(d) different atomic number
Answer:
(b) different number of neutrons.

Question 17.
Number of valence electrons in Cl ion are:
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 17
(d) 18
Answer:
(b) 8.

Question 18:
Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?
(a) 2, 8
(b) 8, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 8
(d) 2, 8, 1
Answer:
(d) 2, 8, 1.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Question 19.
Complete the following table.

Atomic number Mass number Number of neutrons
9 10
16 32
24
2
1 0
Number of protons Number of electrons Name of the atomic species
12 Sulphur
1

Answer:

Atomic number Mass number Number of neutrons
9 19 10
16 32 16
12 24 12
1 2 1
1 1 0
Number of protons Number of electrons Name of the atomic species
9 9 Fluorine
16 16 Sulphur
12 12 Magnesium
1 1 Hydrogen
1 0 Deuterium
1 1 Hydrogen
1 0 Protium

JAC Class 9 Science Solutions

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

JAC Board Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

JAC Class 9th Science Atoms and Molecules InText Questions and Answers

Page 32

Question 1.
In a reaction, 5.3g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2g of carbon dioxide, 0.9g water and 8.2g of sodium ethanoate. Show that these observations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass. Sodium carbonate + Acetic acid → Sodium acetate + Carbon dioxide + Water
Answer:
JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 1
This shows that during a chemical reaction, mass of reactants mass of products. Hence the given observation are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass.

Question 2.
Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1 : 8 by mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3g of hydrogen gas?
Answer:
Ratio of H : O by mass in water is:
Hydrogen : Oxygen → H2O ⇒ 1 : 8 = 3 : x or x = 24g
24 g of oxygen gas would be rcquircd to react completely with 3g of hydrogen.

Question 3.
Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the Law of consersatlon of mass?
Answer:
Awms are indivisible particles, which can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical rcacuon.

Question 4.
Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions?
Answer:
“The relative number and kind of atoms are constant in a given compound”

Page 35

Question 1.
Define the atonik mass unit.
Answer:
A unit of mass used in express atomic and molecular weights, equal to one twelfth (1/12th.) of the mass of an stom of carbon – 12 The relative atomic masses of all elements have been found with respect to an atom of carbon – 12.

Question 2.
Why Is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes?
Answer:
The size of an atom is very small, Further, atoms of most elements do not exist independently. The radius of an atom is of the order of 10-10m.

Page 39

Question 1.
Write down the formulae of
(a) sodium oxide
(b) aluminium chloride
(c) sodium sulphide
(d) magnesium hydroxide
Answer:
(a) Sodium oxide — Na2O
(b) Aluminium chloride — AlCl3
(c) Sodium sulphide — Na2S
(d) Magnesium hydroxide — Mg(OH)2

Question 2.
Write down the names of compounds represented by the following formulae:
(a) Al2(SO4)3
(b) CaCl2
(c) K2SO4
(d) KNO3
(e) CaCO3
Answer:
(a) Al2(SO4)3 : Aluminium sulphate
(b) CaCl2 : Calcium chloride
(c) K2SO2 : Potassium sulphate
(d) KNO3 : Potassium nitrate
(e) CaCO2 : Calcium carbonate

Question 3.
What Is meant by the term chemical formula?
Answer:
The chemical formula of a compound is the symbolic representation of its composition. It gives the number and kinds of atoms which are chemically united in a given compound. For example, chemical formula of sodium chloride is NaCl.

Question 4.
How many atoms are present in a
(a) H2S molecule and
(b) \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) ion?
Answer:
(a) H2S → 3 atoms are present: 2 atoms of hydrogen and 1atom of sulphur.
(b) \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) → 5 atoms are present: 1 atom of phosphorus and 4 atoms of oxygen.

Page 40

Question 1.
Calculate the molecular masses of H2, O2 C12, CO2, CH4, C2H6, C2H4, NH3, CH3OH.
Answer:
The molecular masses are:
H2 → 1 + 1 = 2u
O2 → 16 + 16 = 32u
Cl2 → 35.5 + 35.5 = 71u
CO2 → p 12 + 32 = 44u
CH4 → 12 + 4 = 16u
C2H6 → (12 × 2) + (1 × 6) = 30u
C2H4 → (12 × 2) + (1 × 4) = 28u
NH3 → (1 × 14) + (1 × 3) = 17u
CH3OH → (1 × 12) + (1 × 3) + (1 × 16)(1 × 1) = 32u.

Question 2.
Calculate the formula unit of masses of ZnO, Na2O, K2CO3, given atomic masses of Zn = 65u, Na = 23u, K = 39u, C = 12u and O = 16u.
Answer:
The formula Unit mass of:
(a) ZnO = 65u + 16u = 81u
(b) Na2O = (23u × 2) + 16u = 46u + 16u = 62u
(c) K2CO3 = (39u × 2) + 12u + (16u × 3)
= 78u + 12u + 48u
= 138u.

Page 42

Question 1.
If 1 mole of carbon atoms weigh 12grams, what Is the mass (in grams) of 1 atom of carbon?
Answer:
1 mole of carbon atoms = 6.022 × 1023 atoms
Now, 12/6.022 × 1023 atoms of carbon weigh = 12g
One atom of carbon weighs = \(\frac{12}{6.023}\) × 1023
= 1.99 × 10-23g.

Question 2.
Which has more number of atoms 100 grams of sodium or loo grams of iron (given atomic mass of Na = 23u, Fe 56u)?
Answer:
23 gram atomic unit or 23g sodium (1 mole) = 6.022 × 1023 atoms
100 gram atomic unit or 100g sodium = \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23} \times 100}{23}\)
= 2.617 × 1024 atoms Again 56 gram atomic unit or 56 g iron (1 mole) 6.022 × 1023
100 gram atomic unit or 100 g iron = \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23} \times 100}{56}\)
= 1. 075 × 1024 atoms Thus, 100 g of sodium has more atoms than 100g of iron

JAC Class 9th Science Atoms and Molecules Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A 0.24g sample of compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096g of boron and 0.144g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound by weight.
Answer:
Percentage (%) of boron in the sample
\(\frac{0.096}{0.24}\) × 100 = 40%
Percentage (%) of oxygen in the sample
\(\frac{0.144}{0.24}\) × 100 = 60%
The sample of compound contains 40% boron and 60% oxygen by weight.

Question 2.
When 3.0g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen, 11.00g of carbon dioxide is produced. What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00g of carbon Is burnt In 50.00g of oxygen? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer?
Answer:
When 3.0g of carbon is burnt in 8.00g oxygen, 11.00g carbon dioxide is produced. It means all of carbon and oxygen are used up and carbon and oxygen are combined in the ratio of 3 : 8 to form carbon dioxide. Thus when there is 3g carbon and 50.0g oxygen, then also only 8g oxygen will be used and 11.0g carbon dioxide will be formed. The remaining oxygen is not used up. This indicates law of defmite proportions which Say that in compounds, the combining elements are present in definite proportions by mass.

Question 3.
What are polyatomic ions? Give examples.
Answer:
The ions which contain more than one atom (same kind or may be of different kind) and behave as a single unit are called polyatomic ions. For example:

  1. Ammonium ion NH is a compound ion which is made up of two types of atoms joined together, viz., nitrogen and hydrogen.
  2. Carbonate ion CO is a compound ion which is made up of two types of atoms joined together, viz., carbon and oxygen.

Question 4.
Write the chemical formulae of the following:
(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium oside
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Aluminium chloride
(e) Calcium carbonate
Answer:
(a) Magnesium chloride : MgCl
(b) Calcium oxide : CaO
(e) Copper nitrate : Cu(NO3)2
(d) Aluminium chloride : AlCl3
(e) Calcium carbonate: CaCO3

Question 5.
Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds:
(a) Quick lime
(b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder
(d) Potassium sulphate
Answer:
(a) Quick lime : Calcium and oxygen
(b) Hydrogen bromide : Hydrogen and bromine
(c) Baking powder : Sodium, hydrogen. carbon and oxygen
(d) Potassium sulphate : potassium. sulphur and oxygen

Question 6.
Calculate the molar mass of the following substances.
(a) Ethvne, C2H2
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4 (Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31u)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(e) Nitric acid, HNO3
Answer:
(a) Ethyne, C2H2 = (2 × 12) + (2 × 1) = 26g
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8 = 8 × 32 = 256g
(c) Phosphorus molecules, P4 = 4 × 31 = 124g
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl = (1 × 1) + (1 × 35.5) = 36.5g
(e) Nitric acid, HNO3 = (1 × 1) + (1 × 14) + (3 × 16) = 63g

Question 7.
What is the muss of
(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (atomic mass of aluminium 27u)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2SO3)?
Answer:
(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms 14u = 14g
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms = 4 × 27 = 108u = 108g
(c) 1 mole of sodium sulphite = (2 × 23) + (1 × 32) + (3 × 16) = 126u = 126g
10 moles of sodium sulphite = 10 × 126 = 1260g.

Question 8.
Convert Into mole.
(a) 12g of oxygen gas
(b) 20g of water
(c) 22 g of carbon dioxide
Answer:
(a) Given mass of oxygen gas = 12g
Molar mass of oxygen gas (O2) = 32g
Mole of oxygen gas = \(\frac{12}{32}\)
= 0.375 mole.

(b) Given mass of water = 20g
Molar mass of water(H2O) (2 × 1) + 16= 18g
Mole of water = \(\frac{20}{18}\)= 1.11 mole.

(c) Given mass of carbon dioxide = 22g
Molar mass of carbon dioxide (CO2) (1 × 12) + (2 × 16) = 12 + 32 = 44g
Mole of carbon dioxide = \(\frac{22}{44}\)
= 0.5 mole.

Question 9.
What is the mass of
(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules?
Answer:
(a) Mole of oxygen atoms = 0.2 mole
Molar mass of oxygen atoms = 16g
Mass of oxygen atoms 16 × 0.2 = 3.2g.

(b) Mole of water molecule 0.5 mole
Molar mass of water molecules = (2 × 1) + 16 = 18g
Mass of H2O = 18 × 0.5 = 9g.

Question 10.
Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur (S8) present In 16 g of solid sulphur.
Answer:
Molar mass of sulphur (S8) = 256 g = 6.022 × 1023 molecules
Given mass of sulphur = 16g
Molecules of sulphur = \(\frac{16 \times 6.022 \times 10^{23}}{256}\)
\(=\frac{96.35 \times 10^{23}}{256}\) = 0.376 × 1023 molecules.

Question 11.
Calculate the number of aluminium ions present In 0.051 g of aluminium oxide.
Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the saine element Atomic mass of Al = 27u
Answer:
1 mole of aluminium oxide, Al2O3 = (2 × 27) + (3 × 16) = 102u = 102g
102 g of Al2O3 has = 6.022 × 1023 Al2O3 molecules
0.051 g of Al2O3has = \( \frac{6.022 \times 10^{23} \times 0.051}{102}\)
= 3.01 × 1020 molecules
1 molecule of Al2O3 gives = 2 Al3+ ions
Hence, 0.051g Al2O3 gives = 2 × 3.01 × 1020 Al3+ ions
= 6.022 × 1020 aluminium ions.

JAC Class 9 Science Solutions

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

JAC Board Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

JAC Class 9th Science Is Matter Around Us Pure InText Questions and Answers

Page 15

Question 1.
What is meant by a pure substance?
Answer:
A pure substance consists of a single type of particles and it cannot be separated into other kinds of matter by any separation process.

Question 2.
List the points of difference between ho-mogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.
Answer:
Differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures:

Homogeneous mixture Heterogeneous mixture
It has no visible boundary or boundaries of separation between its constituents. It has visible boundary boundaries of separation between its constituents.
It has a uniform composition. It does not have a uniform composition.
They form solutions. They form suspensions colloids.
The particle size is very small. The particle size is larger.
For example, sugar + water → sugar solution. For example, sugar + sand.


Page 18

Question 1.
Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.
Answer:
See answer 2 above.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 2.
How are sol, solution and suspension different from each other?
Answer:
Comparison among properties of true solution, colloidal solution and suspension:

Property True solution Colloidal solution Suspension
Appearance Hetero geneous and transparent. Hetero geneous and translucent. Hetero geneous and opaque.
Particle size lnm (10-9 m) lnm – 1000 nm 1000 lnm (10-6m)
Visibility Particles are not visible even with a powerful microscope. Particles can be seen with a high power microscope. Particles can be seen with naked eyes.
Stability Stable Stable Unstable
Diffusion Diffuse rapidly Diffuse slowly Do not diffuse
Filterability Passes through filter paper, e.g., sodium chloride dissolved in water. Passes through filter paper, e.g., blood. Can be separated by filter paper, e.g., mud water.

Question 3.
To make a saturated solution, 36g of sodium chloride is dissolved in lOOg of water at 293K. Find its concentration at this temperature.
Answer:
Mass of solute (sodium chloride) = 36g
Mass of solvent (water) = 100 g
Mass of solution = Mass of solute + Mass of solvent = 36g + 100g =136g
\(\frac{ Mass of solute}{Mass of solution}\) × 100 ⇒ \(\frac{36 \times 100}{136}\)
= 26.47%

Page 24

Question 1.
How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points is more than 25°C), which are miscible with each other?
Answer:
Set up the apparatus as shown in the figure. Take the given mixture in a distillation flask. Heat the mixture slowly, keeping a close watch at the thermometer. At a certain point, temperature becomes constant. Petrol vaporises first as it has lower boiling point. It condenses in the condenser and is collected from the condenser outlet. Stop heating when the temperature further starts rising. Kerosene is left behind in the distillation flask.
JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 1

Question 2.
Name the technique to separate:
(a) Butter from curd
(b) Salt from sea – water
(c) Camphor from salt
Answer:
(a) Butter from curd – Centrifugation
(b)Salt from sea – water – Evaporation
(c) Camphor from salt – Subiimation

Question 3.
What type of mixtures are separated by the technique of crystallisation?
Answer:
Crystallisation technique is used to purify a solid with some impurities in it. For example, purification of salt obtained from sea – water.

Page 25

Question 1.
Classify the following as chemical or physical changes: cutting of trees, melting of butter in a pan, rusting of almirah, boiling of water to form steam, passing of electric current, through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases. making of fruit salad with raw fruits, dissolving common salt in water, burning of paper and wood
Answer:

  1. Physical change:
    • Cutting of trees
    • Melting of butter in a pan
    • Boiling of water to form steam
    • Dissolving common salt in water
    • Making a fruit salad with raw fruits
  2. Chemical change:
    • Rusting of almirah
    • Passing of electric current through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases
    • Burning of paper and wood

Question 2.
Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures.
Answer:

  1. Pure substances: Water, sugar, gold, copper wire, salt, ice, etc.
  2. Mixtures: Steel, plastic, paper, talc, milk, air, ink, soda water, lemonade, bread, etc.

JAC Class 9th Science Is Matter Around Us Pure Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of the following?
(a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water.
(b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.
(c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.
(d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
(e) Butter from curd.
(f) Oil from water.
(g) Tea leaves from tea.
(h) Iron pins from sand.
(i) Wheat grains from husk.
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.
Answer:
(a) Crystallisation/Evaporation

(b) Sublimation

(c) Filtration

(d) Chromatography

(e) Centrifugation

(f) Separating funnel

(g) Filtration

(h) Magnetic separation

(i) Winnowing

(j) Decantation/Sedimentation

Question 2.
Write the steps you would use for making tea Use the words solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.
Answer:
Take a cup of water in a kettle as solvent and heat it. When the solvent boils, add sugar in it which is the solute. Heat it till entire sugar dissolves. Water and sugar form a solution. Then, add some tea leaves in this solution. Boil the contents, add milk which is also soluble in this mixture, and boil again. Filter the tea with the help of a strainer. The tea collected in cup is the filtrate and the tea leaves collected in the strainer is residue.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 3.
Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution).

Temperature in K Solubility
Substance Dissolved 283 293 313 333 353
Potassium nitrate 21 32 62 106 167
Sodium chloride 36 36 36 37 37
Potassium chloride 35 35 40 46 54
Ammonium chloride 24 37 41 55 66

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 grams of water at 313 K?
(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353K and leaves the solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools? Explain.
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293K. Which salt has the highest solubility at this temperature?
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?
Answer:
(a) Mass of potassium nitrate (KNO3) needed to produce a saturated solution of KNO3 in 100 grams of
water at 313 K = 62 g
Mass of KNO3 needed in 50 g of
water at 313 K = \(\frac{62.0 \times 50}{100}\)
= 31.0g

(b) As solution cools, potassium chloride gets crystallised. This is because the solubility of a solid decreases with decrease in temperature.

(c) At 293K, solubility of KNO3 is 32, NaCl is 36, KCL is 35 andNH4Cl is 37. Ammonium chloride has the highest solubility at 293 K temperature.

(d) As the temperature increases, solubility increases and vice – versa.

Question 4.
Explain the following giving examples.
(a) saturated solution
(b) pure substance
(c) colloid
(d) suspension
Answer:
(a) Saturated solution: A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at a given temperature is called a saturated solution.

(b) Pure substance: A pure substance consists of a single type of particles. It always has the same colour, taste or texture at a given temperature and pressure. For example, pure water is always colourless, odourless and tasteless.

(c) Colloid: A colloid is a solution in which the size of solute particles is bigger than those of a true solution. These particles cannot be seen with naked eyes as they are stable, e.g., ink, blood, smoke, milk, fog and cloud.

(d) Suspension: Suspension is a heterogeneous mixture. The particles of a suspension are greater than 1000 nm and are visible to naked eyes, e.g., chalk powder in water, paints, etc.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 5.
Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or a heterogeneous mixture: soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea.
Answer:

  1. Homogeneous mixtures: Soda water, vinegar, filtered tea.
  2. Heterogeneous mixtures: Wood, soil, air.

Question 6.
How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?
Answer:
By finding the boiling point of the given colourless liquid. If the given colourless liquid boils at exactly 373K at 1 atmosphere pressure, then it is pure water. This is because pure substances have fixed melting and boiling points.

Question 7.
Which of the following materials fall in the category of a ‘pure substance’?
(a) Ice
(b) Milk
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid
(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(g) Brick
(h) Wood
(i) Air
Answer:
Pure substances are: ice (a compound), iron (an element), hydrochloric acid (a compound), calcium oxide (a compound) and mercury (an element).

Question 8.
Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.
(a) Soil
(b) Sea water
(c) Air
(d) Coal
(e) Soda water
Answer:
Solutions are sea water, soda water and air.

Question 9.
Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?
(a) Salt solution
(b) Milk
(c) Copper sulphate solution
(d) Starch solution
Answer:
Milk and starch solution are colloids and will show Tyndall effect.

Question 10.
Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.
Sodium, Soil, Sugar solution, Silver, Calcium carbonate, Tin, Silicon, Coal, Air, Soap, Methane, Carbon dioxide, Blood
Answer:

  • Elements: Sodium, Silver, Tin, Silicon
  • Compounds: Calcium carbonate, Meth – ane, Carbon dioxide
  • Mixtures: Sugar solution, Soil, Coal, Air, Blood, Soap

Question 11.
Which of the following are chemical changes?
(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Mixing of iron filings and sand
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(f) Freezing of water
(g) Burning of a candle
Answer:
Chemical changes are growth of a plant, rusting of iron, cooking of food, digestion of food, burning of a candle.

JAC Class 9 Science Solutions

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundingss

JAC Board Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings

JAC Class 9th Science Matter in Our Surroundings InText Questions and Answers

Page 3

Question 1.
Which of the following are matter? Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, cold – drink, smell of perfume.
Answer:
Chair, air, almonds and cold – drink.

Question 2.
Give reasons for the following observation: The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go close.
Answer:
Particles of matter are continuously moving. They possess kinetic energy. As the temperature rises, particles move faster. Thus, particles that carry smell of hot sizzling food move faster than the smell of the cold food. Therefore, the smell of hot sizzling food can reach us several metres away, but to get the smell from a cold food we have to go close.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundingss

Question 3.
A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does this observation show?
Answer:
This shows that the particles of matter have space between them. This space is maximum in gases and minimum in solids. Thus, one cannot cut through a solid easily but a diver is able to cut easily through water.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?
Answer:
The characteristics of the particles of matter are as follows:
(a) Particles of matter have intermolecular space.
(b) Particles of matter have intermolecular forces of attraction.
(c) Particles of matter are moving continuously.

Page 6

Question 1.
The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density = \(\frac{ mass}{volume}\) . Arrange the following in order of increasing density – air, exhaust from chimneys, honey, water, chalk, cotton and iron.
Answer:
Air, exhaust from chimneys, cotton, water, honey, chalk, and iron

Question 2.
(a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of states of matter,
(b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity filling a gas container, shape, kinetic energy and density.
Answer:
(a) The differences in the characteristics of states of matter are

Characteristics Solid Liquid Gas
Shape Fixed shape No fixed shape No fixed shape
Volume Fixed volume Fixed volume No fixed volume
Rigidity fluidity Are rigid, cannot flow Can flow, not rigid Can flow, not rigid
Intermole – cular force Maximum Less than solids Least
Intermole – cular space Very less More than solids and less than gases Maximum
Compressible Negligible Compressible Highly compressible

(b) Rigidity: It is the property of matter to resist change in its shape, e.g. solids are rigid.

  • Compressibility: It is a property by which matter can be reduced to lower volume on application of force.
  • Fluidity: It is the property of matter to flow.
  • Filling a gas container: Gases completely fill the volume of the container in which they are kept, at any volume while solids and liquids do not.
  • Shape: It indicates definite boundaries.
  • Kinetic energy: It is the energy possessed by the particles of matter due their motion.
  • Density: It is mass per unit volume. Higher density means more mass is confined in a lesser volume.

Question 3.
Give reasons:
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
(c) A wooden table should be called a solid.
(d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood we need a karate expert.
Answer:
(a) The molecules of gases are free to move. Gas molecules have the least amount of attraction between them.Thus, the molecules of gases completely fill the vessel in which they are kept.

(b) The molecules of gas are in continuous motion. They collide with each other and with the walls of container. These collisions of the gas molecules with the walls of the container exert pressure on the walls of the container.

(c) A wooden table has a definite shape and size. Also, it is a non-compressible rigid body. Thus, a wooden table has all the characteristics of a solid.

(d) The molecules of air have least amount of attraction between them. Thus, one can easily move one’s hand in air and push the molecules of air apart. However, the molecules of solid have maximum amount of attraction between them. A greater amount of force is required to move the molecules of a solid apart. Thus, a much greater force is required to move our hand through a solid block of wood.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundingss

Question 4.
Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. Find out why.
Answer:
Ice is a solid but its density is lower than water due to its structure. The molecules in ice make a cage like structure with lot of vacant spaces. This makes ice float on water.

Page 9

Question 1.
Convert the following temperature to Celsius scale: (a) 300 K (b) 573 K.
Answer:
Celsius scale = Kelvin scale – 273
(a) Celsius scale = 300 – 273 = 27°C
(b) Celsius scale = 573 – 273 = 300°C

Question 2.
What is the physical state of water at:
(a) 250°C
(b) 100°C?
Answer:
The physical state of water at:
(a) 250°C is gaseous
(b) 100°C might be gaseous or liquid. Steam and water coexist at 100°C.

Question 3.
For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state?
Answer:
During the change of state, temperature remains constant because heat given to the matter is used up in changing the state of matter. This is called latent heat.

Question 4.
Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.
Answer:
Atmospheric gases liquefy at very low temperatures. It is not possible to attain such low temperatures. However, atmospheric gases can be liquefied by compressing them. When the atmospheric gases are compressed, the molecules of gases come closer to each other and as we keep on compressing the gases, the molecules keep coming closer and closer to each other. When the pressure on the atmospheric gases becomes large enough, the gases liquefy. Thus, atmospheric gases can be liquefied by compressing them.

Page 10

Question 1.
Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?
Answer:
On a hot dry day, there is high temperature and low humidity. Both these factors are responsible for increasing the rate of evaporation. This also means better cooling.

Question 2.
How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summer?
Answer:
The earthen pot has lots of tiny pores in it. The water oozes out through these pores and gets evaporated at the surface of the pot, by absorbing heat from the water kept in it, thereby causing cooling effect.

Question 3.
Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it?
Answer:
Acetone, petrol and perfume evaporate at low temperatures. When some acetone, petrol, or perfume is dropped on the palm, it takes heat from the palm and evaporates, thereby making the palm cooler.

Question 4.
Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup?
Answer:
Hot tea or milk in a saucer has larger surface area than in a cup. The rate of evaporation is faster with increased surface area. The cooling of tea or milk in a saucer takes place sooner than in a cup. Hence, we are able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup.

JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundingss

Question 5.
What type of clothes should we wear in summer?
Answer:
During summer, we should wear cotton clothes because we perspire more to maintain the temperature of our body. Cotton is a good absorber of sweat. It allows the sweat to evaporate faster, thereby giving a cooling effect.

JAC Class 9th Science Matter in Our Surroundings Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Convert the following temperatures to the Celsius scale, (a) 293 K (b) 470 K
Answer:
Celsius scale = Kelvin scale – 273
a. Celsius scale = 293 – 273 = 20°C
b. Celsius scale = 470 – 273 = 197°C

Question 2.
Convert the following temperatures to the kelvin scale, (a) 25°C (b) 373°C.
Answer:
Kelvin scale = Celsius scale + 273
a. Kelvin scale = 25 + 273 = 298 K
b. Kelvin scale = 373 + 273 = 646 K

Question 3.
Give reason for the following observations.
(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.
Answer:
(a) Naphthalene balls show the property of sublimation. Evaporation of naphthalene takes place easily and so it disappears during the course of time without leaving any residue,

(b) Perfume contains volatile solvent, i.e., gaseous particles, which have high speed and large space between them and diffuse faster and can reach people sitting at a distance.

Question 4.
Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between the particles water, sugar, oxygen.
Answer:
Oxygen < Water < Sugar

Question 5.
What is the physical state of water at ……… (a) 25°C (b) 0°C (c) 100°C?
Answer:
(a) Liquid
(b) Solid or liquid
(c) Liquid or gas

Question 6.
Give two reasons to justify
(a) Water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) An iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.
Answer:
(a) Water is liquid at room temperature because:

  1. At room temperature water has a definite volume, but it does not have a definite shape.
  2. At room teperature water can flow easily.

(b) Iron almirah is solid at room temperature because:

  1. At room temperature iron amirah has a definite volume as well as a definite shape.
  2. At room temperature, iron almirah is very rigid.

Question 7.
Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?
Answer:
Ice at 273 K will absorb heat energy or latent heat from the medium to overcome the intermolecular forces to become water. Hence, it cools more effectively than water at the same temperature.

Question 8.
What produces more severe burns, boiling water or steam?
Answer:
Steam at 100°C will produce more severe bums as extra heat is hidden in the form of latent heat in steam, whereas the boiling water does not have this hidden heat.

Question 9.
Name the processes A, B, C, D, E and F in the following diagram showing change in state of matter. Increase heat and decrease pressure
JAC Class 9th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundingss 1
Answer:
A → Liquefaction/melting/fusion
B → Vaporisation/evaporation
C → Condensation
D → Solidification
E → Sublimation
F → Sublimation

JAC Class 9 Science Solutions

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

JAC Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

JAC Class 7th History Eighteenth Century Political Formations InText Questions and Answers

Page 139

Question 1.
See Chapter 4, Table 1. Which group of people challenged Mughal authority for the longest time in Aurangzeb’s reign?
Answer:
The Marathas under the leadership of Shivaji challenged Mughal authority for the longest time in Aurangzeb’s reign.

Page 144

Question 2.
In trying to consolidate their rule, why did Mughal subadars also want to control the office of diwan?
Answer:
In trying to consolidate their rule, Mughal subadars also want to control the office of diwan because they were very ambitious, aspiring and power hungry and diwan office was the main point.

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

Page 148

Question 3.
What is the Khalsa? Do you recall reading about it in Chapter 8?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh in the seventeenth century, organised group of warriors known as Khalsa and requested the presence of the institution of Sikhs. Five persons were chosen called as Panj Pyare who took the water of immorality. There are five features which distinguish Sikhs from others.,which are known as 5Ks. These are Kesh (hair), Kara (iron bracelet), Kangha (comb), Kripan (dagger) and Kacchera (underwear).

Page 152

Question 4.
Imagine, you are a ruler of an eighteenth century kingdom. Tell us about the steps you would take to make your position strong in your province, and what opposition or problems you might face while doing so.
Answer:
In order to make my position strong, I would reform military and financial systems of my province. I would end corruption in the administration. The most expected problem would be the attack of some other kingdom. I would be ready to face any such attack.

JAC Class 7th History Eighteenth Century Political Formations Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following:

subadar a revenue farmer
faujdar a high noble
ijaradar provincial governor
misl Maratha peasant warriors
chauth a Mughal military commander
kunbis a band of Sikh warriors
umara tax levied by the Marathas

Answer:

subadar provincial governor
faujdar a Mughal military commander
ijaradar a revenue farmer
misl a band of Sikh warriors
chauth tax levied by the Marathas
kunbis Maratha peasant warriors
umara a high noble

Fill in the blanks:

Question 2.
(a) Aurangzeb fought a protracted war in the ………..
(b) Umara and jagirdars constituted powerful sections of the Mughal ………..
(c) Asaf Jah Founded the Hyderabad state in ………..
(d) The founder of the Awadh state was …………
Answer:
(a) Aurangzeb fought a protracted war in the Deccan
(b) Umara and jagirdars constituted powerful sections of the Mughal administration
(c) Asaf Jah Founded the Hyderabad state in 1724
(d) The founder of the Awadh state was Burhan-ul-Mulk Sa’adat Khan

Question 3.
State ’T’ for true and ’F’ for false.
(a) Nadir Shah invaded Bengal.
(b) Sawai Raja Jai Singh was the ruler of Indore.
(c) Guru Gobind Singh was the tenth Guru of the Sikhs.
(d) Poona became the capital of the Marathas in the eighteenth century.
Answer:
(a) False
(b) False
(c) True
(d) True

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

Question 4.
What were the offices held by Saadat Khan?
Answer:
Sa’adat Khan held the integrated offices of subadari, diwani and faujdari. Actually, he was responsible for managing the political, financial and military affairs of the province of Awadh.

(Let’s Discuss)

Question 5.
Why did the Nawabs of Awadh and Bengal try to do away with the jagirdari system?
Answer:
The Nawabs of Awadh and Bengal tried to do away with the jagirdari system to decrease Mughal influence in the regions by reducing the number of officeholders (jagirdars) appointed by the Mughals. They also reduced the size of jagirs, and appointed his own loyal servants to vacant positions. The accounts of jagirdars were checked to prevent cheating and the revenues of all districts were reassessed by officials appointed by the Naw’ab’s court. In an effort to reduce the Mughal influence in Bengal, Murshid Question uli Khan transferred all Mughal jagirdars to Orissa and ordered a major reassessment of the revenues of Bengal. Revenue was collected in cash with great strictness from all zamindars. As a result, many zamindars had to borrow money from bankers and moneylenders.

Question 6.
How were the Sikhs organised in the eighteenth century?
Answer:
The Sikhs were organised in the eighteenth century in the following way:

  • They organised themselves into a number of bands known as jathas and later on mis Is.
  • They had a combined forces which was known as dal Khalsa or grand army.
  • In Amritsar during Baisakhi and Diwali, the whole body of people used to meet to take collective decisions called as the ‘resolutions of the Guru (gurmatas).’
  • Guru Gobind Singh organised
    the army with the influence and inspiration that their destiny was to rule.
  • The well knit Sikh organisation, put a strong resistance on Mughal governors first, then to Ahmad Shah Abdali who had captured the strong province of Punjab and siezed Sarkar of Sirhind from the Mughals.
  • The Sikh territories in the late eighteenth century extended from the Indus to the Jamuna, but they were divided under different rulers.
  • One of them, Maharaja Ranjit Singh, reunited these groups and established his capital at Lahore in 1799.

Question 7.
Why did the Marathas want to expand beyond the Deccan?
Answer:
The Marathas wanted to expand beyond the Deccan to challenge and decrease the Mughal influence. By the 1720s, they seized Malwa and Gujarat from the Mughals and by 1730s, they were recognised as the overlord of the entire Deccan.

Question 8.
What were the policies adopted by Asaf Jah to strengthen his position?
Answer:
The policies adopted by Asaf Jah to strengthen his position were:

  • He brought trained and skilled soldiers and administrators from northern India who wanted to explore the new opportunities in the south.
  • He recruited mansabdars and granted jagirs to them.
  • Without Mughal interference, he ruled independently. The Mughals rarely confirm the decisions that were taken by Asaf Jah.

Question 9.
Do you think merchants and bankers today have the kind of influence they had in the eighteenth century?
Answer:
Merchants were more influential and powerful than the bankers in the eighteenth century than today. Banks were not so organised and merchants used to provide more loan opportunities at higher rates of interests. Nowadays, banks are more influential. They provide financial assistance and loans at lower rates and act as a shield of protection of public money. They also provide subsidy on lower rates. This happened due to the spread of education.

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

Question 10.
Did any of the kingdoms mentioned in this chapter develop in your state? If so, in what ways do you think life in the state would have been different in the eighteenth century from what it is in the twenty first century?
Answer:
Students need to do by their own as if they stay in any of the region where any kingdom developed.
Hint: If we take up Punjab as the region then there developed many states in the eighteenth century, the East India Company started capturing the regions and other rulers were present. But, in twenty first century, we are a democratic country.

(Let’s Do)

Question 11.
Find out more about the architecture and culture associated with the new courts of any of the following Awadh, Bengal or Hyderabad.
Answer:
The architecture and culture associated with the new courts of any one of the following:

  • The rulers of Awadh does not discriminate between the Muslims and Hindus. They had a very secular political policies.
  • Temples and mosques were constructed.
  • Lucknow became the cultural city due to the economic prosperity and peace in the state. Lucknow was an important city of Awadh. It also developed as an important centre of art and craft.
  • Students can also mention about Hyderabad and Bengal with the help of parents and teachers.

Question 12.
Collect popular tales about rulers from any one of the following groups of people: the Rajputs, Jats, Sikhs or Marathas.
Answer:
Students need to do it at their own.
(Hint : Can take inputs from various sources such as internet, books, journals and teachers.)

JAC Class 7th History Eighteenth Century Political Formations Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded north India.
(a) 4 times
(b) 2 times
(c) 5 times
(d) 3 times
Answer:
(c) 5 times

Question 2.
The governors of big and large provinces were called
(a) Governor General
(b) Jagirdar
(c) Subedars
(d) Misl
Answer:
(c) Subedars

Question 3.
Shivaji was the
(a) founder of Maratha Kingdom
(b) founder of Sikh community
(c) founder of Mughal Kingdom
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) founder of Maratha Kingdom

Question 4.
The founder of Hyderabad state was
(a) Alamgir II
(b) Sa’adat Khan
(c) Nadir Shah
(d) Nizam-ul-Mulk, Asaf Jah
Answer:
(d) Nizam-ul-Mulk, Asaf Jah

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

Question 5.
Bengal and Awadh were founded by
(a) Asaf Jah and Farrukh Khan
(b) Murshid Quli Khan and Sa’adat Khan
(c) Murshid Quli Khan and Asaf Jah
(d) Sa’adat Khan and Asaf Jah
Answer:
(b) Murshid Quli Khan and Sa’adat Khan

Question 6.
……… is held responsible for the decline of Mughal empire.
(a) Bahadur Shah Zafar
(b) Shahjahan
(c) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb
Answer:
(d) Aurangzeb

Question 7.
Raja Ajit Singh of Jodhpur held the governorship of
(a) Amber
(b) Gujarat
(c) Malwa
(d) Jaipur
Answer:
(b) Gujarat

Question 8.
Burhan-ul-Mulk Sa’adat Khan was appointed subadar of Awadh in
(a) 1722
(b) 1728
(c) 1732
(d) 1742
Answer:
(a) 1722

Question 9.
Skilled soldiers and administrators were brought by Asaf Jah from
(a) eastern India
(b) central India
(c) western India
(d) northern India
Answer:
(d) northern India

Question 10.
Before and after the establishment of the Khalsa in 1699, many battles were fought against the Rajput and Mughal rulers by
(a) Guru Gobind Singh
(b) Guru Nanak
(c) Banda Bahadur
(d) Guru Arjan Dev
Answer:
(a) Guru Gobind Singh

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name three states that were sculpted out in the eighteenth century from the old Mughal provinces.
Answer:
The three states that were sculpted out in the eighteenth century from the old Mughal provinces are Awadh, Hyderabad and Bengal.

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

Question 2.
The Jats became powerful under whose leadership?
Answer:
The Jats becaine powerful under the leadership of Churaman.

Question 3.
Who became the leader of the Sikhs after the death of Guru Gobind Singh?
Answer:
Banda Bahadur became the leader of the Sikhs after the death of Guru Gobind Singh.

Question 4.
When and where did Nadir Shah, the ruler of Iran invaded?
Answer:
In 1739, Delhi was invaded by Nadir Shah, the ruler of Iran.

Question 5.
Which place was established as the capital during Maharaja Ranjit Singh’s reign?
Answer:
Lahore was established as the capital during Maharaja Ranjit Singh’s reign.

Question 6.
Who was Jawahir Shah and how many troops he had on his own?
Answer:
Jawahir Shah was the son of Nadir Shah and he had 30,000 troops on his own.

Question 7.
Who was the tenth Sikh guru?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh was the tenth Sikh guru.

Question 8.
Which two important trading centres were governed and ruled by the Jats?
Answer:
The two important trading centres governed and ruled by the Jats were Panipat and Ballabhgarh.

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

Question 9.
What do you understand by the term ‘chauth’?
Answer:
Zamindars claimed 25 per cent of the land revenue which was known as chauth. This was collected by the Marathas in the Deccan.

Question 10.
Which ruler raided the rich province of the Punjab and the Sarkar of Sirhind from the Mughals in mid 17th century?
Answer:
Ahmad Shah Abdali had raided the rich province of the Punjab and the Sarkar of Sirhind from the Mughals.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did the Khalsa declare its sovereign rule and mint its own coin? Who issued these coins and what was inscripted in the coins?
Answer:
The Khalsa declared its sovereign rule and minted its own coin in 1765. Banda Bahadur issued these coins and ‘Deg O Tegh O Fateh’ was inscripted on these coins.

Question 2.
What is the difference between Faujdari and Ijaradari.
Answer:
Military administration is related to Faujdari whereas ijaradari means the practice in which the revenue farmers collected taxes from other farmers and paid to the state.

Question 3.
Give a brief on administration of Marathas.
Answer:
The Marathas developed a powerful and effective administrative system. They established and initiated revenue demands which gradually took local conditions into account. Agriculture was encouraged and trade was revived. This allowed Maratha chiefs who were known as sardars to raise powerful armies.

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

Question 4.
With which states was the state of Hyderabad was in war?
Answer:
The state of Hyderabad was continuously in war against the Marathas in the west and with independent Telegu warrior chief called as Nayakas in the Deccan plateau.

Question 5.
In what manner Burhan-ul-Mulk Sa’adat Khan minimized the Mughal influence in the Awadh region?
Answer:
Burhan-ul-Mulk Sa’adat Khan tried to minimize the Mughal influence in the Awadh region in the following way:

  • First, he decreased the number of jagirdars, i.e., office holders appointed by the Mughals.
  • He also decreased the size of the jagirs and appointed their own loyal and faithful servants to unoccupied positions.
  • Jagirdars accounts were checked to prevent cheating and revenues of all regions were re-assessed by officials who were appointed by Burhan-ul- Mulk.

Question 6.
What do you mean by sardeshmukhid Who possessed the right to levy it?
Answer:
Sardeshmukhi means that in the Deccan 9-10 per cent of the land revenue paid to the head revenue collector. Maratha king possessed the right to levy it in the entire Deccan region.

Question 7.
Which foreign invader came in the middle of the economic and political crisis in 1739? What was the effect of it?
Answer:
Nadir Shah, the-.ruler of Iran came in – the middle of the economic and political crisis in 1739. He seized and raided the city of Delhi in 1739 and took away huge amounts of wealth. This invasion was followed by the Afghan ruler Ahmad Shah Abdali who had a series of devastating raids in north India for five times between 1748 and 1761.

Question 8.
What steps were taken by Murshid Quli Khan to reduce the effect and influence of the Mughals in Bengal ?
Answer:
Murshid Quli Khan transferred all the Mughal jagirdars to Orissa and ordered a major re-assessment of the revenues of Bengal to reduce the Mughal influence. Cash was collected as revenues with strictness from all zamindars. Hence, all the zamindars had to borrow money from moneylenders and those who were unable to pay, they were forced to sell their lands and assets to big and rich zamindars.

Question 9.
In which way moneylenders and bankers achieve influential position in the state of Awadh?
Answer:
The state of Awadh depended on local bankers and mahajans for loans and sold the right to collect tax to the highest bidders. These ‘revenue farmers’ were known as ijaradars who agreed to pay the state a fixed sum of money. The revenue – farmers were given eminent freedom in the assessment and collection of taxes. All these developments enabled new social groups such as moneylenders and bankers to influence the management of the state’s revenue system something which had not occurred in the past.

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

Question 10.
During the late seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, how did the Jats integrated and merged their power?
Answer:
During the late seventeenth and eighteenth centuries the Jats were flourishing and successful agriculturists. They had integrated their power under Churaman, their chief. They captured territories situated to the west of the city of Delhi and by the 1680s they had begun to rule the region between the two imperial cities of Delhi and Agra. Panipat and Ballabhgarh became important trading centres in the areas ruled by them. The kingdom of Bharatpur emerged as a strong state under Suraj Mai.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the reasons of decline of Mughal empire.
Answer:
Decline of Mughal empire in the seventeenth century happened due to following reasons:

  • Emperor Aurangzeb exhausted and spent his military and financial resources of empire by fighting a long battle in the Deccan.
  • Ii became very tough and difficult for later Mughal Emperors to regulate the powerful mansabdars.
  • The governors and mansabdars established independent kingdoms in different areas.
  • Peasants and zamindars became rebellions due to increasing taxes.
  • Nadir Shah seized and raided the city of Delhi in 1739 and took away huge amounts of wealth.
  • This invasion was followed by the Afghan ruler, Ahmad Shah Abdali, who invaded and raided north India five times between 1748 and1761
  • Thus the empire was further incapacitated by the competition amongst different groups of nobles.

Question 2.
Discuss briefly the states of the eighteenth century into three overlapping groups.
Answer:
The states of the eighteenth century can be separated into three overlapping groups:

  • States such as Awadh, Bengal and Hyderabad were old Mughal provinces. Though they were extremely powerful and quite independent, the rulers of these states did not break their formalities with the Mughal emperor.
  • States that had enjoyed considerable independence under the Mughals were watan jagirs. These included several Rajput principalities. Watan jagirs were the persons who collected taxes from each village and gave them to mansabdars and mansabdars gave the taxes to the state authority.
  • The last group included states under the control of Marathas, Sikhs and some others like the Jats. These were of different sizes and had seized their independence from the Mughals after a long-drawn armed struggle

Question 3.
Discuss briefly the states of the eighteenth century into three overlapping groups.
Answer:
The states of the eighteenth century can be separated into three overlapping groups:
1. States such as Awadh, Bengal and Hyderabad were old Mughal provinces. Though they were extremely powerful and quite independent, the rulers of these states did not break their formalities with the Mughal emperor.

2. States that had enjoyed considerable independence under the Mughals were watan jagirs. These included several Rajput principalities. Watan jagirs were the persons who collected taxes from each village and gave them to mansabdars and mansabdars gave the taxes to the state authority.

3. The last group included states under the control of Marathas, Sikhs and some others like the Jats. These were of different sizes and had seized their independence from the Mughals after a long-drawn armed struggle.

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

Question 4.
How did Sikhs appear as a stronger community?
Answer:
During seventeenth century, Sikhs became political community. The Khalsa was established to protect the Sikh community from the Mughals. Under Guru Gobind Singh, they fought many battles against the Mughals. After the death of Guru Gobind Singh, Banda Bahadur established the administration over the territories between Sutlej and Jamuna. In this manner Sikhs appeared as a stronger community.

JAC Class 7 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

JAC Class 10th Economics Consumer Rights Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why are rules and regulations required in the marketplace? Illustrate with a few examples.
Answer:
Rules and regulations are required in the market place to protect the consumers from unfair trade practices and exploitation by the sellers. Exploitation in the marketplace happens in various ways. For example, sometimes traders indulge in unfair trade practices, such as, when shopkeepers weigh less than what they should or when traders add charges that were not mentioned before, or when adulterated/defective goods are sold.

Question 2.
What factors gave birth to the consumer movement in India? Trace its evolution.
Answer:
The consumer movement arose out of dissatisfaction of the consumers as many unfair practices were being indulged in by the sellers.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 3.
Explain the need for consumer consciousness by giving two examples.
Answer:
Consumer consciousness is when consumers acquire knowledge about their rights to become a well – informed consumer, while purchasing various goods and services, e.g.,

  1. While buying commodities check for logos like ISI, Agmark or Hallmark. These logos and certification help consumers get assured of quality while purchasing the goods and services.
  2. Consumer Rights to healthy environment against water, noise and air pollution.

Question 4.
Mention a few factors which cause exploitation of consumers.
Answer:
Traders try to earn a profit by using unfair means like weighing less, unfair trade practices and resort to adulteration, hoarding and black – marketing. Ignorance of the consumers.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 5.
What is the rationale behind the enactment of Consumer Protection Act 1986?
Answer:
The Indian Government enacted the Consumer Protection Act in 1986, popularly known as COPRA for the protection of consumers.

  1. Putting pressure on pvt. firms and the govt, to curb unfair trade practices.
  2. Recognising various rights of the consumers to seek redressal.

Question 6.
Describe some of your duties as consumers if you visit a shopping complex in your locality.
Answer:
Join Consumer Awareness Organisations, take warrantee card with purchase, cash memos/bills with items, purchase quality marke products with ISI mark, Agmark, etc., make complaints for genuine grievances.

Question 7.
Suppose you buy a bottle of honey and a biscuit packet. Which logo or mark you will have to look for and why?
Answer:
We would look for the ‘agmark’ symbol on them because this mark is certified by the government and assures the quality of the product.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 8.
What legal measures were taken by the government to empower the consumers in india?
Answer:

  1. Under COPRA a three-tier quasi – judicial machinery at the district, state and national levels was. set up for redressai of consumer disputes.
  2. The district level court deals with the cases involving claims upto 20 Iakh, the state level courts between 20 lakh and I crore and the national level court deals with the cases involving claims exceeding 1 crore.
  3. Thus, the Act has enabled us as consumers to have the right to represent in the consumer courts.

Question 9.
Mention some of the rights of consumers and write a few sentences on each. j
Answer:

  1. Right to safety: The consumers have the right to be protected against the selling of hazardous goods to life and property.
  2. Right to be informed: Consumers have the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, purity, standard and price of goods.
  3. Right to be informed: Consumers can raise their voice against exploitation at consumer forums or consumer courts.
  4. Right to choose: Consumers have a right to choice from various goods and services at competitive prices.
  5. Right to seek Redressal: Consumers have the right to fair settlement or compensation of genuine grievances against unfair trade practices or exploitation.

Question 10.
By what means can the consumers express their solidarity?
Answer:
Consumer Clubs, Resident Welfare Associations are some of the ways in which consumers can express their solidarity.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 11.
Critically examine the progress of consumer movement in India.
Answer:

  1. The consumer redressal process in India is time-consuming and expensive as a consumer has to engage the lawyers.
  2. If cash memos are not issued evidences are not easy to gather.
  3. The existing laws are also not very clear on the issue of compensation for defective products.
  4. Laws to protect workers in the unorganised sectors are weak.
  5. Rules and regulations for working of markets are often not followed.

Question 12.
Match the following.

(i) Availing details of ingredients of a product (a) Right to safety
(ii) Agmark (b) Dealing with consumer cases
(iii) Accident due to faulty engine in a scooter (c) Certification of edible oil and cereals
(iv) District – Consumer Courtt (d) Agency that develop standards for goods and services
(v) Consumers  International (e) Right to information
(vi) Bureau of Indian Standards (f) Global level institution of consumer welfare organisations

Answer:

(i) Availing details of ingredients of a product (e) Right to information
(ii) Agmark (c) Certification of edible oil and cereals
(iii) Accident due to faulty engine in a scooter (a) Right to safety
(iv) District – Consumer Courtt (b) Dealing with consumer cases
(v) Consumers . International (f) Global level institution of consumer welfare organisations
(vi) Bureau of Indian Standards (d) Agency that develop standards for goods and services

Question 13.
(i) COPRA applies only to goods.
Answer:
False

(ii) India is one of the many countries in the world which has exclusive courts for consumer redressal.
Answer:
True

(iii) When a consumer feels that he has been exploited, he must file a case in the District Consumer Court.
Answer:
True

(iv) It is worthwhile to move to consumer courts only if the damages incurred are of high value.
Answer:
False

(v) Hallmark is the certification maintained for standardisation of jewelry.
Answer:
True

(vi) The consumer redressal process is very simple and quick.
Answer:
False

(vii) A consumer has the right to get compensation depending on the degree of the damage.
Answer:
False

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
MRP on a product means
(a) Minimum retail price
(b) Maximum retail price
(c) Micro retail price
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Maximum retail price

Question 2.
The consumer movement in India has led to the formation of various organizations which are locally known as:
(a) Consumer Protection Council
(b) The Consumer International
(c) The Consumer Protection Act
(d) The World Trade Organisation
Answer:
(c) The Consumer Protection Act

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 3.
When was the ‘Right to Information Act’ passed?
(a) In January 2002
(b) In March 2004
(c) In October 2005
(d) In July 2007
Answer:
(c) In October 2005

Question 4.
Which one of the following is the agency that develops standards for goods and services in India?
(a) COPRA
(b) National Consumer Court
(c) Consumer Protection Council
(d) Bureau of Indian Standards
Answer:
(d) Bureau of Indian Standards

Question 5.
The department of consumer affairs is found at:
(a) National level
(b) State level
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
The National Consumer Day is celebrated on:
(a) 24th December
(b) 24th November
(c) 24th October
(d) 24th September
Answer:
(a) 24th December

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 7.
Rules and regulations are required in the marketplace for:
(a) Protecting sellers
(b) Protecting consumers
(c) Integrating the consumers
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Protecting consumers

Question 8.
If there is any complaint regarding goods or service, the seller shifts the responsibility to:
(a) Maker
(b) Product or service
(c) Consumer
(d) Nobody
Answer:
(c) Consumer

Question 9.
What gave rise to the ‘Consumer Movement’ in India?
(a) Inflation
(b) Violence
(c) Hoarding
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Hoarding

Question 10.
For which of these products does it become mandatory for the producers to get certified?
(a) Fruits
(b) Telephones
(c) Cigarettes
(d) LPG cylinders
Answer:
(d) LPG cylinders

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Consumer Protection?
Answer:
Consumer Protection refers to protect the consumers from the exploitation of traders in the marketplace.

Question 2.
Who are consumers?
Answer:
Consumers are those people who participate in the market when they purchase goods and services that they need and these are the final goods that people as consumers use.

Question 3.
Write any one factor which leads to exploitation of consumers.
Answer:
Traders try to earn a profit by using unfair means like weighing less, unfair trade practices and resort to adulteration, hoarding and black – marketing. Ignorance of the consumers.

Question 4.
How did the consumer movement originate in India?
Answer:
The consumer movement originated in India with the necessity of protecting and promoting the interests of consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Question 5.
How many organizations have been set up at the international level to protect consumers?
Answer:
220 organizations have been set up at the international level to protect consumers.

Question 6.
MRP of the product falls under which right?
Answer:
MRP of the product falls under the right to be informed.

Question 7.
Write any two rights of consumers.
Answer:

  1. Right to Safetyand
  2. Right to be Informed.

Question 8.
Write the importance of consumer forums.
Answer:
Consumer forums create awareness and guide consumers on how to file cases in the consumer court.

Question 9.
What are Agmark, ISI and ISO related to?
Answer:
Agmark is related to agricultural produce, ISI is related to consumer goods while ISO certifies the standards of products at the international level.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy

JAC Class 10th Economics Globalisation and the Indian Economy InText Questions and Answers

Page 57

Question 1.
Complete the following statement to show how the production process in the garment industry is spread across countries.
The brand tag says ‘Made in Thailand’ but they are not Thai products. We dissect the manufacturing process and look for the best solution at each step. We are doing it globally. In making garments the company may, for example, get cotton fibre from Korea.
Answer:
The brand tag says ‘Made in Thailand’ but they are not Thai products. The manufacturing process is being dissected and looked for the best solution at each step. Products are produced globally. In making garments; the company may, for example, get cotton fibre from Korea, weaving and embroidery from India, buttons from France, ironing in Sri Lanka and sell all over the world.

Page 59

Question 2.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions.
Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spent a 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. By the year 2014, Ford Motors was selling 77,000 cars in the Indian markets, while another 77,000 cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico and Brazil. The company wants to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe. Discuss the following factors:

(i) Would you say Ford Motors is an MNC? Why?
Answer:
Yes, Ford Motors is an MNC because its production units are spread across the world with its head office in the USA.

(ii) What is foreign investment? How much did Ford Motors invest in India?
Answer:
Investment made by MNCs to buy assets, such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called foreign investment. Ford Motors invested 1700 crore to set up a plant near Chennai

(iii) By setting up their production plants in India, MNCs such as Ford Motors tap the advantage not only of the large markets that countries such as India provide, but also lower costs of production. Explain the statement.
Answer:
MNCs such as Ford Motors and others set up production in India and other developing countries because of availability of skilled and unskilled labour, favourable government policies, and assured other factors of production. They set up production close to the markets.

(iv) Why do you think the company wants to develop India as a base for manufacturing car components for its global operations?
Answer:
The coijipany wants to develop India as a base for manufacturing car components for its global operations because:
(a) cost of labour and other resources in India.
Answer:
Cost of labour and other resources is low iifelndia. The workers are also able to manufacture or produce the auto parts required for the manufacturing of the car and MNC feels that the Chennai plant can supply to their other plants across the world.

(b) the presence of several local manufacturers who supply auto parts to Ford Motors
Answer:
Cost or labour and production of auto parts is low which makes manufacturing of their cars profitable.

(c) closeness to a large number of buyers in India and China.
Answer:
Cost of transport of auto parts becomes cheap.

(v) In what ways will the production of cars by Ford Motors in India lead to interlinking of production?
Answer:
Ford Motors set up their production plant in Chennai with collaboration of Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. They have involved local companies to supply auto parts for their production. This has brought in competition and not only improved the quality of production among the workers in India, but has also helped in interlinking the markets as consumers are now looking for better choices in the markets.

(vi) In what ways is an MNC different from other companies?
Answer:
An MNC is a company with huge financial resources. It has the capacity to expand to other countries. An ordinary company may not have huge financial resources. An MNC owns and controls production in more than one country. An ordinary company owns and controls production in one country, i.e., its home country. An MNC invests in other countries besides its own country. An ordinary company invests only in its home country.

(vii) Nearly all major multinationals are American, Japanese or European, such as Nike, Coca-Cola, Pepsi, Honda, Nokia. Can you giiess why?
Answer:
Nearly all the major MNCs are American, Japanese or European because they are developed nations with immense wealth and power. They have surplus funds and make huge profits, which enable them to utilise the weak policies of the developing nations to set up their production at low costs.

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Question 3.
What was the main channel connecting countries in the past? How is it different now?
Answer:
Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. Nowadays, MNCs have set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources.

Question 4.
Distinguish between foreign trade and foreign investment.
Answer:
The money that is invested by an MNC for buying land, building, machines and other equipment is called foreign investment. Foreign trade is the exchange of goods and services between different countries.

Question 5.
In recent years China has been importing steel from India. Explain how the import of steel by China will affect
(a) steel companies in China.
(b) steel companies in India.
(c) industries buying steel for production of other industrial goods in China.
Answer:
(a) The, steel companies in China will get sufficient supply of steel from the markets in India.

(b) The steel companies in India will expand their production to supply to China, may reduce the cost of production to increase their supply to China and capture a wider space in their market.

(c) Industries buying steel for production of other industrial goods in China may benefit from the import from India as they will get greater choice at a low cost.

Question 6.
How will the import of steel from India into the Chinese markets lead to integration of markets for steel in the two countries? Explain.
Answer:
Export of steel from India to China will lead to integration of markets. The workers from India in the steel manufacturing industry will strive to improve their quality and quantity of production. This will improve their earning and standard of living. The Chinese industrialists will get a variety of options to choose from the variety of steel available to them in the markets at cheap rates.

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Question 7.
What is the role of MNCs in the globalisation process?
Answer:
Globalisation process has been enhanced by MNCs. MNCs have enabled trade, foreign investment and brought about liberalisation. The setting up of MNCs across various parts of the world, especially in the developing countries has interlinked the economies. This has raised the standards of living of the people of developing countries; they have better options in the markets to choose from. It has also improved the quality and quantity of production of some Indian industries which have tied up with MNCs.

Question 8.
What are the various ways in which countries can be linked?
Answer:
The various ways in which countries can be linked are

  1. through exchange of goods and services between different countries,
  2. through foreign investments done by MNCs in various developing countries to set up their production plants,
  3. immigration of people from one country to another in search of better income, better jobs or better education.

Question 9.
Choose the correct option: Globalisation, by connecting countries, shall result in
(a) lesser competition among producers.
(b) greater competition among producers.
(c) no change in competition among producers.
(b) greater competition among producers.
Answer:
(b) greater competition among producers.

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Question 10.
Using IT in Globalisation. A news magazine published for London readers is to be designed and printed in Delhi. The text of the magazine is sent through Internet to the Delhi office. The designers in the Delhi office get orders on how to design the magazine from the office in London using telecommunication facilities. The designing is done on a computer. After printing, the magazines are sent by air to London. Even the payment of money for designing and printing from a bank in London to a bank in Delhi is done instantly through the Internet (e – banking)
In the above example, underline the words describing the use of technology in production.
Answer:

  1. A news magazine published for London readers is to be designed and printed in Delhi.
  2. The text of the magazine is sent through the Internet to the Delhi office.
  3. The designers in the Delhi office get orders on how to design the magazine from the office in London using telecommunication facilities.
  4. The designing is done on a computer.
    After printing, the magazines are sent by air to London.
  5. Even the payment of money for designing and printing from a bank in London to a bank in Delhi is done instantly through the Internet (e – banking)

Question 11.
How is information technology connected with globalisation? Would globalisation have been possible without expansion of IT?
Answer:
During the past few years, Information Technology (IT) has played an important role in the process of globalisation. IT has connected the countries across the world. Even the most remote cities and towns are now connected through excellent telecommunication facilities. From banking to placing orders for various products can be done through the Internet. It has transformed the way business has been conducted. E – commerce is the new way to do trade.

Question 12.
What do you understand by liberalisation of foreign trade?
Answer:
Removing trade barriers or trade restrictions set by the government is known as liberalisation of foreign trade.

Question 13.
Tax on imports is one type of trade barrier. The government could also place a limit on the number of goods that can be imported. This is known as quotas. Can you explain, using examples of Chinese toys, how quotas can be used as trade barriers? Do you think this should be used? Discuss.
Answer:

  1. Quotas can be used to restrict the entry of low quality products into the Indian markets.
  2. This will ensure quality control of the products. This will also encourage the use of indigenous products.
  3. Quotas may be used to a certain extent to protect and safeguard the welfare of the small producers and farmers.

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks.
Answer:
WTO was started at the initiative of developed countries. The aim of the WTO is to liberalise international trade. WTO establishes rules regarding international trade for all countries, and sees that these rules are obeyed. In practice, trade between countries is not free and fair. Developing countries like India have been forced by WTO to remove trade barriers, whereas developed countries, in many cases, have continued to provide protection to their producers.

Question 15.
What do you think can be done so that trade between countries is more fair?
Answer:
Trade between countries can be more fair if both countries remove trade barriers and encourage the free exchange of goods and services. The demand and supply in the market should determine the volume of products that should be traded between the countries.

Question 16.
In the above example, we saw that the US government gives massive sums of money to farmers for production. At times, governments also give support to promote production of certain types of goods, such as those which are environmentally friendly. Discuss whether these are fair or not.
Answer:

  1. The support measures are not justified when they cover goods which enter international market.
  2. Supporting its own farmers at the cost of international trade cannot be called a fair practice.
  3. If products are beneficial for the whole world, then every country should follow such practices.

Question 17.
How has competition benefited people in India?
Answer:
Competition has benefited the people in India.

  1. It has been an advantage to the consumers, particularly the well – off sections in the urban areas. There are greater choices for the consumers who enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products.
  2. Therefore, they are able to enjoy higher standardsrif living than before.
  3. The local companies, supplying raw materials, etc., to the industries set up by MNCs have prospered.
  4. Indian producers have improved their technology and quality to compete in foreign market.
  5. The competition has also enabled some of the top Indian companies to become MNCs themselves.

Question 18.
Should more Indian companies emerge as MNCs? How would it benefit the people in the country?
Answer:
Yes, It will benefit the people if more Indian companies emerge as MNCs. As Indian MNCs make profits abroad, it will earn more foreign exchange. It can expand its business which will open employment opportunities for people across various states. They will strive further to improve the quality of products and produce in large volume. The economy of India will improve.

Question 19.
Why do governments try to attract more foreign investment?
Answer:
Governments try to attract more foreign investment to stabilise its financial resources. It pushes the growth of the economy. The taxes received from the foreign investments help the government. New job opportunities, which are created in the country, support many people. The service industry expands with foreign investments.

Question 20.
In Chapter 1, we saw what may be development for one may be destructive for others. The setting of SEZs has been opposed by some people in India. Find out who are these people and why are they opposing it.
Answer:
It is mostly the rural people who oppose to the formation of SEZs as their land is acquired by big MNCs and their livelihoods are taken away from them. They are not qualified to work in the SEZs and feel alienated and ignored by the government. Even small producers, who do not fall within the SEZs but can produce similar products feel they are not protected by the government policies and are overshadowed by MNCs and their brand names.

Question 21.
Rising Competition Ravi did not expect that he would have to face a crisis in such a short period of his life as industrialist. Ravi took a loan from the bank to start his own company producing capacitors in 1992 in Hosur, an industrial town in Tamil Nadu. Capacitors are used in many electronic home appliances including tube lights, television etc. Within three years, he was able to expand production and had 20 workers working under him. His struggle to run his company started when the government removed restrictions on imports of capacitors as per its agreement at WTO in 2001. His main clients, the television companies, used to buy different components including capacitors in bulk for the manufacture of television sets.

However, competition from the MNC brands forced the Indian television companies to move into assembling activities for MNCs. Even when some of them bought capacitors, they wouldprefer to import as the price of the imported item was half the price charged by people like Ravi. Ravi now produces less than half the capacitors that he produced in the year %000 and has only seven workers working for him. Many of Ravi s friends in the same business in Hyderabad and Chennai have closed their units. What are the ways in which Ravi’s small production unit was affected by rising competition?
Answer:
Ravi’s small production was affected adversely by the competition from MNCs. As the government removed restrictions on import of capacitors, the Indian television brands were forced to move into assembling. Ravi lost his clients. As imported capacitors were cheaper, people now preferred to buy imported ones to purchase it from Ravi. Ravi’s friends who were in the same business in Chennai and Hyderabad had to close their units and Ravi feared that he too would have to close down his industry as his production reduced and was not able to recover the cost of production.

Question 22.
Should producers such as Ravi stop production because their cost of production is higher compared to producers in other countries? What do you think?
Answer:
Producers such as Ravi should not close down their production units. They should approach the government to suggest them to make policies and provide subsidies to support small producers. Banks should provide loans at low interest rates to encourage the small producers. They should be inspired to improve their technology and compete in the market.

Question 23.
Recent studies point out that small producers in India need three things to compete better in the market:
1. better road’s, power, water, raw materials, marketing and information network
2. improvements and modernisation of technology
3. timely availability of credit at reasonable interest rates.
(i) Can you explain how these three things would help Indian producers?
(ii) Do you think MNCs will be interested in investing in these? Why?
(iii) Do you think the government has a role in making these facilities available? Why? Discuss.
Answer:

  1. Better infrastructure will help the producers to compete in the market as they can work more efficiently and make timely deliveries.
  2. Modernisation of technology will help alleviate the quality of production by the producers. They will also be able to increase the volume of produce.
  3. Timely availability of credit will enable the producers to purchase good quality raw materials required to increase their competitiveness in the market.
    • MNCs will not be ready to invest in these as this will reduce competition and they will lose their share in the market.
    • Government should look into these matters to help the indigenous producers rise up and compete in the market. This will in the long run boost the Indian economy.
    • Government needs to take steps that WTO rules and regulations, policies are free and fair for all. It should be uniform for all the countries involved in trade practices through WTO.

Question 24.
In what ways has competition affected workers, Indian exporters and foreign MNCs in the garment industry?
Answer:
With the relaxation in government policies to attract MNCs, the workers have lost their regular jobs and are employed ‘flexibly’ by the companies. They not only have to put in long hours of job but their jobs are not secure. They are hired when there is intense work pressure, and may be a$ked to leave when there is not much work.

Question 25.
What can be done by each of the following so that the workers can get a fair share of benefits brought by globalisation?
(a) government
(b) employers at the exporting factories
(c) MNCs
(d) workers
Answer:
(a) Government can introduce policies, rules and regulations for free and fair globalisation.

(b) Employers at the exporting factories can invest in new technology, and try to support the small producers to use the technology to raise their quality and volume of production.

(c) MNCs can give special training to the small producers to use the new technologies and may also offer them financial aid.

(d) Workers need to upgrade themselves regarding the latest technology and create a mindset to meet the challenges of the present century.

Question 26.
One of the present debates in India is whether companies should have flexible policies for employment. Based on what you have read in the chapter, summarise the point of view of the employers and workers.
Answer:
The points of view of the employers and the workers in this regard are as follows:

  • Employers: Employers prefer to employ workers ‘flexibly’ when there is work and lay them off when there is no work. This lowers the cost of production.
  • Workers: Workers prefer a regular job with regular earning, and other benefits, such as sick leaves, provident, fund, gratuity, etc. Workers prefer secured jobs where they can support their family.

JAC Class 10th Economics Globalisation and the Indian Economy Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you understand by globalisation? Explain in your own words.
Answer:
Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or interconnection betweencountries. Globalisation encourages movement of more and more goods and services, investments and technology between countries. It inspires the movement of people between countries to search for better income, jobs or better education.

Question 2.
What were the reasons for putting barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment by the Indian government? Why did it wish to remove these barriers?
Answer:
The Indian government introduced barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment after Independence for the following reasons:

  1. To protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.
  2. The industries were at their nascent stage in the 1950s and 1960s, and competition from imports at that stage would have created obstacles for the emergence of indigenous industries. In the beginning of 1991, there were some far – reaching changes in policy in India.
    • The government decided that it was time for the Indian producers to face the competition from producers around the globe.
  3. The government thought that this competition would encourage the producers within the country to improve their performance and improve their quality.

Question 3.
How wbuld flexibility in labour laws help companies?
Answer:
To attract foreign investment, the Government of India has allowed flexibility in labour laws. This has allowed many of the MNCs to ignore certain rules that aim to protect the workers’ rights. Instead of hiring workers on a regular basis, companies hire workers ‘flexibly’ for short periods when there is intense pressure of work. This is done to reduce the cost of labour for the company.

Question 4.
What are the various ways in which MNCs set up, or control, production in other countries?
Answer:
There are various ways in which MNCs can set up, or control, production in other countries.
1. MNCs are set up close to the market  4 where there is availability of skilled and unskilled labour at low cost; and availability of other factors of production.

2. At times, MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of the countries where it sets up its plant.

3. The most common route for MNC investments is to buy local companies and then to expand production. For example, Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC bought Parakh Foods, which had built a large marketing network in various parts of India. Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a capacity to make 5 million pouches daily.

4. Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers. For example, a large number of small producers supply garments, footwear, sports items, etc., to MNCs, which then sell these products under their own brand names to the customers. These large MNCs have huge power to decide the price, quality, delivery and labour conditions for these distant producers.

Question 5.
Why do developed countries want developing countries to liberalise their trade and investment? What do you think should the developing countries demand in return?
Answer:

  1. Developed countries want developing countries to liberalise their trade and investment because developed countries believe that all barriers to foreign trade and investment are harmful.
  2. Trade between countries should be ‘free’ and all countries in the world should liberalise their policies.
  3. The developed countries can set up their plants and offices in the developing countries at lower costs, sell their products at a higher price and earn profits.
  4. The developing countries should in return demand for the labour laws be followed strictly to protect the rights of the labourers.
  5. As the MNCs earn profits, they should be levied taxes and there should be no relaxation in it.
  6. Trade practices should be fair. The developed countries should stop giving subsidies to their agricultural sector. The developed countries should not also keep any trade barriers.

Question 6.
“The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain this statement.
Answer:
The impact of globalisation has not been uniform. It has both positive and negative influences on the economy and life of the people.

  1. It has been of an advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before the consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products.
  2. People can now enjoy higher standards of living than was possible earlier. MNCs have established industries, such as cell phones, automobiles, electronics, soft drinks, fast food or services such as banking in urban areas. The well-off people have the purchasing power to afford these products.
  3. New jobs have also been created in these industries and services. Local companies supplying raw materials, etc., to these industries have also benefited.
  4. Globalisation has also helped several of the top Indian companies to benefit from the increased competition.
  5. They have invested in newer technology and production methods and also raised their production standards. It has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals themselves. For example, Tata Motors, Infosys, Asian Paints, Sundaram Fasteners etc.
  6. For a large number of small producers and workers, globalisation has posed major challenges.
  7. Many small manufacturers have been hit hard because of competition. Several units have closed down rendering many workers jobless.
  8. In many industries, employers prefer to hire workers ‘flexibly’. This has made the workers jobs insecure.
  9. The workers have to put in long hours of work and may also need to do night shifts, but their wages are very low.

Question 7.
How has liberalisation of trade and investment policies helped the globalisation process?
Answer:

  1. With liberalisation, goods could be imported and exported easily. Foreign companies can now set up factories and offices in India and in other developing countries.
  2. Businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.
  3. Liberalisation has boosted foreign trade, which has resulted in connecting the markets or integrating markets in different countries.
  4. For example, Ford Motors, an American company and one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers set up a large plant in Chennai in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, which is a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. not only sells cars in India but also exports cars from India to South Africa, Brazil and Mexico.

Question 8.
How does foreign trade lead to integration of markets across countries? Explain with an example other than those given here.
Answer:

  1. Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
  2. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world.
  3. For the buyers, there is a wide variety of choice in the markets. They can prefer domestically produced goods to foreign imported goods.
  4. With tjie opening of trade, goods travel from one market to another. Choice of goods in the market rises. Prices of similar goods in the two markets tend to become equal.
  5. Producers in the two countries now closely compete against each other even though they are separated by thousands of miles. Foreign trade thus results in connecting or integrating the markets in different countries.
  6. For example, the Kirloskar Group has established itself as the manufacturer of indigenous technology and industry. It was the manufacturer of India’s first iron plough. One of its major successes was its affiliation with Toyota Motor Corporation of Japan in 1997, which boosted the growth of the Indian industry.

Question 9.
Globalisation will continue in the future. Can you imagine what the world would be like twenty years from now? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Globalisation has both positive and negative effects on the society.

  1. WTO has initiated the process of globalisation. Removing trade barriers or trade restrictions set by the government has brought about liberalisation.
  2. This has encouraged foreign trade connecting the markets or integrating the markets in different countries.
  3. Twenty years from now, people will have more choices of products and services. More jobs may open up for the people. While more MNCs from developed countries may be found in India, many more of our Indian companies may become MNC themselves.
  4. The government should have policies that should look into the interests and welfare of the entire nation and its citizens.
  5. It should support the weaker section or the small producers so that they are able to face the competition and gradually improve and rise in the market.

Question 10.
Supposing you find two people arguing: One is saying globalisation has hurt our country’s development. The other is telling, globalisation is helping India develop. How would you respond to these arguments?
Answer:
Both arguments are true to a certain extent.
1. Negative aspects of globalisation:
Globalisation has posed as a major issue for the small producers and workers. Many small – scale industries have shut down rendering many workers jobless.

  1. With the liberalisation, government has allowed the ‘flexibility’ of labour laws. The companies do not need to follow all the labour laws that protect the workers’ rights. Instead of hiring workers on a regular basis, companies hire workers ‘flexibly’ for short periods when there is intense pressure of work.
  2. This reduces the cost of labour for the company. Most of the workers today are employed in the unorganised sector.

2. Positive aspects of globalisation:

  1. With liberalisation, came globalisation. This invited many MNCs to spread their business in India.
  2. The Central and State governments have taken several steps to attract foreign investors and foreign companies. They have set up SEZs for MNCs, which have high-class facilities. The companies do not have to pay taxes for the initial five years. The Indian government has also allowed ‘flexibility’ in the labour laws.
  3. Globalisation has been an advantage to the well – off sections in the urban areas. It has opened many job opportunities for them. They are able to make better choices in the markets as they are flooded with foreign products. The standards of living have risen.
  4. Local companies supplying raw materials to MNCs have prospered. Even the large Indian companies have benefited from the competition. They have been able to raise their production standards.
  5. Some have been able to gain from foreign collaborations. Many of them, such as Infosys, Asian Paints, Sundaram Fasteners, Tata Motors, Ranbaxy, etc., have become MNCs themselves.

Fill in the blanks.

Question 11.
Indian buyers have a greater choice of good? than they did two decades back. This is closely associated with the process of ………….. Markets in India are selling goods produced in many other countries. This means there is an increasing ………… with other countries. Moreover, the rising number of brands that we see in the markets might be produced by MNCs in India. MNCs are investing in India because ………….. While consumers have more choices in the market, the effect of rising …………. and ………. has meant greater ………….. among the producers.
Answer:
Indian buyers have a greater choice of good? than they did two decades back. This is closely associated with the process of globalisation. Markets in India are selling goods produced in many other countries. This means there is an increasing trade with other countries. Moreover, the rising number of brands that we see in the markets might be produced by MNCs in India. MNCs are investing in India because production cost is cheaper. While consumers have more choices in the market, the effect of rising demand and purchasing power has meant greater competition among the producers.

Question 12.
Match the following.

(i) MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers (a) Automobiles
(ii) Question uotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate trade (b) Garments, footwear, sports items
(iii) Indian companies which have invested abroad (c) Call centres
(iv) IT has helped inspreading of production of services (d) Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
(v) Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories (e) Trade barriers in India for production

Answer:

(i) MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers (b) Garments, footwear, sports items
(ii) Question uotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate trade (d) Trade barriers in India for production
(iii) Indian companies which have invested abroad (e) Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
(iv) IT has helped in spreading of production of services (c) Call centres
(v) Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories (a) Automobiles

Question 13.
Choose the most appropriate option.
(i) The past two decades of globalisation has seen rapid movements in
(a) goods, services and people between countries
(b) goods, services and investments between countries
(c) goods, investments and people between countries
Answer:
(a) goods, services and people between countries

(ii) The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to
(a) set up new factories
(b) buy existing local companies
(c) form partnerships with local companies
Answer:
(b) buy existing local companies

(iii) Globalisation had led to improvement in living conditions
(a) of all people
(b) of people in the developed countries
(c) of workers in the developing countries
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) of workers in the developing countries

Project Activity Based Questions

Question 1.
Take some branded products that we use everyday (soaps, toothpaste, garments, electronic goods, etc.). Check which of these are produced by MNCs.
Answer:
Hints:

  1. Display the products carefully on a table.
  2. Study the labels of the products in detail. Each product will have a Registered Trademark mentioning the name of the company and the country of origin.
  3. Now classify the products produced by foreign MNCs and Indian MNCs.

Question 2.
Take any Indian industry or service of your choice. Collect information and photographs from newspapers, magazine clippings, books, television, internet, interviews with people on the following aspects of the industry:
(a) Various producers/companies in the industry
(b) Is the product exported to other countries
(c) Are there MNCs among the producers
(d) Competition in the industry
(e) Conditions of work in the industry
(f) Has there been any major change in the industry in the past fifteen years
(g) Problems that people in the industry face
Answer:
Hints:
(a) With the help of parents, teachers and elders, choose an industry which is present near your school or in your town or city.

(b) With the help of school authorities, make an appointment to visit the industry.

(c) While making the appointment, describe in points about the purpose of the visit and information that will be required. This will not only save precious time of yours but also the industry management, which usually keeps very busy throughout the day. They can also keep the reports and data ready which they can share with you.

(d) Prepare a detailed questionnaire for the various departments of the industry that you may visit. If it is too detailed, it may be forwarded to the management of the industry before, so that it can be filled beforehand. The questionnaire should be crisp and short, with only objective questions, with multiple choices or fill in the blanks.

(e) Be disciplined while questioning, going through reports, etc. A small group of 4 to 5 students can be assigned as a team to deal with various aspects of the industry. Instead of all talking together, the team leader can initiate the discussion.

(f) Any photographs taken by the students in the industry should be done with prior permission of the management of the industry.

(g) Students can refer to secondary reports as mentioned in the textbook to gather information about the industry.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Solutions

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is an MNC?
(a) a company that controls production in more than one nation
(b) a company that controls production in more than one State in a country
(c) a company that controls production in more than one district of a State in a country
(d) a company that controls production in more than one village of a State in a country
Answer:
(a) a company that controls production in more than one nation

Question 2.
The finished products are sold by MNCs
(a) only in US and UK
(b) only in US
(c) globally
(d) only in China
Answer:
(c) globally

Question 3.
The goods and services are produced globally by
(a) China
(b) Mexico and Eastern Europe
(c) US and UK
(d) MNCs
Answer:
(d) MNCs

Question 4.
The money that is spent to buy assets, such as land, buildings, machines and other equipment is called
(a) marketing
(b) investment
(c) globalisation
(d) foreign trade
Answer:
(b) investment

Question 5.
Investment made by MNCs is called
(a) production
(b) liberalisation
(c) foreign investment
(d) foreign trade
Answer:
(c) foreign investment

Question 6.
Which large American MNC has bought smaller Indian companies, such as Parakh foods?
(a) Cargill Foods
(b) Burger King
(c) Baskin Robbins
(d) Costa Coffee
Answer:
(a) Cargill Foods

Question 7.
Which is the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a capacity to make 5 million pouches daily?
(a) Agro Tech Foods Limited
(b) Gujarat Ambuja Exports
(c) Adani Wilmar Limited
(d) Cargill
Answer:
(d) Cargill

Question 8.
Which American company is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world?
(a) General Motors
(b) Ford Motors
(c) Fiat Chrysler Automobiles
(d) Tesla Motors
Answer:
(b) Ford Motors

Question 9.
What creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets?
(a) Investment
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Advertising
(d) Foreign trade
Answer:
(d) Foreign trade

Question 10.
A large part of the foreign trade is also controlled by whom?
(a) Moneylenders
(b) Communication technology
(c) MNCs
(d) Municipalities
Answer:
(c) MNCs

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation is defined as the integration between countries through foreign trade and foreign investments by multinational corporations (MNCs).

Question 2.
Where are MNCs set up and why?
Answer:
MNCs have set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources. This is done so that the cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater profits.

Question 3.
Why is Mexico and Eastern Europe useful for MNCs?
Answer:
Mexico and Eastern Europe are useful for their closeness to the markets in the US and Europe.

Question 4.
How has India attracted the MNCs?
Answer:
India has highly skilled engineers who can understand the aspects of production. It also has educated English speaking youth wjio can provide customer care services.

Question 5.
Define foreign investment. What is the most common route for MNC investments?
Answer:
Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment. The most common route for MNC investments is to buy local companies and then to expand production.

Question 6.
With which company did Ford Motors collaborate within India to set up a large plant in Chennai?
Answer:
Ford Motors, an American company and one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers collaborated with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks.

Question 7.
What is liberalisation?
Answer:
Removing trade barriers or trade •restrictions set by the government is known as liberalisation.

Question 8.
Write the aim of World Trade Organisation.
Answer:
The aim of World Trade Organisation is to liberalise international trade.

Question 9.
How has globalisation benefited the well-off sections in the urban areas?
Answer:
There is a greater choice before the well – off sections in the urban areas. They enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. They enjoy higher standards of living than was possible earlier.

Question 10.
Mention the facilities enjoyed by Special Economic Zones (SEZs).
Answer:
Special Economic Zones (SEZs) have world class facilities: electricity, water, roads, transport, storage, recreational and educational facilities. Companies which set up production units in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the factors that the MNCs look into when setting up a production plant in a particular location.
Answer:
MNCs have set up production where it is close to the markets where there is skilled and unskilled labour available at low costs  and where the availability of other factors of production is assured. In addition, MNCs might look for government policies that look after their interests. MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources. This is done so that the cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater profits.

Question 2.
Discuss the two-fold benefits of a local company when it sets up production jointly with an MNC.
Answer:
Sometimes, an MNC sets up production jointly with some of the local companies of a country. First, MNCs can provide money for additional investments, such as buying new machines for faster production. Secondly, MNCs might bring with them the latest technology for production.

Question 3.
The most common route for MNC investment is to buy up local companies and then to expand production. Explain it through the example of Cargill Foods.
Answer:

  1. Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC, has bought smaller Indian companies such as Parakh Foods.
  2. Parakh Foods had built a large marketing network in various parts of India, where its brand was well – reputed. Also, Parakh Foods had four oil refineries, whose control has now shifted to Cargill.
  3. Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a capacity to make 5 million pouches daily.

Question 4.
Besides MNCs buying up local companies, what is another way in which they control production?
Answer:

  1. Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers.
  2. Garments, footwear, sports wear are examples of industries where production is carried out by a large number of small producers around the world.
  3. The products are supplied to MNCs, who then sell these under their o\yn brand names to the customers.
  4. These large MNCs have tremendous power to determine price, quality, delivery, and labour conditions for these distant producers.

Question 5.
How has production by MNCs across the globe in diverse locations got linked?’
Answer:
There are a variety of ways in which MNCs are spreading their production and interacting with local producers in various countries across the globe:

  1. By setting up partnerships with local companies, by using the local companies for supplies, by closely competing with the local companies or buying them up,
  2. MNCs are exerting a strong influence on production at these distant locations.
  3. As a result, production in these widely dispersed locations is getting interlinked.

Question 6.
Describe the problems faced by the workers because of globalisation and liberalisation.
Answer:

  1. For a large number of small producers and workers, globalisation has posed major challenges. Batteries, plastics, toys, vegetable oil, etc., are some examples of industries where the small manufacturers have been hit hard because of competition.
  2. Several of the units have shut down rendering many workers jobless.
  3. Globalisation and the pressure of competition have substantially changed the lives of workers. Most workers prefer to employ workers ‘flexibly’. Therefore, workers jobs are no longer secure.
  4. In most factories workers have to put in long hours and work night shifts on a regular basis during the peak season.

Question 7.
Why did the government introduce trade barriers after Independence?
Answer:
All developed countries, during the early stages of development, gave protection to domestic producers through a variety of means. The Indian government, after Independence, had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment. It was considered essential to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition. Industries were just coming up in the 1950s and 1960s, and competition from imports at that stage would not have allowed these industries to come up. Thus, India allowed imports of only essential items, such as machinery, fertilisers, petroleum, etc.

Question 8.
How has telecommunications stimulated the globalisation process?
Answer:

  1. Telecommunication facilities are used to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate from remote areas.
  2. Computers have now entered almost every field of activity.
  3. From the Internet, one may obtain and share information on almost anything one may want to know.
  4. It enables one to send instant e – mail and talk across the world at negligible costs. It has played a major role in spreading out production of services across countries.
  5. For example, a news magazine published for London readers may be designed and printed in an office in Delhi. After completion and submission of their work, they are paid by London office through Internet banking.

Question 9.
“Globalisation and competition among producers has been of advantage to the Cnsumers.” Give arguments in support of this statement.
Answer:
The following arguments support the given statement:

  1. There is greater choice available to the consumers in goods.
  2. The quality of goods has been improved.
  3. Prices of goods are lower.
  4. Consumers are now able to enjoy a better life.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain how markets have transformed in the recent years with examples.
Answer:

  1. Until the middle of the twentieth ‘ century, production was largely organised within countries. What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw materials, food stuff and finished products. Trade, was the main channel connecting distant countries.
  2. With the emergence of multinational corporations (MNCs), there has been a spread in production and interaction with local producers. Foreign trade has interlinked the markets.
  3. The producers are selling their produce not only in the domestic market but also in the markets located in other countries.
  4. Choices of goods in the markets have risen. With technology and liberalisation, the service sector has also grown.
  5. MNCs hire workers from developing countries to provide services to them at low rate.
  6. For example, the BPOs and KPOs employ thousands of young people to serve the multinational corporations.

Question 2.
The advantage of spreading out production across the borders to the multinationals can be truly immense. Justify.
Answer:
1. MNCs are not only selling their products globally but are also producing their goods globally.

2. The production process is divided into small parts and spread out across the globe.

3. For example, China provides the advantage of being a cheap manufacturing location. Mexico and Eastern Europe are useful for their closeness to the markets in the US and Europe. India has highly skilled engineers who can understand the technical aspects of production. The country has educated English speaking youth who can provide customer care services. This means 50 – 60 per cent cost savings for the MNC. Therefore, the advantage of spreading out production across the borders to the multinationals can be truly immense.

Question 3.
Discuss liberalisation of foreign trade.
Answer:

  1. Removing trade barriers or trade restrictions set by the government is known as liberalisation.
  2. The Indian government had initially introduced trade barriers after Independence to support the Indian producers from foreign competition.
  3. But in 1991, some far-reaching changes in policy were made in India. The government thought it was time for the producers to compete with foreign producers.
  4. It was felt that competition would improve the performance of producers within the country as they would have to improve the quality of the products.
  5. Barriers on foreign trade were lifted to a large extent. Goods could be imported and exported easily and also foreign companies could set up factories and offices in India.
  6. With liberalisation of trade, businesses were allowed to make decisions freely about what they wished to export or import.
  7. The government imposed much less restrictions than before and was therefore said to be more liberal.

Question 4.
What steps are the Central and State governments taking to attract foreign investment?
Answer:
The Central and State governments in India are taking special steps to attract foreign companies to invest in India:

  1. Industrial Zones, called Special Economic Zones (SEZs), are being set up.
  2. SEZs are to have world class facilities: electricity, water, roads, transport, storage, and recreational and educational facilities. Companies which set up production units in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.
  3. Government has also allowed flexibility in the labour laws to attract foreign investment. It has allowed companies to ignofie many rules that aim to protect workers’ rights.
  4. The companies instead of hiring regular employees, can hire workers ‘flexibly’ for short periods when there is intense pressure of work and can be laid off later when there is less work. This reduces the cost of labour for the company.

Question 5.
How can government play a major role in creating a fair globalisation?
Answer:
Government can play a major role in creating a fair globalisation that would create opportunities for all, and also ensure that the benefits of globalisation are shared better.

  1. The policies of the government must protect the interests of not only the rich and the powerful, but all the people in the country.
  2. It needs to ensure that the labour laws are properly implemented and the workers get their rights.
  3. It can support small producers to improve their performance till they become strong enough to compete.
  4. If necessary, government can use trade and investment barriers.
  5. It can negotiate at the WTO for ‘fairer rules’.
  6. It can also align with other developing countries with similar interests to fight against the domination of developed countries in the WTO.

Activity Based Questions

Question 1.
Write one word answer for the following:
(a) It is a company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.
(b) It is the money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment.
(c) It is the investment made by MNCs.
(d) It is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.
(e) It is the removing of trade barriers or trade restrictions set by the government.
Answer:
(a) MNC
(b) Investment
(c) Foreign investment
(d) Globalisation
(e) Liberalisation
(e) Liberalisation

Question 2.
Picture – study Study the picture carefully and answer the following questions:
JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy 1
(a) Identity the sector of the organisation.
Answer:
This is a call centre or a BPO, equipped with telecom facilities and access to the Internet.

(b) What is the work of the people in this sector?
Answer:
In this sector, people are employed to provide information and support to customers abroad.

(c) In which countries is this sector found, and why?
Answer:
BPO or call centres are mainly found in developing countries. These employ huge number of young employees to work at low wages with long working hours. The workers are also required to work night shifts.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

JAC Board Class 10th Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
“Money is what money does” who said?
(a) Crowther
(b) Robertson
(c) Walker
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(c) Walker

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

Question 2.
Direct exchange of goods against goods is called
(a) Charter
(b) Money
(c) Walker
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Walker

Question 3.
What possess general acceptability?
(a) Bank draft
(b) Money
(c) Bill of exchange
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Money

Question 4.
Which type of deposits gives highest rate of interest?
(a) Current deposit
(b) Fixed deposit
(c) Recurring deposit
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Fixed deposit

Question 5.
Which bank deals with short-term credit?
(a) Agricultural bank
(b) Commercial bank
(c) Industrial bank
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Commercial bank

Question 6.
Which of the following is not the function of the commercial bank?
(a) Issue of paper notes
(b) Acceptance of deposits
(c) Advancing loans
(d) Credit control
Answer:
(a) Issue of paper notes

Question 7.
Which of the following is not near money?
(a) Paper notes
(b) Treasury bill
(c) Bond
(d) Bill of exchange
Answer:
(a) Paper notes

Question 8.
Which bank is called lender of last resort?
(a) Commercial bank
(b) Agricultural bank
(c) Industrial bank
(d) Central bank
Answer:
(d) Central bank

Question 9.
In which year the Reserve Bank of India was established?
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1935
(d) 1953
Answer:
(c) 1935

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

Question 10.
Which bank enjoys monopoly power of Note issue?
(a) NABARD
(b) Commercial Bank
(c) Central Bank
(d) Nope of these
Answer:
(c) Central Bank

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are transactions made in money?
Answer:
A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service that he or she might want.

Question 2.
Define Double Coincidence of Wants.
Answer:
In the barter system, when the demand of two persons for each other’s commodity is raised at the same time, it is called Double Coincidence of Wants.

Question 3.
Mention the modern form of money.
Answer:
Modern forms of money include currency – paper notes and coins.

Question 4.
What is the main function of the Reserve Bank of India?
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the central government and supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.

Question 5.
What does loan agreement specify?
Answer:
Loan agreement specifies an interest rate, mode of repayment, collateral and necessary documentation.

Question 6.
Why do farmers require credit?
Answer:
Farmers require credit to purchase seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and for irrigation purposes.

Question 7.
What is ‘credit’?
Answer:
Credit (loan) refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrowers with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

Question 8.
What are informal sectors of loan?
Answer:
Informal sectors of loan include money-lenders, traders, employers, relatives and friends, etc.

Question 9.
What are the formal sectors of loan?
Answer:
Formal sectors of loan include all the banks and cooperatives.

Question 10.
Which is the newer way of providing loans to the rural poor, particularly women?
Answer:
Self Help Groups.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define money.
Answer:

  1. Money refers to a medium of exchange used in economic transactions or in exchange of goods and services.
  2. Transactions are made in money because it eliminates the inconvenience of barter system of exchange. In an economy, where money is in use, it eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants by providing the crucial intermediate step.
  3. The use of money spans a very large part of our everyday life. There are several transactions involving money in any single day.

Question 2.
What is a demand deposit? List two advantages of demand deposits.
Answer:
A demand deposit is a deposit with the bank that people have the provision to withdraw the money as and when they require. Since the deposits in the bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand, these deposits are called demand deposits. Advantages of demand deposits:

  1. Demand deposits earn an amount as interest.
  2. They act as a medium of exchange like money. They constitute money in the modern economy. They are accepted widely as a means of payment by way of a cheque instead of cash.

Question 3.
What is a cheque? What is the advantage of using a cheque for payment?
Answer:
A cheque is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name the cheque has been issued. For payment through a cheque, the payer who has an account with the bank prepares a cheque for a specific amount. Advantages of using a cheque for payment:

  1. We issue cheques against demand deposits, which make it possible to directly settle payments without the use of cash.
  2. Since demand deposits are accepted widely as a means of payment along with currency, they constitute money in the modem economy.

Question 4.
Differentiate between the terms of credit offered in formal and informal sectors of credit.
Answer:

Formal Sector Informal Sector
(i) RBI supervises their function of giving loans. (i) No organization is there to supervise its lending activities.
(ii) Collateral is required to obtain credit. (ii) This sector gives loans without collateral.
(iii) The rate of interest is comparatively low than that of the informal sector , loans. (iii) Higher interest rates on loan are charged.

Question 5.
What are the various purposes for which the rural people require credit?
Answer:
The various purposes for which the rural people require credit are:

  1. People in rural areas generally require credit to meet the expert civilities.
  2. In the case of crop failure, they take fresh loans for cultivation and to repay previous debt. In this situation, the credit pushes the person into a debt trap.
  3. Also, they require a loan to meet the daily expenses such as expenses for sudden illness or functions in the family.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

Question 6.
Explain any three terms of credit.
Answer:
Three terms of credit are as follows:

  1. Interest rate which the borrower must pay to the lender along with repayment of the principle.
  2. Collaterals such as land titles, deposits with banks, livestock, etc., and documentation required.
  3. Mode of repayment: This means how the borrower would repay the lender his/ her loan amount. For example, on the monthly, quarterly, half – yearly or yearly basis. They may vary depending on the nature of the lender and the borrower. The terms of credit vary substantially from one credit arrangement to another.

Question 7.
Why do poor farmers get into debt trap of informal sector?
Answer:
There are several reasons behind it. These are:

  1. There is no organisation which supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector.
  2. They can lend at whatever interest rate they choose.
  3. There is no one to stop them from using unfair means to get their money back.
  4. Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge a much higher interest rate on loans. So, the cost to the borrowers of informal loans is much higher.
  5. Higher cost of borrowing meanS a larger part of the earnings of the borrower is used to repay the loan.
  6. The higher interest rate of borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the income of the borrower. This could lead to increasing debt and debt trap.

Question 8.
Explain with an example, how credit plays a vital and positive role for development.
Answer:
Cheap and affordable credit plays a vital and positive role for the country’s development.

  1. Credit helps in increasing the economic activities of the borrowers.
  2. A large number of transactions in our day- to-day activities involve credit in some form or the other.
  3. It may be helpful in growing crops, doing business, setting up small-scale industries, trade in goods, etc.
  4. If credit is available to the poor people on reasonable terms and conditions, they can improve their economic condition which in turn, will help them to have a better standard of living.

Question 9.
State any three advantages of an ATM.
Answer:
The three advantages of an ATM are as follows:

  1. The full form ATM is Automated Teller Machine.
  2. In case of an ATM, direct interaction with the bank is not required.
  3. Money can be withdrawn from the ATM any time twenty-four hours in a day, whereas banks close their public dealings at a particular time, binding the depositor to come within that stipulated period.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the role of a bank in the economic development of a country? Explain.
Answer:
Banks play a major role in the economic development of a country. These are as follows:

  1. Banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money. They take deposits from those who have surplus money and use the major portion of the deposits to extend loans.
  2. They account for 25% of rural credit in India. In this way, they help in increasing the economic activities of the borrowers.
  3. In India, banks give loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries, small borrowers, etc.
  4. Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development. It helps to grow crops, to meet working capital needs of production and in setting up new industries or trade in goods.
  5. They help poor people to increase their standard of living. If credit is available to poor people at a low rate of interest and on reasonable terms and conditions, they can improve their economic conditions.

Question 2.
What are the commercial banks? Mention any four of their functions.
Answer:
A commercial bank or a bank is a profit-making institution that accepts the deposits, pays an amount as interest on the deposits and extends loans to the needy people. The following are the functions of a commercial bank:

  1. Commercial banks accept the deposits from those who have surplus money.
  2. They pay an amount as interest on the deposits.
  3. Banks in India hold about 15% of their deposits as cash as a provision to pay the depositors who might come to withdraw money from the bank on any given day and use the major portion of the deposits to extend loans.
  4. They mediate between those who have surplus funds and those who are in need of these funds. They charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits.
  5. The difference between what is charged from the borrowers and what is paid to the depositors is their main source of income.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

Question 3.
What are formal sources of credit? Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India?
Answer:
The formal source of credit includes a loan from banks and co-operatives. We need to expand formal sources of credit in India for the following reasons:

  1. Formal sources of credit are less risky and they charge a low rate of interest.
  2. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans. It monitors the banks in actually maintaining a cash balance.
  3. RBI ensures that loans are given not only to the profit-making businessmen and traders but also to small cultivators, small- scale industries, small borrowers, etc.
  4. Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge higher interest rates. Thus, the cost to the borrower becomes much higher that leads to less income. Also, the borrowers may become victim to debt – trap. So, formal sector loans help reduce dependence on informal sources of credit.
  5. Due to the high interest rates of the informal source of credit, people who might wish to start an enterprise by borrowing, may not do so because of the high cost of borrowing.
  6. Cheap and affordable credit by the formal sector is crucial for the country’s development.

Question 4.
Explain the term ‘debt – trap’. Why is it more rampant in rural areas? Give two reasons.
Answer:
When the credit pushes the borrower into a situation from which the recovery is very painful, it is called debt – trap. For example, in the case of crop failure small or marginal farmers have to sell a portion of his/her land to repay the loan. The debt – trap is rampant in rural areas because of the following reasons:

  1. Farmers take loans for crop production, equipment, fertilizers, etc. If crop failure happens due to any reason, they become unable to pay back the loan.
  2. There is usually an absence of any kind of support to the fanners in case of crop failure. So, they are clearly much worse off than before.

Question 5.
What are the Self – Help Groups? How do they work? Explain.
OR
“Self – Help Groups play an important role in solving the problems of rural poor.” In this context explain the social and economic values attached to it.
Answer:
1. It promotes women empowerment. SHGs are the groups created by needy persons themselves, especially women to fulfil their credit and loan needs. A typical SHG has 15 – 20 members, who meet and save regularly. So, through SHGs, women become economically independent. They are engaged in economic activities. Their voices are heard in the family and society,

2. The SHG encourages teamwork because it is an organization of about 15-20 members who meet and save at a regular interval.

3. The Self-Help Group leads to self sufficiency to its members. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs. If the group is regular in savings, it can avail loans from the bank that is meant to create self-employment opportunities for the members.

4. They are helpful in the eradication of poverty. This is because, the SHG provides cheap loans to its members to start self – employment activities such as establishing business units, shops, small trading, etc. In this way, they increase their incomes which leads to the eradication of poverty.

5. The SHG is a source of inspiration to its members. Inspiration refers to an unconscious burst of creativity in an artistic endeavour. It is a directing agent for a man to seek some purpose in life. Also, it controls the obstacles.

Activity Based Questions

Question 1.
The following table shows people in a variety of occupations in urban areas. What are the purposes for which the following people might need loans? Fill in the column.

Occupations Reason for need of a Loan
Construction worker
Graduate student who is computer literate
A person employed in government service
Migrant labourer in Delhi
Household maid
Small trader
Autorickshaw driver
A worker whose factory has closed down

Next, classify the people into two groups based on whom you think might get a bank loan
and those who might not. What is the criterion that you have used for classification?
Answer:

Occupations Reason for need of a Loan
Construction worker To meet a medical emergency in the family
Graduate student who is computer literate To pay the fees for a higher degree
A person employed in government service To purchase a flat
Migrant labourer in Delhi For expenses related to his daughter’s wedding
Household maid To meet the daily expenses
Small trader To run his business efficiently
Autorickshaw driver To replace his old auto rickshaw with a new one
A worker whose factory has closed down To meet his expenses till he gets employed again

Question 2.
Classification Regarding Ability to get a Loan
Answer:
The criteria I have used for this classification are:
1. Does the borrower have the potential to repay the loan or not?
People with a secure job or a running business will get a loan because they have the capability to repay the instalments. Here the government servant and small trader will be successful, whereas the migrant labourer, household maid, construction worker and worker whose factory has closed down will not be successful.

2. Whether the borrower is able to pledge collateral on which to guarantee the loan taken.
Here the auto rickshaw driver can pledge his auto rickshaw to the bank and the graduate student can pledge any capital asset owned by him. These two are the basic prerequisites for getting a loan from a bank.

Question 3.
Read the statement given below and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Which are the two major sources of credit for rural households in India?
Answer:
Moneylenders and Cooperative Societies

(b) Which one of them is the most dominant source of credit for rural households?
Answer:
Moneylenders

(c) Which is the most dominant source of credit? Give two reasons.
Answer:

  1. Moneylenders do not ask for collateral.
  2. Complicated paper work or documentation is not involved.

JAC Class 10 Social Science Important Questions