Month: September 2022

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

JAC Class 9th Economics Food Security in India InText Questions and Answers

Page No. 43

Question 1.
Some people say that the Bengal famine happened because there was a shortage of rice. Study the table and find out whether you agree with the statement?
Table 4.1 Production of Rice in the Province of Bengal

Year	Production (Lakh tonnes)	Imports (lakh tonnes)	Exports (lakh tonnes)	Total Availability (lakh tonnes)
1938	85	04	–	85
1939	79	03	–	83
1940	82	02	–	85
1941	68	–	01	70
1942	93	03	–	92

Answer:
If we look at the table, rice production has been consistent in Bengal with a decline in 1941 only. We noticed that, in 1943 the total availability of rice was 79 lakh tonnes which is not too bad. So, I do not agree with the statement that the Bengal famine happened because there was a shortage of rice.

Question 2.
Which year shows a drastic decline in food availability?
Answer:
The year 1941 shows a drastic decline in food availability.

Page. No. 45

Question l.
Why is agriculture a seasonal activity?
Answer:
Agriculture is a seasonal activity as it employs people during times of sowing, transplanting and harvesting only . Farm workers remain unemployed for about four months every year during the period of plant consolidation and maturing.

Question 2.
Why is Ramu unemployed for about four months in a year?
Answer:
Ramu works as a casual labourer in agriculture. Agriculture is a seasonal activity. Therefore, in the period of plant consolidation and maturing in a year, which is four months, he remains unemployed.

Question 3.
What does Ramu do when he is unemployed?
Answer:
Ramu does other activities. Sometimes, he gets employment in brick laying or in construction sc tivities in. the village.

Question 4.
Who are supplementing the income in Eamu’s family?
Answer:
Ramu’s wife Sunhari and his eldest son, Somu, are supplementing the income in Ramu’s family

Question 5.
Why does Ramu face difficulty when he is unable to have work?
Answer:
Ramu faces difficulty when he is unable to have work because during this often his small kids have to sleep without food, and milk and vegetables will not be the regular part of meals in his family.

Question 6.
When is Ramu food insecure?
Answer:
Ramu is food-insecure during the tour months when he remains unemployed because of the seasonal nature of agricultural work.

Question 7.
Does Ahmad have a regular income from rickshaw pulling?
Answer:
No, Ahmad does not have a regular income from rickshaw pulling.

Question 8.
Flow does the yellow card help Ahmad run his family even with small earnings from rickshaw-pulling?
Answer:
Ahmad has a yellow card which is PBS card for below poverty line people. With this card, Ahmad gets sufficient quantity of wneat, rice, sugar and kerosene oil for his daily use at half the market price. In this way, Ahmad is able to survive with less than sufficient earnings for his big family where he is the unly earning member.

Page. No. 47

Study of the graph 4.1 end answer the following questions :

Source: Department of Agricultural cooperation and farmers welfare, Annual report, [2017-18]
(a) In which year did our country cross the 200 million tonnes per year mark in food grain production?
Answer:
In the year 2010-11, our country crossed the 200 million tonnes per year mark in food grain production.

(b) In which decade did India experience the highest decadal increase in foodgrain production?
Answer:
In decade 2000-2010 India experienced the highest decadal increase in food grain production.

(c) Is production increase consistent in India since 2000-01?
Answer:
No, the increase in food grain production did not remain consistent after 2000-01.

JAC Class 9th Economics Food Security in India Textbook Questions and Answers  

Question 1.
How is food security ensured in India?
Answer:
Food security is ensured in India by:

1. Creation of Buffer Stock,
2. Introdction of the Public Distribution System.
3. Implemention special programmes like:
   (a) Food-for-work programme.
   (b) Mid-day meal in Schools
   (c) Integrated child development services.

Question 2.
Which are the people more prone to food insecurity?
Answer:
A large section of people suffer from food insecurity in India. The worst affected are:

1. The landless people with little or no land to depend on.
2. Traditional artisans.
3. Providers of traditional services, petty self employed workers and destitutes, including beggars.
4. Urban casual labourers engaged in seasonal activities.
5. The SCs, STs and some sections of OBCs.
6. People affected by natural disasters.

Question 3.
Which states are more food-insecure in India?
Answer:
The states of Uttar Pradesh, (Eastern and South-eastern parts) Bihar, Jharkhand, Gdisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are more food insecure in India.

Question 4.
Do you believe that Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains? How?
Answer:
After independence, Indian policy makers adopted all measures to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains. India adopted a new strategy in agriculture which resulted in the Green Revolution, especially in the production of wheat and rice. The success of wheat was later replicated in rice.

The increse in foodgrains production was unprecedented. The highest rate of growth was achieved in Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, which was 44.01 and 30.21 million tonnes in 2015-16. The total foodgrain production was 252.22 Million tonnes in 2015-16.

Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh recorded a significant increase in production of wheat which was 26.87 and 17.69 million tonnes in 2015-16, respectively. West Bengal and UP, on the other hand, recorded significant increase in production of rice, which was 15.75 and 12.51 million tonnes in 2015-16 respectively. So, it is believed that Green Revolution has made India self sufficient in food grains.

Question 5.
A section of people in India are still without food. Explain.
Answer:
A large section of people in India are still without food. The worst affected groups are landless people with little or no land to depend upon, traditional artisans, providers of traditional services, petty self-employed workers and destitutes including beggars. In the urban areas, the food insecure families are those whose working members are generally employed in ill-paid occupations and casual labour market.

Besides, some groups of SCs, STs and OBCs are also included in it. They are paid very low wages that just ensure bare minimum wages for survival. These people suffer from chronic hunger because of their low income and in turn their inability to buy food even for survival.

Question 6.
What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?
Answer:
Due to a disaster or a calamity, total production of food grains decreases. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas. Due to shortage of food, the prices go up. At such high prices, some people cannot afford to buy food. If such a calamity happens in a very widespread area or over a longer time period, it may cause a situation of starvation.

Question 7.
Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger.
Answer:
Seasonal Hunger:
Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is prevalent in rural area because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities, and in urban areas because of casual labour. This type of hunger exists when a person is unable to get work for the entire year.

Chronic lunger:
Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and/or quality. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their very low income and in turn their inability to buy food even for survival.

Question 8.
What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss any two schemes launched by the government?
Answer:
India has become self-sufficient in food grains during the last thirty years because of a variety of crops grown all over the country. The availability of food grains at the national level has further been ensured with a carefully designed food security system implemented by the government. This system has two components:

(a) Buffer Stock: Buffer Stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through Food Corporation of India. The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers at minimum support price in states where there is surplus production. The purchased food grains are stored in granaries to distribute in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price.

(b) Public Distribution System:
The food procured by the FCI is distributed through government regulated ration shops among the poorer sections of the society. This is called Public Distribution System. These ration shops are known as Fair Price Shops. These shops keep stock of food grains, sugar, kerosene oil for cooking. These items are sold to people at a price lower than the market price. Any family with a ration card can buy a stipulated amount of these items every month from their nearby ration shop.

In addition to these, Government of India has launched many other schemes. Two of them are as follows :

1. Antyodaya Anna yojana: This scheme was launched in December 2000. Under the scheme one crore of the poorest among the BPL families covered under the Targetted Public Distribution System were identified.
2. Annapurna Scheme (APS) With special target groups of ‘poorest of the poor’ and ‘indigent senior citizens’ respectively

Question 9.
Why buffer stock is created by the government?
Answer:
Due to the following reasons, buffer stock is created by the government.

1. A buffer stock of food grains is created by the government, so that it can be distributed in food deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price much lower than the market price.
2. A buffer stock also helps to resolve the problem of food shortage during adverse weather conditions, a disaster or a calamity.
3. Maintaining buffer stock is a step taken by the government in order to ensure food security.

10. Write notes on:
1. Minimum Support price
2. Buffer Stock Issue price
3. Fair price shop.
Answer:
1. Minimum Support Price:
The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers at a pre-announced price. This price is called Minimum Support Price. Minimum Support Price is declared by the government every year before the sowing season to provide incentives to the farmers for raising the production of these crops.

2. Buffer Stock:
Buffer Stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through Food Corporation of India. The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production-at Minimum Support Price. The purchased food grains are stored in granaries to distribute in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price.

3. Issue Price:
The price at which food grains are distributed by the government in the deficit areas and among the poorer people is known as Issue Price.

4. Fair Price Shop:
The food procured by the FCI is distributed through government-regulated ration shops among the poorer sections of the society. These Ration Shops are known as Fair Price Shops. Food grains, sugar, kerosene oil are sold to people at a price lower than the market price through these ration shops.

Question 11.
What are the problems of the functioning of ration shops?
Answer:
The problems of the functioning of ration shops are as follows:

1. PDS dealers are sometimes found resorting to malpractices:
   (a) Diverting the grains to open market to get better margin.
   (b) Selling poor quality grains at ration shops.
   (c) Irregular opening of the shops.
2. Ration shops often have unsold stocks of poor quality grains left.
3. Sometimes, stored grains are rotten away and also eaten by rats.
4. The three types of cards and the range of prices is a hinderence in the path of progress of PDS.

Question 12.
Write a note on the role of co-operatives in providing food and related items.
Answer:
The cooperatives are playing an important role in ensuring food security in India, especially in the Southern and Western parts of the country. The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low-priced goods to poor people. For example, out of all fair price shops running in Tamil Nadu, around 94 percent are being run by the cooperatives. In Delhi, Mother Dairy is making strides in provision of milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled rate decided by Government of Delhi.

Amul is another success story of co-operatives in milk and milk products from Gujarat. It has brought about the white revolution in the country. There are many more cooperatives running in different parts of the country ensuring food security of different sections of society.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Solutions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 1 The French Revolution

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Who ascended the throne of France during the French Revolution?
(a) Louis XVI
(b) Louis X
(c) Nepoleon
(d) Nicholas II.
Answer:
(a) Louis XVI

2. The book “The Social Contract” was written by :
(a) Montesquieu
(b) Rousseau
(c) Jean Pal Marat
(d) Nepoleon Bonaparte.
Answer:
(b) Rousseau

3. When did French Revolution occur?
(a) 1769
(b) 1780
(c) 1789
(d) 1947
Answer:
(c) 1789

4. Who wrote the ‘Declaration of the Rights to Women and Citizens?
(a) Louis X
(b) Marat
(c) Robespierre
(d) Olympe de Gouges.
Answer:
(d) Olympe de Gouges.

5. When did Napoleon Bonaparte crown himself as Emperor of France?
(a) In 1804
(b) In 1815
(c) In 1789
(d) In 1849.
Answer:

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did the French Revolution begin?
Answer:
The French Revolution began on 14th July 1789 with the storming of the Bastille prison just outside Paris.

Question 2.
When did Louis XVI ascend the throne of France?
Answer:
Louis XVI ascended the throne of France in 1774.

Question 3.
To which dynasty Louis XVI belonged?
Answer:
Louis XVI belonged to the Bourbon dynasty.

Question 4.
What was the main political reason of the French Revolution?
Answer:
The luxurious living of the despotic ruler and absence of any uniform system was the main political reason of the French Revolution.

Question 5.
Name the three ‘Estates’ into which the French society was divided before the revolution.
Answer:

1. The First Estate-Clergy.
2. The Second Estate-Nobility.
3. The Third Estate-Common People.

Question 6.
Which estate of French society paid all taxes?
Answer:
The third estate paid all the taxes in French society.

Question 7.
Name the classes which formed the privileged estates.
Answer:
The clergy and the nobility constituted the privileged estates.

Question 8.
What was the tax levied by the Church on the peasants?
Answer:
Tithes was the special tax levied by the Church on the peasants.

Question 9.
What was the tax levied by the state called?
Answer:
The tax levied by the state was called Taille.

Question 10.
What is the name of the book written by John Locke?
Answer:
“Two Treatises of Government”.

Question 11.
Name the book written by Rousseau.
Answer:
“The Social Contract”.

Question 12.
Name the book written by Montesquieu.
Answer:
“The Spirit of the Laws”.

Question 13.
Who proposed a division of power?
Answer:
Montesquieu.

Question 14.
Name the important philosophers who influenced the French Revolution.
Answer:
Rousseau, John Locke and Montesquieu.

Question 15.
What inspired the political thinkers in France?
Answer:
The American constitution and its guarantee of individual rights inspired the political thinkers in France.

Question 16.
Who constituted the Estates General?
Answer:
The representatives of all the three Estates constituted the Estates General.

Question 17.
Name the body formed by the representatives of the Third Estate.
Answer:
National Assembly.

Question 18.
When and where was the formation for the National Assembly announced?
Answer:
The formation for the National Assembly was announced on June 20, 1789 in the hall of an indoor tennis court, in Versailles.

Question 19.
Name two important leaders of National Assembly.
Answer:
Mirabeau and Abbe Sieyes.

Question 20.
Explain the term ‘active citizens.
Answer:
Citizens who had the right to vote were called ‘active citizens.

Question 21.
What were the legacies of the French Revolution?
Answer:
Ideas of liberty, equality and fraternity were the legacies of the French Revolution.

Question 22.
Who wrote Marseillaise?
Answer:
It was composed by Roget de Lisle.

Question 23. When was Marseillaise sung for the first time?
Answer:
It was sung for the first time by the volunteers from Marseilles when they marched into Paris in April 1792.

Question 24.
Who were Sans-Culottes?
Answer:
The Jacobins came to be known as the Sans-Culottes, literally meaning ‘those without knee breeches’.

Question 25.
When was France declared a ‘Republic’?
Answer:
On 21 September, 1792 France was declared a ‘Republic’.

Question 26.
Which period of the French history is known as the Reign of Terror?
Answer:
The period from 1793 to 1794 is known as the Reign of Terror.

Question 27.
What was known as ‘Directory’?
Answer:
The term ‘Directory’ refers to the executive board made up of five members.

Question 28.
What was the route of triangular slave trade?
Answer:
The triangular slave trade was executed between the continents of Europe, Africa and America.

Question 29.
When was the slave trade abolished in the French colonies?
Answer:
The slave trade was abolished in 1848 from the French colonies.

Question 30.
When did Napoleon crown himself Emperor of France?
Answer:
In 1804, Napoleon crowned himself Emperor of France.

Question 31.
When and where was Napoleon finally defeated?
Answer:
Nepoleon was finally defeated at the Battle of Waterloo in 1815.

Question 32.
Write the names of two Indians who responded to the ideas of Revolutionary France. Answer: Tipu Sultan and Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the incidents which took place in the morning of 14th July, 1789, in France.
Answer:
The following events took place in the morning of 14th July, 1789, in France.

1.  In the morning of 14th July, 1789, the King ordered his army to move into the city. There was a rumour that he ordered his army to open fire upon the citizens of Paris.
2. 7000 men and women gathered in front of the town hall and decided to form a people’s militia.
3. They broke into a number of government buildings in search of arms.
4. A group of several hundred people stormed the fortress-prison, the Bastille, where they hoped to find hoarded ammunition.
5. The crowd destroyed the Bastille, the Commander of the Bastille was killed and the prisoners released!

Question 2.
What were the political causes of the French Revolution?
Answer:
The political causes of the French Revolution were as follows:

1. Emperor Louis XVI and his queen, Marie Antoinette, wasted money on their luxurious living and wasteful activities.
2. The administration was corrupt and autocratic.
3. The public money was lavishly spent by the Crown.
4. The high posts were often sold. The Queen interfered in state appointments in order to promote her favourites. Her influence over the King proved disastrous to the country.
5. The prisoners were treated with extreme severity.
6. With legal decree, the king could confiscate the property of any of his subjects.

Question 3.
Explain the economic causes of the French Revolution.
Answer:
Economic Causes:

1. Upon the accession of Louis XVI in 1774, he found an empty treasury. Under Louis XVI, France helped the American Colonies in their war for independence against Britain. This war added more than a billion livres to a debt that had already risen to more than 2 billion livres.
2. France had to borrow money from other countries. These countries now began to charge 10 per cent interest on loans. The finances of the state were in a miserable condition.
3. To meet its regular expenses such as the cost of maintaining an army, functioning of the court, running government offices or universities, the state was forced to increase taxes.

Question 4.
Explain the social division of France in the 17th century.
Answer:
In the 17th century, the French Society was divided into three groups, called Estates:
1. The First Estate:
It constituted the minority group of the clergymen and church-fathers who were the custodians of religion and conscience of man. They were the most venerated persons in the society and were exempted from all taxes.

2. The Second Estate:
It constituted the minority group of landlords, men of noble birth and aristocrats. This class also shared most of the privileges.

3. The Third Estate:
It comprised of the vast majority of the common masses which included the landless peasants, landless labour, servants, merchants, court officials, lawyers etc. This Estate lived in poverty and misery and paid all the taxes.

Question 5.
Write a brief account on the Third Estate.
Answer:
The Third Estate constituted of peasants which formed 90% of the French population comprising workers, professionals, businessmen and manufacturers. This Estate was the unprivileged section which enjoyed no political rights and social status, despite bearing the burden of the taxes. Within the Third Estate too, there were evident disparities in wealth and style. The professionals, businessmen and manufacturers formed the wealthier class, and had access to education. Many of the peasants were landless or did subsistence farming. The condition of peasants was not better. The heavy taxes, tithes, taille, feudal dues, indirect taxes, forced labour, coupled with bad harvests brought them on the verge of starvation.

Question 6.
What is subsistence crisis? Mention any two factors responsible for this in France.
Answer:
Subsistence crisis is an extreme situation where the basic means of livelihood are endangered.
Factors responsible for subsistence crisis were as follows:
1. The population of France rose from about 23 million in 1715 to 28 million in 1789. This led to a rapid increase in the demand for food grains. Production of grains could not keep pace with the demand. So the price of bread, which was the staple diet of the majority, rose rapidly.

Most workers were employed as labourers in workshops, whose owners fixed their wages. But wages did not keep pace with the rising prices. So, the gap between the poor and the rich widened.

2. The drought or hail were also responsible for this crisis.

Question 7.
Discuss the role of middle class in the French Revolution.
Answer:
The spread of industrial revolution led to the emergence of the middle class. It was the class of businessmen, traders, bankers, manufacturers, scholars etc. The middle class people led the revolution. They came forward with the slogan of liberty, equality and fraternity. They started a vigorous propaganda against the king and the nobility.

They raised their voice in favour of freedom of trade and removal of feudal barriers. They realised that as long as the feudal system prevails, the French society had no chance of moving forward on the road of prosperity as the feudal barriers were a serious obstruction to the growth of industrial capitalism.

Question 8.
What is known as the Tennis Court Oath?
Answer:
On 20 June, 1789, the representatives of the Third Estate assembled in the hall of an indoor tennis court in the grounds of Versailles. They declared themselves a National Assembly and swore not to disperse till they had drafted a constitution for France that would limit the powers of the monarch. They were led by Mirabeau and Abbe Sieyes. This incident is known as the Tennis Court Oath.

Question 9.
Write short notes on:
1. Charles Montesquieu
2. Mirabeau
3. Abbe Sieyes
Answer:
1. Charles Montesquieu:
Charles Montesquieu was a nobleman by birth. He became a lawyer and a judge. In his book, “The Spirit of the Laws”, he criticised autocracy and praised the democratic republic. He exposed the evils prevailing in the ‘Old Regime’. He popularised the theory of the division of powers.

2. Mirabeau:
Mirabeau belonged to a noble family. He wanted to do away a society of feudal privileges. He brought out a journal and delivered powerful speeches at Versailles.

3. Abbe Sieyes:
Abbe Sieyes was a priest who wrote an influential pamphlet called “What is the Third Estate”.
Both of them were representatives of the Third Estate and drafted the constitution for France.

Question 10.
How did France become a constitutional monarchy?
Answer:
In 1791, the National Assembly completed the draft of the constitution. Its main object was to limit the powers of the monarch.
The powers, instead of being concentrated in the hand of the monarch, were now separated and divided between the Legislative the Executive and the Judiciary. The constitution also declared that it was the duty of the state to protect each citizen’s natural rights. In this way, France became a constitutional monarchy.

Question 11.
Describe any three features of the constitution of France drafted in 1791.
Answer:
Following were the three features of the constitution of France drafted in 1791 :

1. France became a constitutional monarchy with the King’s powers being reduced drastically by distributing them between three institutions called the Legislature, the Executive and the Judiciary.
2. The constitution vested the power to make laws in the National Assembly, which was indirect elected.
3. Only men have 25 years and paying a certain minimum amount of tax were allowed to vote. The remaining men and all women remained passive citizens.

Question 12.
Describe the period of Reign of Terror.
The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred as the Reign of Terror. It was known as Reign of Terror because of the following reasons:

1. Jacobin ruler Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and punishment.
2. All those whom he saw as being ‘enemies’ of the republic-ex-nobles and clergy, members of other political party, even members of his own party who did not agree with his methods-were arrested, imprisoned and then tried by a revolutionary tribunal. If the court found them ‘guilty’, they were guillotined.
3. Meat and bread were rationed. Peasants were forced to transport their grain to the cities and sell it at prices fixed by the government. The use of more expensive white flour was forbidden; all citizens were required to eat the plain d’egalite equality bread a loaf made of whole wheat.
4. Robespierre pursued his policies so relentlessly that even his supporters began to demand moderation.

Question 13.
What changes were seen in the regime of Robespierre’s government?
The following changes were seen in the regime of Robespierre’s government.

1. Robespierre’s government issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and prices meat and bread were rationed.
2. Peasants were forced to transport their grain to the cities and sell it at fixed prices by the government.
3. The use of more expensive white flour was for bidden and all citizens were forced to eat the equality bread i.e., a loaf made of whole wheat.
4. Instead f the traditional Monsieur (sir) and Madame (madam), all french men and women were called as Citoyen and Citoyenne (citizen).
5. Churches were also shut down and their buildings were converted into barracks ox ffices.

Question 14.
Write a note on France ruled by Directory.
Answer:
With the fall of Jaci an government in 1794, political power went into the hands of the wealthier middle class. A new constitution was introduced in 1795 which denied the right to vote to non-propertied sections of the society. It provided for two elected legislative councils. Legislative councils appointed an executive made of five members called the Directory.

Thus, the executive powers vested in the hands of Directory, whereas the power of making the laws vested in the Legislature. The Directors were expected to restore law and order in the country. This, however, they failed to do.

Question 15.
What was the condition of women in France before the revolution?
Or
Describe the condition of women of the Third Estate in France during the old Regime. The condition of the women in France before the revolution was as follows:

1. All the women were classified as passive citizens. They did not have Voting Rights.
2. They worked as Seamstresses or Laundresses, sold flowers, fruits and vegetables at the market or worked as domestic servants.
3. Their wages were lower than those of men.
4. They looked after their children, did the cooking, fetch water and queued up for bread.
5. Most women did not have access to education or job training, only daughters of wealthy parents could study at a convent, after which they were married off.

Question 16.
Discuss the impact of abolition of censorship in France.
Answer:

1. Before the revolution, all written materials could be published only after the approval of the king. But immediately after the revolution, keeping in mind the liberty and equality principle, the censorship was abolished.
2. After the abolition of censorship, now the press was free. Freedom of the press meant that opposing views of events could be expressed. Political philosophers and writers were free to express their views.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe any five causes for the empty treasury of France under the rule of Louis XVI.
Answer:
In 1774, Louis XVI of the Bourbon family of Kings ascended the throne of France. He found an empty treasury. The main five causes for it were:

1. Long year of wars had drained the financial resources of France. The condition became even worse when under Louis XVI, France helped the 13 American colonies to gain independence from Britain.
2. The King’s court at the immense palace of Versailles required huge amount of money for its maintenance.
3. Taxes were levied only on the third estate, and the rich first and second estates were exempted from paying taxes.
4. The war with Britain added more than a billion livres (unit of currency in France) to a debt that had already risen to more than two billion livres.
5. Lenders who had given the state credit began to charge ten percent interest on the existing loans. So the French government was obliged to spend an increasing percentage of its budget on interest payment alone.

Question 2.
Explain the role of philosophers in the French revolution.
Answer:
France, in the 18th century, had many revolutionary thinkers. Among them, Rousseau and Montesquieu were prominent. Their revolutionary ideas encouraged people to fight for their rights. They exposed the inefficiency of the monarch and his government.

1. John Locke propounded the ideas refuting divinity and absolute rights of monarchs.
2. Montesquieu’s philosophy outlined constitutional monarchy and division of powers.
3. Rousseau asserted the doctrine of democracy and popularized sovereignty.

He believed that government should be based on the consent of the governed. Thus, the ideas of the philosophers were a direct attack on privileges and feudal rights which protected the upper classes. They helped to rouse the people from inactivity and instilled in them a desire to root out social inequalities and set up a government responsive to their need. They played a vital role in focusing the discontent and bringing about the Revolution.

Question 3.
Describe the immediate causes of the outbreak of the revolt in France in 1789.
Answer:
The immediate causes of the outbreak of the revolt in France in 1789 The following two events are its immediate causes:
1. Demand for Rights:
The 18th century France witnessed the emergence of a new social group ‘The Middle Class’. The third estate was represented by this class and they wanted each member in the Estates General to have one vote. The King rejected the proposal.

2. Price Rise:
A severe winter came and there was a bad harvest. The price of bread which was the staple food of common people increased significantly. Sometimes, bakers exploited the situation and increased the prices by hoarding. After spending long hours in queues, crowds of angry women raided the shops.

At the same time, King Louis XVI ordered the troops to move into Paris on 14th July 1789. An angry crowd destroyed the fortress prison of Bastille in the country side, peasants seized hoes and pitch forks and attacked chateaux. In this way, revolution spread all over France.

Question 4.
What landmark decisions were taken by the National Assembly led by the third
estate on the 4th August, 1789.
Answer:
On 20 June 1789, the representatives of the third estate declared themselves as a National Assembly. They drafted a constitution for France which resulted in the following changes:

1. The representatives of the third estate discarded the power of absolute monarchy.
2. On 4th August 1789, the National Assembly passed a decree, abolishing the feudal system of obligations and taxes.
3. Members of the clergy were forced to give up their privileges.
4. Tithe, a tax levied by the Church, comprising one-tenth of the agricultural produce, was abolished and lands owned by the church were also confiscated.
5. As a direct consequence of these measures taken by the government, the government acquired assets worth at least two billion livres.
6. France became a constitutional monarchy. Powers were now separated and assigned to three different institutions i.e., the Legislative, the Executive and the Judiciary.
7. The constitution began with a Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen which established right to life, freedom of speech, freedom of opinion and equality before law as ‘natural and inalienable’ rights. It was the duty of the state to protect these rights.

Question 5.
What was the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen?
Answer:
The constitution of 1791 began with a Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen. Its main features were as follows:

1. Men are born and remain free and equal in rights.
2. The aim of every political association is the preservation of the natural and inalienable rights of man; these are liberty, property, security and resistance to oppression.
3. The source of all sovereignty resides in the nation; no group or individual may exercise authority that does not come from the people.
4. Liberty consists of the power to do whatever is not injurious to others.
5. The law has the right to forbid only such actions that are injurious to society.
6. The law is an expression of the general will. All citizens have right to participate in its formation, personally or through their representatives. All citizens are equal before it.
7. No man may be accused, arrested or detained, except in cases determined by the law.
8. Every citizen may speak, write and print freely, he must take responsibility for the abuse of such liberty in cases determined by the law.
9. For the maintenance of the public force and for the expenses of administration, a common tax is indispensable, it must be assessed equally on all citizens in proportion to their means.
10. Since property is a sacred and inviolable right, no one should be deprived of it, unless a legally established public necessity requires it. In that case, a just compensation must be given in advance.

Question 6.
Explain the main course of the French Revolution of 1789.
1. Assembly of the Estates:
On 5th May, 1789, Louis XVI called an assembly of the Estates General to pass proposals for new taxes. Voting in the Estates General in the past had been conducted according to the principle that each Estate had one vote. This time too, Louis XVI was determined to continue with the same practice.

But members of the Third Estate demanded that voting now should be conducted by the assembly as a whole, where each member would have one vote. When the King rejected this proposal, members of the Third Estate walked out of the assembly in protest.

2. National Assembly:
The representatives of the Third Estate viewed themselves as spokesman for the whole French nation. On 20th June, they assembled in the hall of an indoor tennis court in the grounds of Versailles. They declared themselves a National Assembly, and swore not to disperse till they had drafted a constitution for France that would limit the powers of the monarch.

3. Turmoil in France:
While the National Assembly was busy at Versailles in drafting the constitution, the rest of France seethed with turmoil. Due to bad harvest, there was shortage of food, and there was also rumour that bands of brigands were on their way to destroy the ripe crops. Scared peasants started attacking nobles, Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly.

4. France became a Republic:
In 1792, the Jacobins held the king as hostage and declared to form a new government. The newly-elected Assembly was called the Convention. On 21st September, 1792, it abolished the monarchy and declared France as a republic. The French Revolution popularised many symbols. Each symbol represents some basic values. Mention the symbols and related values.

Question 7.
Answer:
The symbol of French Revolution and their related values are stated in the points below:

1. The broken chain: Chains were used to fetter slaves. A broken chain symbolised freedom from slavery.
2. The bundle of rods or fasces: One rod can be easily broken, but not an entire bundle. It symbolises that strength lies in unity.
3. The eye within a triangle radiating light: The all seeing eye stands for knowledge. The rays of the sun will drive away the clouds of ignorance. It depicts that knowledge removes ignorance.
4. Snake biting its tail to form a ring: This type of ring has neither beginning or end. It is a symbol of eternity.
5. Sceptre: It was a symbol of royal power. It depicted the power of autocracy.
6. Blue-White-Red: These were the national colours of France. The use of these colours depicted nationalism.
7. Red Phrygian cap: It was worn by a slave upon becoming free. It symbolises freedom from bondage of slavery.

Question 8.
Write any five points about the Jacobin club.
Answer:
Jacobins: A political club of people which was formed to discuss the government
policies and plan their own forms of action. The Jacobins club got its name from
the former convent of St. Jacobin Paris.

1. The Jacobin club was the most successful club of France, which got its name from the former convent of St. Jacob in Paris.
2. The members of the Jacobin club belonged mainly to the less prosperous sections of society. They included small shopkeepers, artisans such as shoemakers, pastry cooks, watch-makers, printers, as well as servants and daily wage workers.
3. Their leader was Maximilien Robespierre.
4. These Jacobins decided to start wearing long-striped trousers and came to be known as the Sans Culottes, literally meaning those without knee breeches. In addition, Sans-Culottes men wore the red cap that symbolised liberty.
5. They were of the opinion that the revolution had to be carried further, as the Constitution of 1791 gave political rights only to the richer sections of the society.

Question 9.
Explain the condition of women in France after the revolution.
Answer:
From the very beginning, women were active participants in the revolution which brought about so many important changes in French society. They hoped that their involvement would pressurise the revolutionary government to introduce measures
to improve their lives.
1. Condition of women after the revolution:
During the revolution, women started their own political clubs and newspapers in order to discuss and voice their interest. About 60 womens’ clubs came up in different cities in which The Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women was the most famous.

2. One of their main demands was that women should enjoy the same political rights as men. They demanded the right to vote, to be elected to the Assembly and to hold political offices.

3. In the early years, the revolutionary government introduced laws that helped to improve the lives of women. They were as follows:
(a) Schooling was made compulsory for all girls.
(b) Their fathers could no longer force them into marriage against their will.
(c) Marriage was made into a contract entered into freely arid registered under civil law.
(d) Women could now get training for jobs.
(e) Women’s struggle for equal political rights, however continued. It was finally in 1946 that women in France won the right to vote.

Question 10.
State the basic rights set forth in the Olympe de Gouges’ Declaration.
Answer:
The basic rights set forth in Olympe de Gouges’ Declaration were as follows:

1. Woman is born free and remains equal to man in rights.
2. The goal of all political associations is the preservation of the natural rights of women and men. These rights are liberty, property, security, and above all, resistance to oppression.
3. The source of all sovereignty resides in the nation, which is nothing but the union of woman and man.
4. The law should be the expression of the general will; all female and male citizens should have a say either personally or by their representatives in its formulation; it should be the same for all. All females and males are equally entitled for all honours and public employment according to their abilities and without any other distinction than that of their talents.
5. No woman is an exception. She should be accused, arrested and detained in cases determined by law. Women, like men, should obey this rigorous law.

Question 11.
How was slavery abolished in France?
Answer:

1. One of the most revolutionary social reforms of the Jacobin period was the abolition of slavery in the French colonies.
2. The slave trade began in the seventeenth century.
3. The exploitation of slave labour made it possible to meet their growing demand in European market for sugar coffee and indigo.
4. Port cities like Bordeaux and Nautes owned their economic prosperity to the
   flourishing slave trade.
5. Throughout the 18th century, there was little criticism of slavery in France.
6. The National Assembly held long debates about whether the rights of man should be extended to all French people including those in the colonies. But it did not pass any laws, fearing opposition from businessmen whose income depended on the slave trade.
7. It was finally the Convention, which, in 1794, legislated to free all slaves in the French overseas possessions. This, however, turned out to be a short-term measure.
8. Ten years later, Napoleon re-introduced slavery.
9. Finally, it was abolished from French colonies in 1848.

Question 12.
How did the Revolution affect the everyday life of the French people?
Answer:
The French Revolution affected the everyday life of the French people in the following ways:

1. Revolutionary ideas of equality and liberty transformed the clothes people wore, the language they spoke and the books they read.
2. With the abolition of censorship in 1789 and the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen in 1791, freedom of speech became a natural right. This led to the growth of newspapers, books, pamphlets and printed pictures.
3. Freedom of the press enabled voicing of opinions.
4. Art flourished in the form of paintings, plays, songs, and festive processions.
5. Visual and oral artforms enabled even the common man who could not read and write to relate with the ideas of liberty, equality and justice.

Question 13.
Compare the political, economic and social conditions of France before and after the revolution.

Before Revolution	After Revolution
(a) Political Conditions:	1. France became a Republic.
1. France was under the rule of a monarch, Louis XVI	2. Political powers were given common masses.
2. All the political powers were in the hand of the first two Estates.	1. Taxes were levied according to the income and wealth. The right to vote was linked to taxes.
(b) Economic Conditions:	2. The economic condition government improved.
All the taxes were paid by the people of the Third Estate. The members of the first two Estates were exempted from all the taxes	1. All were given equal irrespective of the Estates.
The government was under heavy debt.	2. The censorship on written material and cultural activities was lifted, now all were free to write and speak
(c) Social Conditions:	After Revolution
People of Third Estate were discriminated.	1. France became a Republic.
All the written materials and cultural activities could print only after an approval from the King.	2. Political powers were given common masses.

Map Work

Question 1.
Locate following on the map of France: Bordeaux, Nantes, Paris, Marseilles.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge

JAC Class 9th Economics Poverty as a Challenge InText Questions and Answers

Page No. 32

Question 1.
Why do different countries use different poverty lines?
Answer:
Different countries use different poverty lines because what is necessary to satisfy basic needs is different at different times and in different countries. Each country uses an imaginary line that is considered appropriate for its existing level of development and its accepted minimum social norms.

Question 2.
What do you think would be the “minimum necessary level” in your locality?
Answer:
The “minimum necessary level” in our locality would be ₹5000 per month per head.

Page No. 33

Table 3.1 Estimates of Poverty in India

Poverty Ratio (%)				Number of Poor (in million)
Year	Rural	Urban	Total	Rural	Urban	Combined
1993-94	50.7	32	45	329	75	404
2004-05	42	26	37	326	81	407
2009-10	34	21	30	278	76	355
2011-12	26	14	22	217	53	270

(Source Economic Survey 2017-18.)

Question 1.
Even if poverty ratio declined between 1993-94 and 2004-05, why did the number of poor remain at about 407 million?
Answer:
Though poverty ratio declined between 1993-94 and 2004-05, the number of poor remained at about 407 million due to population explosion during this period.

Question 2.
Are the dynamics of poverty reduction the same in rural and urban India?
Answer:
No, the dynamics of poverty reduction are not the same in rural and urban India.

Page. No. 35

Observe some of the poor families around you and try to find the following:
Question 1.
Which social and economic group do they belong to?
Answer:
They belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes and some are daily wages labourers.

Question 2.
Who are the earning members in the family?
Answer:
Both males and females are the earning members in the family.

Question 3.
What is the condition of the old people in the family?
Answer:
The condition of the old people in the family is very bad. They are treated as a burden on the family.

Question 4.
Are all the children (boys and girls) attending schools?
Answer:
No, all the children (boys and girls) are not attending schools. Only some boys are attending schools while girls are made to sit at home.

Page. No. 36

Graph 3.2 : Poverty Ratio in Selected Indian States (As per 2011 census)

[Source Economic Survey 2017-18

Study the Graph 3.2 and do the following:
Question 1.
Identify the three states where the poverty ratio is the highest.
Answer:

1. Bihar.
2. Odisha.
3. Assam.

Question 2.
Identify the three states where poverty ratio is the lowest.
Answer:

1. Kerela.
2. Himachal Pradesh.
3. Punjab.

Page. No. 36

Graph 3.4 Number of the poor by region ($ 1.90 per day) in millions

(Source Poverty and Equity Database: Word Bank (http://databank.worldbank.org/data/ reports. aspx?source=poverty-and-equity-database)

Study the Graph 3.4 and do the following:
Question 1.
Identify the areas of the world, where poverty ratios have declined.
Answer:
Poverty ratios have declined in:

1. East Asia and Pacific,
2. China,
3. Sub-Saharan Africa,
4. South Asia.

Question 2.
Identify the area of the globe which has the largest concentration of the poor.
Answer:
East Asia and the Pacific has the largest concentration of the poor.

JAC Class 9th Economics Poverty as a Challenge Textbook Questions and Answers  

Question 1.
Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India?
Answer:
A common method used to measure poverty is based on the income or consumption levels. A minimum level of food requirement, clothing, footwear, fuel and light, educational anu medical requirement, etc. are determined for subsistence while determining the poverty line in India. These physical quantities are multiplied by their prices in rupees.

The present formula for food requirement while estimating the poverty line is based on the desired calorie requirement. The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas.

Question 2.
Do you think that present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate?
Answer:
No, we do not think that the present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate. The present methodology of poverty estimation takes into consideration income and consumption level only. That is insufficient criterion. According to social scientists, poverty should be a looked at through some other indicators. These indicators may be lack of general resistance due to continuous malnutrition, lack of access to healthcare, lack of job opportunities, lack of access to safe drinking water and sanitation, etc. Poverty should also be viewed on the basis of social exclusion and vulnerability.

Question 3.
Describe poverty trends in India since 1973.
Answer:
There has been a substantial decline in poverty ratios in India. It was about 55 per cent in 1973-74, which reduced to 37 per cent in 2004-05. Although, the percentage of people living under poverty declined in the earlier two decades, i.e., 1973-1993, the number of poor declined from 407 million in 2004-05 to 270 million in 2011-12 with an average decline of 2.2 percentage points during 2004-05 to 2011-12.

The proportion of people below poverty line further came down to about 22 per cent in 2011-12. If the trend continues, people below poverty line may came down to less than 20 per cent in the next few years.

Question 4.
Discuss the major reasons for poverty in India.
Answer:
The major reasons for poverty in India are as follows:
1. Low level of Economic Development:
One historical reason is the low level of economic development under the British colonial administration. The policies of the colonial government ruined traditional handicrafts and discouraged development of industries like textiles.

2. Failure of Indian Administration:
The Indian administration failed at two fronts :
(i) Promotion of economic growth,
(ii) Population control which perpetuated the cycle of poverty.

3. Lack of Employment:
With the extension of irrigation and the advents of Green Revolution, many job opportunities were created in the agricultural sector but the effects were limited to some parts of India. The industries, both in the public and private sector did provide some jobs. But there were not enough to absorb all the job seekers.

4. Huge Income Inequalities:
This is one of the major reasons of poverty in India. Unequal distribution of land and other resources increases income inequalities.

Question 5.
Identify the social and economic groups which are most vulnerable to poverty in India.
Answer:
1. Social Groups:
The social groups more vulnerable to poverty are the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households. These are not allowed to avail the facilities given to others due to the prevailing caste system. This leads to poverty.

2. Economic Groups:
The economic groups vulnerable to poverty are the rural agricultural labourer households and the urban casual labourer households. The rural agricultural labourers have no land of their own and are thus not able to earn enough to meet their daily needs, and hence remain poor.

Question 6.
Give an account of inter-state disparities of poverty in India.
Answer:
A major aspect of poverty in India is that the proportion of poor people is not the same in every state. The success rate of reducing poverty varies from state to state. Recent estimates show while the all India Head Count Ratio (HCR) was 21.9 per cent in 2011-12 states like Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Uttar Pardesh, Bihar and Odisha had higher poverty levels than the all, India poverty level. Bihar and Odisha continue to be the two poorest states with poverty ratios of 33.7 and 32.6 per cent respectively.

Along with rural poverty, urban poverty is also high in Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh. In comparison, there has been a significant decline in poverty in Kerala, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and West Bengal.

States like Punjab and Haryana have traditionally succeeded in reducing poverty with the help of high agricultural growth rates. Kerala with the help of human resource development, West Bengal with land reform measures, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu with Public distribution of food grains have been successful in reducing poverty levels.

Question 7.
Describe global poverty trends.
Answer:
The proportion of people in developing countries living in extreme economic poverty has fallen from 36 per cent in 1990 to 10 per cent in 2015. Although, there has been a substantial reduction in global poverty, it is marked with great regional differences.

Poverty declined substantially in China and South-East Asian countries as a result of rapid economic growth and massive investments in human resource development. Number of poor in China has come down from 88.3 per cent in 1981 to 14.7% per cent in 2008, and to 0.7 percent in 2015.

In the countries of South Asia (India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan), the decline has also been rapid-34 percent in 2005 to 16.2 percent in 2013. In Sub-Saharan Africa, poverty in fact declined from 51 per cent in 2005 to 41 per cent in 2015. In Latin America, the ratio of poverty has also declined from 10 percent in 2005 to 4 percent in 2015. Poverty has also resurfaced in some of the former socialist countries like Russia where officially it was non-existent earlier.

Question 8.
Describe the current government strategy of poverty allevaition.
Answer:
Removal of poverty has been one of the major objectives of Indian developmental strategy. The current anti-poverty strategy of the government is based broadly on two planks:
1. Promotion of Economic Growth:
Over a period of thirty years lasting upto the early eighties, there was little per capita income growth and not much reduction in poverty. Official poverty estimates which were about 45 percent in the early 1950s remained the same even in the early eighties.

Since the eighties, India’s economic growth has been one of the fastest in the world. The growth rate jumped from the average of about 3.5 per cent a year in the 1970s to about 6 per cent during the 1980s and 1990s. The higher growth rates have helped significantly in the reduction of poverty.

Therefore, it is becoming clear that there is a strong link between economic growth and poverty reduction. Economic growth widens opportunities and provides the resources needed to invest in human development. However, the poor may not be able to take direct advantage of the opportunities created by economic growth. Moreover, growth in the agriculture sector is much below the expectations.

2. Targetted Anti-poverty Programmes:
There is a clear need for targetted anti-poverty programmes. The government has implemented several anti- poverty schemes to eradicate poverty; Some of these are as follows :
(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREG), 2005
(b) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY), 1993
(c) Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP), 1995
(d) Swamajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY), 1999
(e) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY), 2000
(f) Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY), 2000

Question 9.
Answer the following questions briefly:
1. What do you understand by human poverty?
Answer:
Human poverty is a concept that goes beyond the limited view of poverty as lack of income. It refers to the denial of political, economic and social opportunities to an individual, needed to maintain a reasonable standard of living. Illiteracy, lack of job opportunities, lack of access to proper healthcare and sanitation, caste and gender discrimination, etc are all components of human poverty.

2. Who are the poorest of the poor?
Answer:
Women, elderly people and female infants are the poorest of the poor in society Women, elderly people and the girl child are systematically denied equal access to the resources available in the family. That is why they are considered as the poorest of the poor.

3. What are the main features the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005?
Answer:
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 was passed in September 2005.

Its main features are as under:

1. The Act provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household.
2. One-third of the proposed jobs would be reserved for women.
3. Under the programme, if an applicant is not provided employment within fifteen days he/she will be entitled to get daily unemployment allowance.
4. The central government and state governments will establish National Employment Guarantee Funds and State Employment Guarantee Funds respectively.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Solutions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource

JAC Class 9th Economics People as Resource InText Questions and Answers 

Page No. 17

Question 1.
Looking at the photograph can you explain how a doctor, teacher, engineer and a tailor are an asset to the economy?
Answer:
In the given picture a doctor is providing healthcare service to a woman. These types of serivces are essential for a healthier population. The teachers provide essential services in the field of education. They make people literate, imparting them good education and increasing their mental skill. A healthy and literate person helps in the growth of GDP of the nation.

An engineer provides his services in the field of infrastructure. He manufactures various types of machines, engines, builds roads and bridges which contribute in the development of the economy. The tailor stitches clothes and mends it. From the above, we can see that doctor, engineer, teacher and tailor are an asset to the economy because all are helpful in strengthening the nation.

Page No. 18

Question 1.
Do you notice any difference between the two friends ? What are those?
Answer:
Yes, we noticed some differences between the two friends. These differences are as follows:

1. Sakai’s parents gave him higher education while Vilas was unable to get education as he lost his father at the age of 2 years.
2. Sakai was an active boy while Vilas lost his health due to his inactive approach.
3. Sakai provided his services for a computer firm while Vilas sold fish like his mother to earn his livelihood.

Page No. 21

Study the graph and answer the following questions:

[Source : Economic survey, 2017-18.]

Question 1.
Have the literacy rates of the population increased since 1951?
Answer:
Yes, the literacy rates of the population have increased since 1951.

Question 2.
In which year India has the highest literacy rates?
Answer:
In the year 2011, India has the hightest literacy rates.

Question 3.
Why literacy rate is high among the males of India?
Answer:
Literacy rate is high among the males of India because the opportunity to get education is more for males as compared to females due to male-dominated society in India.

Question 4.
Why are women less educated than men?
Answer:
Women are less educated then man due to gender inequality and some social boundations in India. Parents do not send their girls to schools because they feel that they should look after the domestic work while boys should go to school.

Question 5.
How would you calculate literacy rate in India?
Answer:
The literacy rate can be calculated on the basis of the number of literate people divided by the population multiplied by 100.
Literacy Rate = \(\frac { Number of literate people in India }{ Population of India }\) = 100

Question 6.
What is your projection about India’s literacy rate in 2020?
Answer:
My projection about India’s literacy rate in 2020 is approximately 90 per cent.

Page No. 23

Discuss this table in the classroom and answer the following questions:
Table Number of Institutions of higher Education, Enrolment and faculty

Year	Number of colleges	Number of Universities	Students & Colleges	Teachers in University
1950-51	750	30	2,63,000	24,000
1990-91	7,346	177	49,25,000	2,72,000
1998-99	11,089	238	74,17,000	3,42,000
2010-11	33,023	523	186,70,050	8,16,966
2012-13	37,204	628	228,02,938	9,25,396
201-15	40,760	711	265,85,437	12,61,350
2015-16	41,435	753	284,84,741	14,38,000
2016-17	42,338	795	294,27,158	14,70,190

Source: UGC Annual Report 2010-11, 2012-13, 2013-14, 2015-16 and selected educational statistics, Ministry of HRD, www.ugc. ac. in (Anual Report. 2016-17 pdf).

Question 1.
Is the increase in the number of colleges adequate to admit the increasing number of students?
Answer:
No, the increasing number of colleges is not adquate to admit the increasing number of students.

Question 2.
Do you think we should have more number of Universities?
Answer:
Yes, I think, we should have more number of Universities to encourage higher education in India.

Question 3.
What is the increase noticed among the teachers in the year 1998-99?
Answer:
In the year 1998-99, the increase noticed is 70,000 teachers since 1990-91.

Question 4.
What is your idea about future colleges and universities?
Answer:
My idea about future colleges and universities is that there should some more professional colleges and Universities with more job-oriented and vocational courses offered to the students.

JAC Class 9th Economics People as Resource Textbook Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘people as a resource’?
Answer:
‘People as a resource’ is a way of referring to a country’s working people in terms of their existing productive skills and abilities. It emphasises the ability of people to contribute to the creation of the Gross National Product. Population is a resource which also called Human Resource.

Question 2.
How is human resource different from other resources like land and physical capital?
Answer:
Human resource is different from other resources like land and physical capital in the following ways :

1. Human resource is an active and living resource.
2. Human resource is an indispensable resource.
3. Human resource makes use of other resources like land, physical capital, etc.
4. There are many forms of human resource as they work as manager, entrepreneur, worker, etc.

Question 3.
What is the role of education in human capital formation?
Answer:
Education plays an important role in human capital formation. It helps the people to make better use of economic opportunities available before them. It increases the quality of labour and helps to enhance the total productivity. This results in the growth of the economy.

Question 4.
What is the role of health in human capital formation?
Answer:
Health has a vital role in human capital formation. The health of a person helps him to realise his full potential. Health is an indispensable basis for realising one’s well being. Economic growth can be achieved at a faster rate, if population of the country is healthy and competent. Only a healthy person can do full justice to his job. So, we can say that health has an important role in human capital formation.

Question 5.
What part does health play in the individual’s working life?
Answer:
Health is a very important aspect of life. It includes the physical, mental, social, emotional and economic well-being of an individual. It is rightly said that ‘a sound mind lives in a sound body’. An unhealthy person is a liability for his family, organisation and country. No organisation will employ such a person who cannot work efficiently due to ill-health.

Question 6.
What are the various activities undertaken in the primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector?
Answer:
Following activities are undertaken in the primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector :

1. Primary Sector: Farming, forestery, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, mining, quarrying, etc.
2. Secondary Sector: Manufacturing, processing, etc.
3. Tertiary Sector: Trade, Transport, Communication, Banking, Education, Health, Tourism, Services, Insurance, etc.

Question 7.
What is the difference between economic activities and non-economic activities?
Answer:
Activities which are performed to earn money are called economic activities. These activities add value to the National Income.
On the other hand, activities which are not performed to earn money are called non-economic activities. These activities are performed only for self-consumption. Example: If a father is a teacher in a school he gets salary for it. This is an economic activity. But when he teaches his own children, he is performing a non-economic activity.

Question 8.
Why are women employed in low-paid work?
Answer: Women are employed in low paid work due to the following reasons :

1. A majority of women have lesser education and low skill sets.
2. Generally, women are considered physically and emotionally weak.
3. Most women work in the unorganised sector.
4. Women are generally unaware of their legal right.

Question 9.
How will you explain the term unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is a term referring to individuals who are employable and seeking a job but are unable to find a job. Furthermore, it is those people in the workforce or pool of people who are available for work who do not have an appropriate job. Usually measured by the unemployment rate, which is dividing the number of unemployed people by the total number of people in the workforce, unemployment serves as one of the in¬dicators of an economy’s status.

Question 10.
What is the difference between disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
Disguised Unemployment: In disguised unemployment people appear to be employed but their productivity is zero. Such kind of unemployment is mostly found in agriculture. Seasonal Unemployment : In seasonal unemployment people get jobs during some months of the year. For the rest months of the year they do not get jobs and sit idle. People dependent upon agriculture usually face this kind of unemployment.

Question 11.
Why is educated unemployed, a peculiar problem of India?
Answer:
Educated unemployment is posing a great threat to our country. It has become a common phenomenon in India. Lakhs of educated persons are unemployed. This is a peculiar problem of India in the following ways:

1. It leads to wastage of educated manpower resource.
2. The youth feel hopeless and dejected.
3. It tends to increase economic overload.
4. The quality of life of an individual as well as of society is adversely affected.
5. Unemployment has a detrimental impact on the overall growth of an economy.

Question 12.
In which field do you think India can build the maximum employment opportunity?
Answer:
I think, India can build the maximum employment opportunity in the service
sector or say tertiary sector. In this sector, various new services are now emerging like biotechnology, IT (information technology) and so on.

Question 13.
Can you suggest some measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed?
Answer:
The following measures can help to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed :

1. The education system should be job-oriented.
2. Education should be planned and executed properly.
3. Higher education should be restricted to meritorious students only.
4. Education should encourage people to become self-reliant.

Question 14.
Can you imagine some village which initially had no job opportunities but later came up with many?
Answer:
Yes, we can imagine not only one but many villages which initially had no job opportunities but later came up with many. The villagers started to provide education to their children. These educated youngsters got absorbed in many professions in the villages like teaching, agro-engineering, etc. They created various types of employment in their villages. As a result, villages developed soon. Now these villages have better education facilities, health facilities, proper supply of water and electricity.

Question 15.
Which capital would you consider the best-land, labour, physical capital and human capital? Why?
Answer:
We shall consider human capital the best capital because:

1. Human capital makes efficient use of other resources land, labour and physical capital. These resources cannot be useful on their own.
2. Human capital can be developed to any extent.
3. Human capital activates other resources.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Solutions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur

JAC Class 9th Economics The Story of Village Palampur  InText Questions and Answers 

Page No. (3 – 4)

Question 1.
The following table 1.1 shows the land under cultivation in India in units of million hectares. Plot this on the graph provided. What does the graph show? Discuss in class.
Table 1.1 : Cultivated Area over the Years

Years	Cultivated Area (Million Hectares)
1950-51	129
1990-91	157
2000-01	156
2010-11 (P)	156
2011-12 (P)	156
2012-13 (P)	155
2013-14 (P)	156
2014-15 (P)	155

(P) Provisional Data
Answer:

Source: Pocket book of‘Agriculture Statistics’, 2017.
Fig. Cultivated Area over the Years
The above graph shows the land under cultivation in India in units of million hectares. It shows that the land under cultivation in India was 129 million hectares in 1950-51, which rose to 157 million hectares in 1990-91 but it reduced to 156 million hectares in 2000-01. This cultivated area remained stable till 2011-12 which again reduced to 155 in 2014-15. It should be noted that the cultivated area has not increased in proportion to the increase in population. Later it is decreasing.

Question 2.
Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?
Answer:
Yes, it is very important to increase the area under irrigation because land is limited and cannot be increased but the area under irrigation can be increased by setting up tubewells. In the absence of irrigation facilities, farmers suffer huge losses due to bad crops. So, to avoid losses due to lack of rain during monsoon and improper irrigation facilities, it is very crucial to increase the area under irrigation.

Question 3.
You have read about the crops grown in Palampur. Fill the following table based on information on the crops grown in your region.

Name of Crop	Month Sown	Month Harvested	Source of Urrigation (rain, tanks, tube wells, canals etc.)

Answer:
Information about crops grown in our region is given below.

Name of Crop	Month Sown	Month Harvested	Source of irrigation (rain, tanks, tube wells, canals etc.)
Wheat	October-November	March-April	Tubewells and canals
Barley	October-N ovember	March-April	Tubewells and canals
Gram	October-N ovember	March-April	Tubewells
Mustard	October-November	March-April	Tubewells and canals
Bajra	June	October	Rain
Jowar	June	October	Rain

Page No. 5.

Question 1.
What is the difference between multiple cropping and modem farming methods?
Answer:
Difference between Multiple Cropping and Modem Farming Methods

Multiple Cropping	Modem Farming
1. The same land is used for different crops under this method.	1. Under this method, higher yield is obtained through single crop.
2. Multiple cropping employs traditional methods.	2. Modem farming has modem equipments, i.e., HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides and irrigation etc.

Question 2.
The following table shows the production of wheat and pulses in India after the Green Revolution in units of million tonnes. Plot this on a graph. Was the Green Revolution equally successful for both the crops? Discuss. Table 1.2 : Production of Pulses and Wheat (in million tonnes)

1965-66	Production of Pulses	Production of Wheat
1970-71	10	10
1980-81	12	24
1990-91	11	36
2000-01	14	55
2010-11	11	70
2012-13	18	87
2013-14	18	94
2014-15	19	96
2015-16	17	87
2016-17	17	94
2017-18	23	99

Answer:

The above graph shows that the Green Revolution was not equally successful for the production of pulses and wheat. The production of both the crops was equal before the Green Revolution, but after that the production of pulses was not very good. There was a significant increase in the production of wheat but not in the production of pulses. So, we can conclude that the Green Revolution was good for wheat but not so gpod for pulses.

Question 3.
What is the working capital required by the farmer using modern farming methods?
Answer:
Some money is always required during production to make payments and, buy other necessary items, such as; seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides etc. Raw materials and money in hand are called working capital.

Question 4.
Modem farming methods require the farmer to start with more cash than before. Why?
Answer:
Modern farming methods require the use of HYV seeds which are costlier than traditional seeds and need chemical fertiliisers and pesticides to produce more crop. However, for buying all these inputs, a lot of money is necessary. So modern farming methods requirfe the use of more cash than before.

Page No. 7

Question 1.
In the picture 1.5 (Page No. 7) can you shade the land cultivated by the small farmers?
Answer:
Yes, I can shade the land cultivated by the small farmers.

Fig. Shade the land cultivated by the small farmers

Question 2.
Why do so many families of farmers cultivate such small plots of land ?
Answer:
So many families of farmers cultivate such small plots of land because the size of plot does not increase but with the passage of time the families of the farmers increase. According to Indian succession law, the land of a particular person divided among his children and further and this results into small holdings.

For example, in the story of village Palampur, Gobind, a farmer, had 2.25 hectares land in 1960. After his death, this land was divided among his three sons. Each one now has a plot of land that is only 0.75 hectare in size.

Question 3.
The distribution of farmers in India and the amount of land they cultivate is given in the following Graph 1.1. Discuss in the classroom.

Graph: Distribution of Cultivated Area and Farmers
Answer:
The given graph shows that:

1. There are 85% per cent small farmers in India who have land less than 2 hectares in size and they cultivate only 44.60% per cent of total cultivated area.
2. On the other hand, only 15% per cent medium and large farmers exist in India who have land more than 2 hectares in size. They cultivate 55.40% per cent of total cultivated area.

Question 4.
Would you agree that the distribution of cultivated land is unequal in Palampur? Do you find a similar situation for India? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, we would agree with the fact that the distribution of cultivated land is unequal in Palampur because we see that about 150 families out of 450 families in Palampur are landless. They have no land for cultivation. 240 families cultivate small plots of land less than 2 hectares in size, while there are 60 families of medium and large farmers who cultivate more than 2 hectares of land.

A few of the large farmers have land extending over 10 hectares or more. A similar situation exists in India. The number of small farmers in India is 85% per cent of total farmers and they have only 44.60% per cent of total cultivated land for cultivation, while 15% percent medium and large farmers have 55.40% per cent cultivated land.

Question 5.
Identify the work being done on the field in the Picture 1.6 and arrange them in a proper sequence.
Answer:
The correct arrangement of the work being done on the field in the Picture 1.6 (in Textbook) is as follows:

1. Cultivation by traditional methods,
2. Cultivation by modern methods,
3. Ploughing,
4. Sowing,
5. Spraying of insecticides,
6. Cutting of crops.

Page. No. 9

Question 1.
Why are farm labourers like Dala and Ramkali poor?
Answer:
Farm labourers like Dala and Ramkali are poor because:

1. They are landless farm labourers, and they work on daily wages in Palampur.
2. The minimum wage for a farm labourer set by the government is? 300 per day. But they get only? 160 per day.
3. There is a heavy competition for work among the farm labourers in Palampur, so people agree to work for lower wages.
4. They remain out of work for most days of the year and have to take loan from the moneylenders to fullfill their needs. Due to seasonal unemployment, they are unable to repay the loan and they fall into a debt trap.

Question 2.
Gosaipur and Majauli are two villages in North Bihar. Out of total of850 households in the two villages, there are more than 250 men who are employed in rural Punjab and Haryana or in Delhi, Mumbai, Surat, Hyderabad or Nagpur. Such migration is common in most villages across India. Why do people migrate? Can you describe (based on your imagination) the work that the migrants of Gosaipur and Majauli might do at the place of destination.
Answer:
People migrate in search of employment or better job opportunities. They do not find regular jobs in the village which causes chronic poverty, leading to starvation. In this case, they are forced to migrate in other cities. I think the migrants of Gosaipur and Majauli might do the following works at the place of destination:

1. Street vendors,
2. Rickshaw-pullers,
3. Carpenters,
4. Plumbers,
5. Labourers in construction projects like road, bridge or building construction.
6. Servants in hotels and tea shops and houses.

Page. No. 11

Question 1.
Let us take three farmers. Each has grown wheat on his field though the production is different (see Column 2). The consumption of wheat by each farmer family is the same (Column 3). The whole of surplus wheat this year is used as capital for next year’s production. Also suppose, production is twice the capital used in production. Complete the tables.
Farmer 1

	Production	Consumption	Surplus = Production Consumption	Gapital for the next year
Year 1	100	40	60	60
Year 2	120	40
Year 3		40

Farmer 2

	Production	Consumption	Surplus = Production Consumption	Gapital for the next year
Year 1	80	40
Year 2		40
Year 3		40

Farmer 3

	Production	Consumption	Surplus = Production Consumption	Gapital for the next year
Year 1	60	40
Year 2		40
Year 3		40

Answer:
Farmer 1

	Production	Consumption	Surplus = Production Consumption	Gapital for the next year
Year 1	100	40	60	60
Year 2	120	40	80	80
Year 3	160	40	120	120

Farmer 2

	Production	Consumption	Surplus = Production Consumption	Gapital for the next year
Year 1	80	40	40	40
Year 2	80	40	40	40
Year 3	80	40	40	40

Farmer 3

	Production	Consumption	Surplus = Production Consumption	Gapital for the next year
Year 1	60	40	20	20
Year 2	40	40	0	80
Year 3	0	40	40	-20

Question 2.
Compare the pro$fiction of wheat by the three farmers over the years.
Answer:
On comparing the production of wheat by the three farmers over the years, we find that the production of Farmer 1 is increasing year after year. There is no change in the production of Farmer 2 while the produciton of Farmer 3 is declining.

Question 3.
What happens to Farmer 3 in Year 3? Can he continue production? What will he have to do to continue production?
Answer:
In Year 3, Farmer 3 produces nil because he made no investment in Year 2. Yes, he can continue production but will he have to borrow money from local money-lenders, traders, or government or non-government organisations to do this.

Page. No. 12

Question 1.
What capital did Mishrilal need to set up his jaggery manufacturing unit?
Answer:
To set up his manufacturing unit. Mishrilal needed the following capital.

1. Fixed capital in the form of a sugarcane crushing machine.
2. Working capital in the form of money-for buying sugarcane from other farmers for crushing and for paying the electricity bill of rinning the sugarcane crushing machine.

Question 2.
Who provides the labour in this case?
Answer:
In this case, generally, the members of the family provide the labour.

Question 3.
Can you guess why Mishrilal is unable to increase his profit?
Answer:
I think, he is not crushing sugarcane on a large scaleftlue to unavailability of modern techniques. So, he is unable to increase his profit.

Question 4.
Could you think of any reasons when he might face a loss?
Answer:
He might face a loss when he does not get regular electricity supply or crushing machine is out of order or raw material becomes expensive etc.

Question 5.
Why does Mishrilal sell his jaggery to traders in Shahpur and not in his village?
Answer:
Mishrilal sells his jaggery to traders in Shahpur because there is less demand of jaggery in his village and he “also Jets good price for jaggery from the traders of Shahpur.

Question 6.
ln what ways is Kareem’s capital and labour different from Mishrilal?
Answer:
Kareem’s capital and labour is different from Mishrilal’s in two ways:

1. Kareem bought many computers to set up his computer centre while Mishrilal bought only an electric sugarcane crushing machine. So, Karim invested more than Mishrilal.
2. Kareem employed educated and skilled labour for teaching in his computer centre while Mishrilal has no requirement for educated and skilled labour.

Question 7.
Why didn’t someone start a computer centre earlier? Discuss the possible reasons.
Answer:
No one had started a computer centre in the village earlier because the awareness of the village people about computers was less and none of the students went to the town to attend the college.

Page. No. 13

Question 1.
What is Kishora’s fixed capital?
Answer:
Kishore’s fixed capital is the buffalo and wooden cart.

Question 2.
What do you think would be his working capital?
Answer:
The money that he earns from selling the milk and transporting goods on his wooden cart would *be his working capital.

Question 3.
In how many production activities is Kishora involved?
Answer:
Kishora is involved in three production activities:

1. Primary activity: Selling buffalo’s milk.
2. Secondary activity: Bring clay for the potter.
3. Tertiary activity: Transportation.

Question 4.
Would you say that Kishora has benefited from better roads in Palampur?
Answer:
Kishora is involved in transport acitivity with the help of better roads in Palsjfnpur. So, we can say that Kishora has benefited from better roads in Palampur.

Page. No 5.

During your field visit talk to some farmers of your region. Find out:

Question 1.
What kind of farming methods – modern or traditional or mixed – do the farmers use? Write a note.
Answer:
The farmers of our region use mixed farming method. They plough their fields using bullock. They use tubewells and fountain method for irrigation. They use cow-dung manure and chemical fertilizers in their fields. Pesticides are not used. Crop-cutting is done by traditional method.

Question 2.
What are the sources of irrigation?
Answer:
The sources of irrigation are:

1. Rain,
2. Wells,
3. Tubewells,
4. Canals:
   (a) Seasonal canals
   (b) Permanent canals.
5. Ponds:
   (a) Natural ponds
   (b) Artificial ponds.

Question 3.
How much of the cultivated land is irrigated? (very little/nearly half/majority/all)
Answer:
Nearly half of the cultivated land is irrigated.

Question 4.
From where do farmers obtain the inputs that they require?
Answer:
The farmers obtain the inputs, i.e., working capital that they require from local moneylenders, mahajans, large farmers and local traders. Some educated farmers get loan from government institutions under the various government schemes.

Question 5.
After reading the following reports from newspapers/magazines, write a letter to the Agriculture Minister in your own words telling him how the use of chemical fertilizers can be harmful.
Answer:
Palampur
17 February, 2010
The Agriculture Minister
Government of India,
New Delhi.
Sub: In regard to the barm caused bv the use of chemical fertilizers
Sir,
I want to draw your kind attention towards the damage caused by the chemical fertilizers used in agriculture. I came to know via articles published in newspapers and magazines that using chemical fertilizers in agriculture is harmful for health. They provide minerals which dissolve in water and are immediately available to plants.

But these may not be retained in the soil for long. They may escape from the soil and pollute ground water, rivers and lakes. These also kill useful bacteria and other micro-organisms in the soil. The continuous use of soil makes it less fertile than ever and all this leads to degradation of soil health.

Kindly consider this matter.
Thanking you,
Yours Sincerely
Neha
Class IX

Page No. 9 and 10

Question 6.
We have read about the three factors of production land, labour and capital and how they are used in farming. Let us fill in the blanks given below:
Answer:
Among the three factors of production, we found that labour is the most abundant factor of production. There are many people who are willing to work as farm labourers in the villages, whereas the opportunities of work are limited.

They belong to either landless families or small farmers They are paid low wages and lead a difficult life. In contrast to labour, land is a scarce factor of production. Cultivated land area is limited Moreover, even the existing land is distributed unequally among the people engaged in farming.

There are large number of small farmers who cultivate small plots of land and live in conditions not much better than the landless farm labourer. To make the maximum use of the existing land, farmers use modern and new techniques Both these have led to increase in production of crops.

Modern farming methods require a great deal of money. Small farmers usually need to borrow money to arrange for the capital, and are put to great distress to repay the loan. Therefore, capital too is a scarce factor of production, particularly for the small farmers.

Though both land and capital are scarce, there is a basic difference between the two factors of production. Land is a natural resource, whereas capital is man-made. It is possible to increase capital, whereas land is fixed. Therefore, it is very important that we take good care of land and other natural resources used in farming.

JAC Class 9th Economics The Story of Village Palampurs Textbook Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
Every village in India is surveyed once in ten years during the census and some of the details are presented in the following format. Fill up the following based on information on Palampur.
(a) Location:
(b) Total Area of The Village:
(c) Land USE (in hectares):

Cultivated Land		Land not available for cultivation (Area covering dwellings, roads, ponds, grang ground)
Irrigated	Unirrigated
		26 hectares

(d) Facilities:

Educational	–
Medical	–
Market	–
Electricity Supply	–
Communicaton	–
Nearest Town	–

Answer:
(a) Location: A small village well-connected with Raiganj, 3kms from Palampur.
(b) Total Area of The Village: 226 hectares.
(c) Land USE (in hectares):

Cultivated Land		Land not available for cultivation (Area covering dwellings, roads, ponds, grang ground)
Irrigated	Unirrigated
200 hectares	–	26 hectares

(d) Facilities:

Educational	Two primary and one high school.
Medical	One primary health centre and one private dispensary.
Market	Market of Raiganj and Shahpur.
Electricity Supply	Most of the houses have electricity connection.
Communicaton	A well-developed system of road and transport exists.
Nearest Town	Shahpur.

Question 2
Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, I agree that modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Modern farming methods require chemical fertilizers, pesticides, HYV seeds, pumpsets, tractors, threshers etc. which are produced by industry.

Question 3.
How did the spread of electricity help farmers in Palampur?
Answer:
The spread of electricity helped farmers in Palampur a lot. Electricity helped to run tubewells and pump sets for irrigation of fields. This has also increased agricultrual production in the village. Now farmers are able to grow crops during the non-rainy season also.

Question 4.
Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?
Answer:
Yes, it is important to increase the area under irrigation because:

1. It is necessary to meet the food requirement of increasing population.
2. During monsoon season, crop losses can be avoided in case of no rain or less rain.
3. During non-rainy season also, agricultural land can be used for crop cultivation.
4. Irrigation facility retains land fertility for long time use.

Question 5.
Construct a table on the distribution of land among the 450 families of Palampur.
Answer:

	Land Holding
	Landless Families of land	Less than 2 hectares of land	More than 2 hectares of land.
No. of Families	150	240	60

Question 6.
Why “are the wages for farm labourers in Palampur less than minimum wages?
Answer:
The wages for farm labourers in Palampur are less than minimum wages because there is heavy competition for work among the farm labourers, so people agree to work on lower wages.

Question 7.
In your region, talk to two labourers. Choose either farm labourers or labourers working at construction sites. What wages do they get? Are they paid in cash or kind? Do they get work regularly? Are they in debt?
Answer:
I talked to two farm labourers Ram Prasad and Sanchi Lai. Both work on daily wages in my region. Their details are as follows:

Details	Ram Prasad	Sanchi Lai
Wages	160 per day	₹ 170 per day
Cash/ kind	Cash	Crop and meals
Regular Wark	No regular work	No regular work
Are they in debt?	Yes	Yes

Question 8.
What are th‘ different ways of increasing production on the same piece of land? Use examples to explain.
Answer:
The different ways of increasing production on the same piece of land are as follows:
1. Multiple Cropping: Multiple cropping is the most common way of increasing production on the same piece of land. Under this method, more than one crop is grown on a piece of land during the year. For example; wheat,, bajra and potato can be grown on the same piece of land.

2. Modern Farming Methods: Modern farming methods is another way of increasing production on the same piece of land. Modern farming includes High Yielding Variety (HYV) of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation, etc. This method of farming promises to produce much greater amounts of grain on a single plant.

Question 9.
Describe the work of a farmer with 1 hectare of land.
Answer:
A farmer who has a plot of 1 hectare has to face many problems. Cultivation of such a plot doesn’t bring adequate income to meet the requirements of his family. So, he has to work on the fields of some large farmer as a labourer after working on his field.

Question 10.
How do the medium and large farmers obtain capital for farming? How is it different from the small farmers?
Answer:
Medium and large farmers retain part of the farming for the family’s consumption and sell the surplus in the market. A part of the earning is saved and kept for buying capital for the the next season. Thus, they are able to arrange for the capital for farming from their own savings.

On the other hand, small farmers have little surplus because their total production is small and from this a substantial share is kept for fulfilling their own family needs. So, most of the small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for the capital. The rate of interest on such loans is very high. They are put to great distress to repay the loan.

Question 11.
On what terms did Savita get a loan from Tejpal Singh? Would Savita’s condition be different if she could get” a loan from the bank at a low rate of interest?
Answer:
Tejpal Singh agreed to give Savita the loan at an interest rate of 24 per cent for four months. Besides, Savita has to work on his field as farm labourers during the harvest season for? 100 per day. Yes, Savita’s condition would be different if she could get a loan from the bank at low rate of interest. She could have easily repaid the loan and her condition would have been far better.

Question 12.
Talk to some old residents in your region and write a short report on the changes in irrigation and changes in production methods during the last 30 years (optional).
Answer:
I talked some old farmers in my region and came to know that the following changes in irrigation and production methods have taken place in the last 30 years:
1. Changes in Irrigation Method:
30 years back, irrigation was dependent on rains, canals, wells etc. Persian wheels were used by farmers to draw water from the wells and irrigate small fields. But, now-a-days, irrigation is done using tubewells, pump sets etc.

2. Change in Production Method:
Earlier, the farming was done using traditional methods. Farmers used to plough their fields manually or with the the help of bullocks, but with the advancements in technology, ploughing, harvesting etc. works have become easier with the use of machinery like tractors, threshers etc. Production methods has changed significantly under modern farming methods. The farmers make use of HYV seeds, pesticides chemical fertilisers, modern irrigation facilities etc.

Question 13.
What are the non-farm production activities taking place in your region? Make a short list.
Answer:
The list of the non-farm production actitivies taking place in our region are follows:

1. Dairy,
2. Transportation,
3. Tailoring,
4. Manufacturing,
5. Shop-keeping,
6. Carpentery,
7. Pottery-making etc.

Question 14.
What can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in villages?
Answer:
Following steps can be taken so that more non-farm production activities can be started in villages:

1. Loans should be made available at low rate of interest so that even people without savings can start some non-farm activity.
2. Another thing which is essential for expansion of non-farm activities is to have markets where the goods and services produced can be sold.
3. All villages should be well-connected with improved road and railways. It will help in carrying out production activity.
4. Electricity supply should be made on regular basis.
5. Government should be more active and initiate effective employment generating schemes.
6. Government should provide training to the villagers in different skills.
7. Small scale industries should be started by entrepreneurs in rural areas to employ the villagers trained in various skills.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Solutions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Democratic Rights

JAC Class 9th Civics Democratic Rights InText Questions and Answers 

Questions of Unni & Munni (Page No. 76)

Question 1.
If you were a Serb, would you support what Milosevic did in Kosovo? Do you think his project of establishing Serb dominance was good for the Serbs?
Answer:
If, I were a serb, I would not support what Milosevic did in Kosovo. Really! his project of establishing Serb dominance was not good for the serbs.

Activity (Page No. 77)

Question 1.
Write a letter to Anas Jamil in UK, describing your reactions after reading his letter to Tony Blair.
Answer:
Dear Anas Jamil,
I have read your letter which was sent by you to the Prime Minister of United Kingdom. I have sympathy with you. It is your right to know the reason why your father is in prison. Why don’t you report in Amnesty International. It is an organisation of international human rights which collects information on the condition of the prisoners in Guantanamo Bay. It was reported that the prisoners were being tortured in ways that violated the US laws. The UN Secretary General said that the prison in Guantanamo Bay should be closed down. But the US government refused to accept it. I agreed with that the injustice is being done with you and your father. But keep patience, God will show you the path of light. I hope your problem will be solved.
Always with you.

Yours wellwisher
Ram Pathak

Question 2.
Write a letter from Batisha in Kosovo to a woman who faced a similar situation in
India.
Answer:
Dear Heena,
I hope that you will be fine. I am really very upset to hear this situation. A person who suffers this pain only can understand the condition of others. I don’t understand why a person hurts like this by his fellow men. Is the blood flowing inside him is not the same as in others ? And every person has a limit to bear the pain. Thus, we should fight against this massacre or crime.
Always with you.

Yours wellwisher
Batisha

Question 3.
Write a memorandum on behalf of women in Saudi Arabia to Secretary General of the United Nations.
Answer:
Secretary General,
United Nations Organisation.
Sir,
I want to pull your attention towards the worst condition of Saudi Arabian women and request you to the following measures :
1. Role of women must be compulsory in changing the rulers or in an election.
2. Women should be placed in the legislature and executive.
3. Public restrictions on women must be abolished.
4. Women should be provided the same status as men.

Yours wellwisher,
Shabana.

Check Your Progress (Page No. 77)

Question 1.
For each of the three cases of life without rights, mention an example from India. These could include the following:
1. Newspaper reports on custodial violence.
2. Newspaper reports on force-feeding of prisoners who go on hunger strike.
3. Ethnic massacre in any part of our country.
4. Reports regarding unequal treatment of women.
List the similarities and differences between the eaHier case and the Indian example. It is not necessary that for each cases you must find an exact Indian parallel.
Answer:
Student do it yourself.

Questions of Unni & Munni (Page No. 78-79)

Question 1.
What are the examples of elected governments not protecting or even attacking the rights of their own citizens? Why do theyfdo that?
Answer:
The examples of elected governments not protecting or even attacking the rights of their own citizens are government of Saudi Arabia and Former Yugoslavia.
They do that to achieve power and to control their citizens.

Question 2.
Everyone knows that the rich can have better lawyers in the courts. What is the point in talking about equality before law?
Answer:
It is true that rich people can have better lawyer in the courts on the strength of money. But according to the eonstitution the government will provide free “judicial service to every person on his demand. This is done in the name of equality before the law or equal protection of the law.

This means that the law makes no distinction between rich and poor. In his view all are equal. The rich may collect better lawyers, but if found guilty in the democratic system, they will also get the same punishment as any ordinary citizen. Hence equality before the law has a very wide meaning.

Activity (Page No. 80)

Question 1.
Go to the playground of the school or any stadium and watch a 400-metre race on any track. Why are the competitors in the outer lane placed ahead of those in the inner lane at the starting point of the race? What would happen if all the competitors start the race from the same line? Which of these two would be an equal and fair race? Apply this example to a competition for jobs.
Answer:
At the starting point of the race, the competitors in the outer lane placed ahead of those in the inner lane because the circumference of the inner lane is less than the circumference of the outer lane and to equalise this difference a player in the outer lane is placed ahead of those in the inner lane.

If all the competitors start the race from the same line than the racer of the inner lane reached first. First condition would be an equal and fair race. This example is also applicable to a competition for jobs. It is done by providing educational facilities and reservation for the weaker sections of the society.

Question 2.
Observe any big public building. Is there a ramp for physically handicapped? Are there any other facilities that make it possible for physically handicapped to use the building in the same way as any one else? Should these special facilities be provided, if it leads to extra expenditure on the building? Do these special provisions go against the principle of equality?
Answer:
Our city has a large public building, where ramps have been built for the physically handicapped. There are also many other facilities that handicapped person can easily use. For this reason, the utility of that building is as much for the handicapped as it is for the common people, it is necessary to provide this facility.

The handicapped persons are also members of our society and are respected citizens of this country. Those who have the right to equal use of public buildings. Yes, these special facilities should be provided, if it leads to extra expenditure on the building. No, these special provisions do not go against the principle of equality.

Questions of Unni & Munni (Page 81)

Question 1.
Should the freedom of expression be extended to those who are spreading wrong and narrow-minded ideas? Should they be allowed to confuse the public?
Answer:
No, the freedom of expression should not be extended to those who are spreading wrong and narrow minded ideas. They should be not allowed to confuse the public.

Check Your Progress (Page No. 83)

Question 1.
Are these cases instances of violation of right to freedom? If yes, which constitutional provision does each of these violate?
1. The government of India banned Salman Rushdie’s book Satanic Verses on the ground that it was disrespectful to Prophet Mohammed and was likely to hurt the feelings of Muslim community.
2. Every film has to be approved by the Censor Board of the government before it can
be shown to the public. But there is no such restriction if the same story is published in a book or a magazine.
3. The government is considering a proposal that there will be industrial zones or sectors of economy where workers will not be allowed to form unions or go on strike.
4. City administration has imposed a ban on use of public microphones after 10 p.m. in view of the approaching secondary school examinations.
Answer:

1. Yes, this cas’e is an instance of violation of right to freedom. It violates the freedom of speech and expression.
2. Yes, this case is an instance of violation of right to freedom because a film affects the whole society but books are read by only educated class of society.
3. Yes, this case is an instance of violation of right to freedom. It violates the freedom to form an association.
4. No, this case is not an instance of violation of right to freedom because our constitution gives us freedom but not to imitate others.

Check Your Progress (Page No. 83)

Question 1.
On the basis of these news reports write a letter to the editor or a petition to a court highlighting the violation of right against exploitation:
(i) A petition was filed in the Madras High Court, the petitioner said a large number of children aged between 7 and 12 were taken from villages in Salem district and sold at auctions at Olur Nagar in Kerala’s Thrissur district. The petitioner requested the courts to order the government to check these facts.

(ii) Children, from the age of five, were employed in the iron ore mines in the Hospet, Sandur and the Ikal areas in Karnataka. Children were forced to carry out digging, breaking stones, loading, dumping, transporting and processing of iron ore with no safety equipment, fixed wages and working hours. They handled a high-level of toxic wastes and were exposed to mine dust, which was above the permissible level. The school dropout rate in the region was very high. [March 2005]

(iii) The latest annual survey conducted by the National sample survey organisation found that the number of female child labourers was growing both in rural and urban areas. The survey revealed there were 41 female child labourers per thousand worker population in rural areas as against the previous figure of 34 per thousand. The figure for male child had remained at 31.
Answer:
Chief Justice
Tees Hazari District Court,
Delhi – 110006
Sub: Violation of right against exploitation.
Sir,
According to the various newspaper reports the children aged between 7 to 12 were forced to work in mines to carryout digging, breaking stones, loading, dumping, transporting and processing of metals. They are still sold at auction. This is an age when they are supposed to study instead they are working to fulfil their family needs. Thus, I want to drag your attention to c heck these facts and take proper action.

Petitioner

Questions of Unni & Munni (Page No. 84-85)

Question 1.
The constitution does not give people their religion. Then how can it give people the right to practice their religion?
Answer:
In a secular democracy, the people are free to choose and practice any religion of their choice. This is their fundamental right which gives them freedom to follow any religion.

Question 2.
Can the President of India stop you from approaching the Supreme Court to secure your fundamental rights?
Answer:
No, the President of India cannot stop us from approaching the Supreme Court to secure our fundamental rights.

Activity (Page No. 84)

Question 3.
Do you know that the minimum wages in your state are? If not, can you find out ? Speak to five people doing different types of work in your neighbourhood and find out if they are earning the minimum wages or not. Ask them if men and women are getting the same wages.
Answer:
The minimum wages in our state is? 225-00 per day. In my neighborhood, five people doing different types of work are the following:

Name of Person	Work	Finding Minimum wages (Yes/No)
1. Aman Singh	Sweeper	Yes
2. Raj Yadav	Electrician	Yes
3. Narendra Prakash	Carpenter	Yes
4. Dipti Sagar	Labourer	Yes
5. Saurah Sinha	Labourer	Yes

Yes, they all are aware about the minimum wages. Men and women are getting the same wages in all kinds of work except construction work.

Check Your Progress (Page No. 85)

Question 1.
Read these news reports and identify the right that is being debated in each of these cases:
1. An emergency session of the Shiromani Gurudwara Parbandhak Committee (SGPC) rejected the proposal to form a separate body to manage the affairs of sikh shrines in Haryana. It warned the government that the sikh community would not tolerate any interference in their religious affairs.

2. The Allahabad High Court quashed the Central law, which gave Aligarh Muslim University its minority status and held illegal the reservation of seats for Muslims in its postgraduate medical courses. The Rajasthan Government has decided to enact an anti-conversion law. Christian leaders have said that the. Bill would aggravate the sense of insecurity and fear in the minds of minorities.
Answer:

1. Right to Freedom of Religion.
2. Right to Equality.
3. Right to Freedom of Religion.

Activity (Page No. 87)

Question 1.
Is there a State Human Rights Commission in your state? Find out about its activities.
Answer:
Student do it yourself.

Question of Unni Munni (Page No. 87)

Question 1.
Are these rights only for adults? Which of these rights are available to children.
Answer:
No, these rights are not only for adults.
The rights available the children are – Right to live life, Right to freedom of religion, right to equality and Right to education etc.

JAC Class 9th Civics Democratic Rights Textbook Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Bihar go to Punjab to work on the farms.
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.
(c) Men and women government employees get the same salary.
(d) Parents, property is inherited by their children.
Answer:
(d) Parent’s property is inherited by their children.

Question 2.
Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Fredom to criticise the government
(b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
(c) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
(d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the constitution
Answer:
(b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution

Question 3.
Which of the following rights is available under the Indian constitution ?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to adequate livelihood
(c) Right to protect one’s culture
(d) Right to privacy
Answer:
(c) Right to protect one’s culture

Question 4.
Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following rights falls:
(a) Freedom to propagate one’s religion
(b) Right to life
(c) Abolition of untouchability
(d) Ban on bonded labour
Answer:
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right against exploitation

Question 5.
Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid? Give reasons for your preference.
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy.
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy.
Answer:
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens Reasons for preference:

1. According to the definition of democracy, it is for the people, thus citizens’ rights are
   protected in a democracy.
2. The main principle of democracy is an equality. Thus, in democracy the place for
   equality and development of citizen is definite.

Question 6.
Are these restrictions on the right to freedom justified ? Give reasons for your answer.
(a) Indian citizens need permission to visit some border areas of the country for reasons of security.
(b) Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in sgme areas to protect the interest of the local population.
(c) The government bans the publication of a book that can go against the ruling party in the next elections.
Answer:
(a) Statement (a) is justified on the right to freedom. If the government imposes a ban on people moving to some sensitive border areas, then it is all right. Because it not only threatens the security of the person concerned but by taking advantage of it, people involved in anti-national activities can also exchange information with enemies. Also, such freedom can encourage illegal trade and infiltration across the border.

(b) Statement (b) is justified on the right to freedom. Citizens also have the freedom to settle anywhere in the country under the freedom given by the constitution, but if the government decides in the interest of the local people that an outsider can not buy property in a particular area then it is only fair. This is done by the government to maintain the special cultural identity of the people there.

(c) No, it is not justified on the right to freedom. People have the freedom to express their views under the constitution and the book is a medium for expressing their views. The condition is that such view should not be anti-social or anti-national. But if the government been the publication of a book only for the reason that it is against his party or it may have an impact on the ruling party in the next elections, then it is wrong. This violates a person’s right to freedom.

Question 7.
Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA Course. The clerk refused to take his applications and said “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager. Has anyone done this job in your community ? Go to the municipality office and apply for a sweeper’s position.” Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance ? Spell these out in a letter from Manoj to the district collector.
Answer:
1. In, this instance following fundamental rights of Manoj are being violated:
(a) Right to equality and
(b) Right to freedom

2. The District Collector Agra, (U. P.)
Sub: Redressal required of violation of my right to equality for admission in a college.
Sir
I wish to inform you that my admission for pursuing a course leading to the MBA degree in D.B. college, farah in your district has been refused because the clerk of the college said, “you are the son of a sweeper. Np body from your community has done such a course,” This is totally unjust and a violation of my Right to Equality.

I am fully qualified to apply for the course, having already completed my graduation. You are requested to look into this matter and talk to the authorities of the concerned college to accept my application.
Tliank you.

Sincerely yours,
Manoj.

Question 8.
When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the Registrar told her, “You can’t write your name as Madhurima Baneijee d/o A. K. Banerjee. You are married, so you must give your husband’s flame. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to Madhurima Rao.” She did not agreelShe said “If my husband’s name has not changed after marriage. Why should mine?” In your opinion who is right in this dispute? And Why?
Answer:
After her marriage, a woman has a right either to retain her maiden name alongwith the surname of her parents or she can change her maiden surname by her husband’s surname. In my opinion Madhurima is right in this dispute.

Question 9.
Thousands of tribals and other forest dweller gathered at Piparia in Hoshangabad district in Madhya Pradesh to protest against their proposed displacement from the Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Panchmarhi wildlife sanctuary. They argue that such a displacement is an attack on their livelihood and beliefs.

Government claims that their displacement is essential for the development of the area and for protection of wildlife. Write a petition on behalf of the forest dweller’s to the NHRC, a response from the government and a report of the NHRC on this matter.
Answer:
1. A petition on behalf of the forest dwellers to the NHRC.
Commissioner
National Human Rights Commission,
New Delhi,
Subject: In relation to displacements.
Sir,
This petition is concerned to the displacement from Satpura National Park, Bori wildlife sanctuary and Panchmarhi wildlife sanctuary. It is a matter of suffering for livelihood and beliefs. Our ancestors live in jungle and worship their Forest God’ and ‘mountains’ but we cannot not continue it due to our displacement. Please enquire the matter and then take a decision.

Petitioner,
Tribal people.

2. A response from the government A Public Information
This is to inform the people living in Satpura National Park, Bori wildlife sanctuary and Panchmarhi wildlife sanctuary that their displacement is necessary due to following reasons:

1. It is necessary for the development of these areas.
2. If these people live here continuously then it is difficult to save the endangered species of this region.
3. It is essential to save the nature and wildlife for the future generations.

3. A report of National Human Rights Commission:
The Madhya Pradesh Government should clarify the following points in order to fulfil the sufficient recovery amount:

1. The houses of forest dwellers should be premade and distributed fairly.
2. All tribal people should be provided loan on minimum interest to set up new business.
3. They all should be provided an adequate training to start the small scale industries.

Question 10.
Draw a web interconnecting different rights discussed in this chapter. For example, right to freedom of movement is connected to the freedom of occupation. One reason for this is that freedom of movement enables a person to go to place of work within one’s village or city or to another village, city or state. Similarly this right can be used for pillgrimage, connected with freedom to follow one’s religion. Draw a circle for each right and mark arrows that show connection between or among different rights. For each arrow give an example that shows, the linkage.
Answer:

JAC Class 9 Social Science Solutions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Working of Institutions

JAC Class 9th Civics Working of Institutions InText Questions and Answers 

Activity (Page No. 58)

Question 1.
Which points, other than the ones mentioned above, do you recall about these institutions from the previous class? Discuss in class.
Answer:
Student do it yourself.

Question 2.
Can you think of a major decision made by your state government ? How were the Governor, the Council of Minister, the State Assembly and the courts involved in that decision?
Answer:
Student do it yourself.

Questions of Unni & Munni (Page No. 58)

Question 1.
Is every office Memorandum a major political decision? If not, what made this one different?
Answer:
No, every office Memorandum is not a major political decision. The special thing in this government order is that 27% reservation was provided to socially backward classes in government posts and services of the government of India through this order.

Question 2.
Now I can see clearly! That is why they talk of Mandalisation of politics. Don’t they? Answer:Yes, they talk of Mandalisation of politics.

Read the Cartoon (Page No. 59)

Question 1.
Reservation debate was such an important issue during 1990-91 that advertisers use this theme to sell their products. Can you spot some references to political events and debates in these Amul butter hoardings?
Answer:
‘Amul -the riot taste’ refers to the riots which took place when the reservation quota was made into a law. ‘Reserved for this outstanding Butter Classic’ which again refers to the reservation issue.

Check Your Progress (Page No. 60)

Question 1.
Who did what in this case of reservations for backward classes?

1. Supreme court	(a) Made formal announcement about this decision
2. Cabinet	(b) Implemented the decision by issuing an order
3. President	(c) Took the decision to give 27% job reservation
4.  Government Officials	(d) Upheld reservations as valid.

Answer:

1.Supreme court	(d) Upheld reservations as valid.
2. Cabinet	(c) Took the decision to give 27% job reservation
3. President	(a) Made formal announcement about this decision
4. Government Officials	(b) Implemented the decision by issuing an order

Questions of Unni & Munni (Page No. 60)

Question 1.
Which institutions are at work in the running of your school ? Would it be better if one person alone took all the decisions regarding management of your school?
Answer:

1. School Management Committee and Parents – Teachers Association both are at work in the running of my school.
2. No, it would not be better if one person alone took all the decisions regarding the management of our school.

Activity (Page No. 62)

Question 1.
When the Parliament is in session, there is a special programme everyday on Doordarshan about the proceedings in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Watch the proceedings or read about it in the newspapers and note the following :
1. Powers of the two Houses of Parliament.
2. Role of the Speaker.
3. Role of the Opposition.
Answer:
1. Powers of the two houses of Parliament:
The Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people these enjoys the real powers on the behalf of people. The other house, i.e., the Rajya Sabha is indirectly elected by the people thus this House looks after the interests of various states, regions or federal units. The consent of both houses is required for passing any bill, making a law or making amendments to the constitution.

2. Role of the Speaker:
(a) He regulates the proceedings and debates in the House.
(b) He maintains the discipline in the House.
(c) He presides over its meetings.
(d) He puts questions to vote and exercises the casting of votes, in case of a tie.
(e) Supervises parliamentary conmittees.

3. Role of the Opposition:
(a) Opposition provides an opportunity to choose option.
(b) It highlights the mistakes done by government. ‘
(c) It forms the coalition government and always ready to withdraw the ruling party from the government.

Questions of Unni & Munni (Page No. 62)

Question 1.
What is the point in having so much debate and discussion in the Parliament when we know that the view of the ruling party is going to prevail?
Answer:
There is a need for so much dabate and discussion in parliament as positive and negative points related to many subjects are raised at the time of debate and discussion. Only then a decision is taken. Apart from this, people get information related to the subject on which the decision is to be taken and the general public also gets an opportunity to convey their views or objections to the ruling party.

Read the Cartoon (Page No. 65)

Question 1.
The race to become minister is not new. Here is a cartoon depicting ministerial aspirants waiting to get a berth in Nehru’s Cabinet after the 1962 elections. Why do you think political leaders are so keen to become ministers?
Answer:
Ministership is a position of power and influence. Political representation is all about acquiring position of power and influence. Once a person gets elected as people’s representative, he aspires to be appointed as a minister. It is the privilege of the Prime Minister to appoint any person as a minister.

Read the Cartoon (Page No. 66)

Question 1.
This cartoon depicts a cabinet meeting chaired by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in early 1970s, at the peak of her popularity. Do you think similar cartoons could be drawn about other Prime Ministers who followed her?
Answer:
The period after Indira Gandhi is the period of coalition politics. The rise of coalition politics has imposed certain constraints on the power of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister of a coalition government cannot take decisions as he likes. He has to accommodate different groups and functions in his party as well as among alliance partners. Thus, similar cartoons could not be drawn about other Prime Ministers.

Activity (Page No. 66)

Question 1.
List the names of five Cabinet Ministers and their ministries each at the Union level
Answer:
(a) The names of five cabinet ministers and their ministries at the union level are given below and in your state.

Name	Ministries (portfolios)
1. Rajnath Singh	Ministry of Defence
2. Amit Shah	Ministry of Home Affairs
3. Nirmala Sitharaman	Ministry of Finance, Ministry of Corporate Affairs
4. Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar	Ministry of External Affairs
5. Piyush Goyal	Ministry of Railways, Ministry of Commerce and Industry

(b) The names of five cabinet ministers and their ministries at the state level (Rajasthan) are given below.

Name	Ministries (portfolios)
1. Vishvendra Singh	Ministry of Tourism, Ministry of Devasthan.
2. Raghu Sharma	Ministry of Medical & Health Services. Ministry of Informa¬tion & Public Relation.
3. Shanti Dhariwal	Ministry of Law & Legal Affairs and Legal Consultancy Office Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
4. Parsadi Lai Meena	Ministry of Industry, Ministry of State Enterprise
5. Pratap Singh	Ministry of Transport

Question 2.
Meet the Mayor or Municipal chairperson of your town or the President of Zila Parishad of your district and ask him/her about how the city, town or district is administered.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Questions of Unni & Munni (Page No. 67)

Question 1.
Why does this book refer to the President as ‘she’? Have we ever had a woman President in our country?
Answer:

1. The book refers to the president as she shows that the highest office in India can also be occupied by a woman.
2. Yes, we have had a woman president in our country. Pratibha Devi Singh Patil has been the only woman president of our country. She served as the 12th president (July 2007 to july 2012) in our country.

Question 2.
Did you protest when the book referred to the Prime Minister as “he’ ? Have we not had a women Prime Minister? Why should we assume that all the important positions are held by men ?
Answer:

1. No, I did not protest because recently we have a male Prime Minister.
2. Of course, we had a woman Prime Minister earliar, i.e., Indira Gandhi.
3. We should not assume that all important positions are held by men, women too can occupy high positions.

Question of Unni & Munni(page 68)

Question 1.
What is better for a democracy: A Prime Minister who can do whatever he wishes or a Prime Minister who needs to consult other leaders and parties?
Answer:
A Prime Minister has freedom of taking decisions but he should also seek the consultation of other leaders and parties on important issues would be a better Prime Minister for a democracy.

Check Your Progress (Page No. 68)

Question 1.
Eliamma, Annakutti and Marymol read the section on the President. Each of them had a question. Can you help them in answering these questions?

1. Eliamma:
What happens if the President and the Prime Minister disagree about some policy? Does the view of the Prime Minister always prevail?

2. Annakutti:
I find it funny that the President is the supreme commander of armed forces. I doubt if the President can even lift a heavy gun. What is the point in making the President the Commander?

3. Marymol:
I would say, what is the point in having a President at all if all the real powers are with the Prime Minister?
Answer:
1. (a) In the event of no consensus between the president and the Prime Minister on a policy, the view of the Prime Minister will always be prevail. He should get majority support on it.

(b) If the Prime Minister loses majority support in parliament, then in such a situation the president is free to take a decision at his discretion. He can also sack the government it he wants.

2. The president has the power of a pen, not a weapon, which he commands, while the heads of the three wings of the armies have weapons with which they obey the order. The weapon has less power than a pen. The president gets most of the information related to the security of the country through the cabinet. Therefore it is appropriate to make the president the commander of the armed forces, with this, the public has indirect control over the armed forces.

3. The president represents the supreme power of the country many times in serious circumstances, the president himself decides in the national interest by exercising real powers. He can exercise his rights when required. For example when a Prime Minister loses his majority in parliament, the real powers at the executive are exercised by the president. In the absence of this post. In such a situation the possibility of anarchy in the country may arise.

Read the Image (Page No. 69)

Question 1.
It is quite common in the US for judges to be nominated on the basis of well-known political opinions and affiliations. This fictitious advertisement appeared in the US in 2005 when President Bush was considering various candidates for nomination to the US Supreme Court?
1. What does this cartoon say about the independence of the judiciary?
2. Why do such cartoons not appear in our country?
3. Does this demonstrate the independence of our judiciary?
Answer:
1. The given cartoon shows that in the appointment of judges in the US supreme court their political views and their thinking towards the party are based. If a person is associated with the president in whether or not he has the requisite qualifica¬tions and experience, he can be appointed as a judge. Therefore it can be said that the judiciary in the united states does not function impartially.

2. Such cartoons did not appear in our country because the indian judiciary is one of the most independent and impartial judiciary in the world. The judges of supreme court of India or High Court etc. never say a word in praise of the ruling or other political parties or in praise of the Prime Minister or the president. They have no meaning with political ideologies.

3. Yes, this demonstrates the independence of our judiciary.

Activity (Page No. 69)

Question 1.
Follow the news about any major court case in a High Court or the Supreme Court. What was the original verdict? Did the High Court or the Supreme Court change it? What was the reason?
Answer:
Student do it yourself.

Questions of Unni & Munni (Page No. 70)

Question 1.
Why are people allowed to go to courts against the government’s decisions?
Answer:
The citizens have a right to approach the courts to seek remedy in case of any violation of their rights.

Check Your Progress (Page No. 70)

Question 1.
Give one reason each to argue that Indian judiciary is independent with respect to:
1. Appointment of judges,
2. Removal of judges,
3. Powers of the judiciary.
Answer:
1. The judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts are appointed by the President of India, on the recommendation of the Prime Minister and in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Seniority and merit are the main basis for appointment of judges and judges are chosen on this basis.

2. A judge can be removed only by an impeachment motion passed separately by two thirds members of the two Houses of the Parliament. Once a person is appointed as judge it is nearly impossible to remove him or her from that position.

3. The supreme court has the power to declare illegal any law made by parliament if it goes against the constitution. The judiciary when brought before it, can investigate any action of the executive in relation to’its constitutionality.

JAC Class 9th Civics Working of Institutions Textbook Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own ?
(a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in Lok Sabha.
(c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
(d) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of Ministers.
Answer:
(c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

Question 2.
Who among the following is a part of the political executive?
(a) District collector
(b) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Home Minister
(d) Director General of Police
Answer:
(c) Home Minister

Question 3.
Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?
(a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court.
(b) Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against the spirit of the constitution.
(c) Judiciary is independent of the Executive.
(d) Any citizen can approach the courts if her rights are violated.
Answer:
(a) Every It v passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court.

Question 4.
Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?
(a) The Supreme ourt
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament
Answer:
(d) The Parliament

Question 5.
Match the ministry with the news that the ministry may have released.

(a) A new policy is being made to increase the jute exports from the country.	1. Ministry of Defence
(b) Telephone services will be made more accessible to rural areas.	2. Ministry of Health
(c) The price of rice and wheat sold under the Public Distribution system will go down.	3. Ministry of Agriculture, Food and Public Distribution
(d) A pulse polio campaign will be launched.	4. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(e) The allowances of the soldiers posted on	5. Ministry of Communication and high altitudes will be increased. Information Technology

Answer:

(a) A new policy is being made to increase the jute exports from the country.	4. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(b) Telephone services will be made more accessible to rural areas.	5. Ministry of Communication and high altitudes will be increased. Information Technology
(c) The price of rice and wheat sold under the Public Distribution system will go down.	3. Ministry of Agriculture, Food and Public Distribution
(d) A pulse polio campaign will be launched.	2. Ministry of Health
(e) The allowances of the soldiers posted on	1. Ministry of Defence

Question 6.
Of all the institutions that we have studied in this chapter, name the one that exercises the powers on each of the following matters:
(a) Decision on allocation of money for developing infrastructure like roads, irrigation, etc., and different welfare activities for the citizens.
(b) Considers the recommendation of a committee on a law to regulate the stock exchange.
(c) Decides on a legal disputes between two state governments.
(d) Implements the decision to provide relief for the victims of an earthquake.
Answer:
(a) Parliament,

(b) Parliament,

(c) The Judiciary,

(d) Executive.

Question 7.
Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the people? Choose the most appropriate answer and give reasons for your choice.
(a) In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.
(b) Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Minister and the Council of Minister even before the expiry of their term.
(c) Since the Prime Minister is appointed by the President there is no need for it.
(d) Direct election of the Prime Minister will involve lot of expenditure on election.
Answer:
The most appropriate answer is option ‘(a)’. Reason The Indian constitution provides for a system of parliamentary democracy. In which it is arranged that the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha will be naminated as the Prime Minister by the President, rather than directly electing the Prime Minister.

Question 8.
Three friends went to watch a film that showed the hero becoming Chief Minister for a day and making big changes in the state. Imran said this is what the country needs. Rizwan said this kind of a personal rule without institutions is dangerous. Shankar said all this is a fantasy. No minister can do anything in one day. What would be your reaction to such a film?
Answer:
My reaction about such film would be as follows film is based on both idealism and actual situation. The problems shown in the film are real but solutions mentioned are baxed, on the ideal, but all the work done by the hero playing the role of chief minister is within the limits of the institution. The hero is shown to be acting impractically as the chief minister. But if it can actually happen, then it is true. Our country needs similar leaders at this time.

Question 9.
A teacher was making preparations for a mock parliament. She called two students to act as leaders of two political parties. She gave them an option : Each one could choose to have a majority either in the mock Lok Sabha or in the mock Rajya Sabha. If this choice was given to you, which one would you choose and why?
Answer:
If such an option is presented to me, then I will accept the option of the leader of the majority party of the Lok Sabha because Lok Sabha is more powerful than Rajya Sabha. all decisions are taken by the Lok Sabha itself. Apart from this the leader of this house is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha and the person who has a majority in the Lok Sabha is appointed Prime Minister by the Presidents and his government is formed.

Question 10.
After reading the example of the reservation order, three sutdents had different reactions about the role of the judiciary. Which view, according to you, is a correct reading of the role of judiciary?
(a) Srinivas argues that since the Supreme Court agreed with the government, it is not independent.

(b) Anjaiah says that judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it.

(c) Vijaya thinks that the judiciary is neither independent nor conformist, but acts as a mediator between opposing parties. The court struck a good balance between those who supported and those who opposed the order.
Answer:
(b) The view of Anjaiah is correct regarding of the role of the judiciary.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Solutions

JAC Board Class 9th Science Important Questions Chapter 11 Work and Energy

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The gravitational potential energy of an object is due to
(a) it’s mass
(b) its acceleration due to gravity
(c) its height above the earth’s surface
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 2.
The unit of work is the joule. The other physical quantity that has the same unit is
(a) power
(b) velocity
(c) energy
(d) force
Answer:
(c) energy

Question 3.
If the velocity of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy
(a) gets doubled
(b) becomes half
(c) does not change
(d) becomes 4 times
Answer:
(d) becomes 4 times

Question 4.
A student carries a bag weighing 5 kg from the ground floor to his class on the first floor that is 2 m high. The work done by the boy is
(a) 1J
(b) 10J
(c) 100J
(d) 1000J
Answer:
(c) 100J

Question 5.
How much time will be required to perform 520 J of work at the rate of 20 W?
(a) 24s
(b) 16s
(c) 20s
(d) 26s
Answer:
(d) 26s

Question 6.
A body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of lm. Its kinetic energy as it touches the ground is
(a) 19.6N
(b) 19.6J
(c) 9.8m
(d) 9.8J
Answer:
(b) 19.6J

Question 7.
The unit of power is
(a) watt per second
(b) joule
(c) kilojoule
(d) joule per second
Answer:
(d) joule per second

Question 8.
A coolie carries a load of 500 N to a distance of 100 m. The work done by him is
(a) 5 Nm
(b) 50,000 Nm
(c) 0 Nm
(d) 1/5 N m
Answer:
(c) 0 Nm

Question 9.
Power is a measure of the
(a) rate of change of momentum
(b) force which produces motion
(c) change of energy
(d) rate of change of energy
Answer:
(d) rate of change of energy

Question 10.
If the speed of an object is doubled, its kinetic energy is
(a) doubled
(b) quadrupled
(c) halved
(d) tripled
Answer:
(b) quadrupled

Question 11.
Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Energy is the ability of doing work
(b) Work can be expressed as F × s
(c) Unit of power is joule
(d) Power is the amount of work done per unit of time
Answer:
(d) Power is the amount of work done per unit of time

Question 12.
kW h is the unit of
(a) acceleration
(b) work
(c) power
(d) energy
Answer:
(c) power

Question 13.
Considering air resistance negligible, the sum of potential and kinetic energies of a free falling body would be
(a) zero
(b) increasing
(c) decreasing
(d) fixed
Answer:
(d) fixed

Question 14.
Two bodies of masses m] and m2 have equal kinetic energies. If P₁ and P₂ are their respective momenta, the ratio of P₁ to P₂ is
(a) m₁ : m₂
(b) m₂ : m₁
(c) \(\sqrt{\mathrm{m}_{1}} : \sqrt{\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)
(d) \(m_{1}^{2} : m_{2}^{2}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{\mathrm{m}_{1}} : \sqrt{\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)

Question 15.
A light and a heavy body have equal momenta Which one has greater kinetic energy?
(a) The lighter body
(b) The heavier body
(c) Both have same KE
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) The heavier body

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 16.
A car is accelerated on a levelled road and attains a velocity four times of its initial velocity. In this process the potential energy of the car
(a) does not change
(b) becomes twice to that of initial
(c) becomes 4 times that of intial
(d) becomes 16 times that of initial
Answer:
(a) does not change

Question 17.
An iron sphere of mass 10 kg has the same diameter as an aluminium sphere of mass 3.5 kg. Both spheres are dropped simultaneously from a tower. When they are 10 m above the ground, they have the same
(a) acceleration
(b) momenta
(c) potential energy
(d) kinetic energy
Answer:
(a) acceleration

Question 18.
A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on her back and moves 200 m on a levelled road. The work done against the gravitational force will be (g = 10 m^-2)
(a) 6 × 10³J
(b) 6J
(c) 0.6J
(d) zero
Answer:
(d) zero

Assertion Reason Questions

Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions and the Reasons have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both the statements are false.
1. Assertion: Work, the product of force and displacement, is a vector quantity.
Reason: Product of two vector quantities is always a vector quantity.
Answer:
(D) Both the statements are false.

2. Assertion: When a book is moved from a table to the top of an almirah, its potential energy increases.
Reason: Higher the height of a body from the ground level, higher is its potential energy.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: A person carrying a suitcase on his head is not doing any work. Reason: The force applied by the person is acting in the downward direction.
Answer:
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

4. Assertion: The work done by the force of gravity on the moon revolving around the earth is zero.
Reason: The gravitational force and the displacement of moon are at right angles to each other.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

5. Assertion: Work done on an object can be positive, negative or zero.
Reason: Work done is a scalar quantity.
Answer:
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define work.
Answer:
Work is said to be done when a force applied on a body produces a displacement of the body. It is given by W = F x s where ‘F’ is the force applied and ‘s’ is the displacement caused.

Question 2.
State reason why work is a scalar quantity.
Answer:
Work is the product of force (F) and displacement (s). Since both F and s are vector quantities and the dot product of vector quantities produces a scalar quantity, therefore, work is a scalar quantity.

Question 3.
Name two kinds of potential energies.
Answer:
Gravitational potential energy and elastic potential energy.

Question 4.
If the work done is 20J and displacement is 2m, find the force applied.
Answer:
Given, W = 20J and s = 2m.
W = F × s
20 = F × 2
F= 10 N

Question 5.
Name the energy stored in a rubber band when it is stretched?
Answer:
On stretching a rubber band, potential energy is stored in it.

Question 6.
State the law of conservation of energy.
Answer:
It states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only change its form.

Question 7.
When a book is lifted from a table, against which force is the work done?
Answer:
Work is done against the force of gravity.

Question 8.
Define the commercial unit of energy.
Answer:
The commercial unit of energy is kW h (kilowatt hour). 1 kW h is the energy used in one hour at the rate of 1000 J per second.
1 kWh = 1 kW × 1 h = 3.6 × 10⁶j

Question 9.
A light and a heavy body have equal kinetic energies. Which one is moving faster?
Answer:
The lighter body is moving faster because for the same kinetic energy, velocity is inversely proportional to the mass.
Analysing & Evaluating Question uestions

Question 10.
Two objects of same mass are placed at positions A and B as shown in the figure. Both of them are raised to the position C. In which case, the potential energy is more?
Answer:
The object at A will gain more potential energy than the object at B. But the final potential energy of both A and B will be equal when raised to position C.

Question 11.
A rocket is moving up with a velocity v. If the velocity of this rocket is suddenly tripled, what will be the ratio of the itwo kinetic energies?
Answer:
K.E. °c (velocity)²
When the velocity is tripled, K.E. increases by a factor of 9 ( = 3²)
Thus, the ratio of the two kinetic energies is 1 : 9.

Question 12.
Can any object have momentum even if its mechanical energy is zero? Explain.
Answer:
No. Zero mechanical energy means no potential energy and no kinetic energy. Zero kinetic energy means, zero velocity. As a result, momentum is also zero (as P = mv).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Calculate the work done by a man in rotating a wheel of an amusement slide in a fair 40 times in 1 minute?
Answer:
The man is rotating the wheel of an amusement slide by just standing at a place. This concludes that the wheel is not undergoing any displacement. Since displacement is zero, therefore, work done is zero.

Question 2.
Define positive work done and negative work done.
Answer:

1. Positive work (done: Work done is positive when the displacement occurs in the direction of force.
2. Negative work done: Work done is negative when the displacement occurs opposite to the direction of force.

Question 3.
In which of the following cases, work is said to be done?
1. When we push a table and the table is displaced.
2. When a person holds a book in his hand and keeps it stationary.
3. When a wire is twisted.

Answer:

1. When we push a table and the force applied by us is large enough to move it from its original position, then work is said to be done.
2. When a person holds a book in his hand and keeps it stationary, there occurs no movement of the book. In this case, though a force is constantly being applied, there is no displacement and hence work done is zero.
3. When a wire is twisted, the shape of the wire changes which concludes that work is done as there occurred changes in the configuration of the wire.

Question 4.
What will be the nature of work done when the force acting on a body retards its motion? Justify your answer by quoting examples.
Answer:
When force retards the motion of a body, the motion is stopped, i.e., a force opposite to the direction of the motion is applied. Thus, a negative work is done by the force.
For example:

1. In tug of war, the work done by the losing team is negative.
2. When a ball is thrown up in the air, the gravitational force acting downwards upon the ball does negative work on the ball.

Question 5.
What is gravitational potential energy?
Answer:
The gravitational potential energy of an object at a point above the ground
is defined as the work done in raising an object from the ground to that point against gravity.
G_PE = mgh

Question 6.
Differentiate between potential energy and kinetic energy.
Answer:

Potential Energy	Kinetic Energy
(a) Energy possessed by a body due to its position, shape or configuration.	(a) Energy possessed by a body due to its motion.
(b) P.E. = mgh where, m = mass, g = acceleration due to gravity, h = height.	(b) K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 where, m = mass, v = velocity.

Question 7.
State two situations where energy is supplied but no work is done.
Answer:
(a) A person pushing a heavy rock is using all the energy but if the rock does not move, no work is done, (b) A person standing with heavy load on his head is spending energy in doing this, but no work is done.

Question 8.
How are work and energy related to each other?
Answer:
An object having a capability to do work is said to possess energy. The object which does work loses energy and the object on which work is done, gains energy. The unit of both energy and work is joule.

Question 9.
On what factor does the gravitational potential energy depend?
Answer:
Gravitational potential energy depends on the height of object from the ground level zero level we choose. Example: A ball tossed from the second floor of a building will attain a height, say h, from its roof, but from the first floor its height will be h ‘where h > h’.
Hence, the potential energy of the ball on the first floor level is less as compared to that on the second floor.

Question 10.
Write the form of energy possessed by the body in the following situations:
(a) A coconut falling from tree
(b) An object raised to a certain height
(c) Blowing wind
(d) A child driving a bicycle on the road
Answer:
(a) Kinetic energy + Potential energy
(b) Potential energy
(c) Kinetic energy
(d) Kinetic energy

Question 11.
What is energy? Give the unit of energy. Name the different forms of energy.
Answer:
Energy of a body is defined as its capacity or ability to do work. When a body is capable of doing more work, it is said to possess more energy.
The SI unit of energy is joule (J).
Energy has many forms: potential energy, kinetic energy, heat energy, chemical energy, electrical energy, light energy, solar energy, etc.

Question 12.
Derive an equation for kinetic energy of an object?
Answer:
The kinetic energy of a body can be determined by calculating the amount of work required to set the body into motion with the velocity ‘v’ from its state of rest. Suppose,
m = mass of the body
u = 0 = initial velocity of the body
F = force applied on the body
a = acceleration produced in the body in
the direction of force
v = final velocity of the body
s = distance covered by the body
As v² – u² = 2as
= v² – 0² = 2as
a= \(\frac{v^{2}}{2 s}\)
As the force and displacement are in the same direction, the work done on the body is
W = Fs = mas = m \( \frac{\mathrm{v}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{~s}}\)s = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
This work done appears as the kinetic energy of the body.
∴ KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²

Question 13.
Derive an equation for potential energy?
Answer:
Let the work done on the object against gravity be W.
Work done, W = force × displacement
Work done, W = mg × h
Work done, W = mgh
Since work done on the object is equal to mgh, an energy equal to mgh units is gained by the object. This is the potential energy (E_p) of the object.
E_p = mgh

Question 14.
An electric heater of 1000 W is used for 2 hours a day. What is the cost of using it for a month of 28 days, if 1 unit costs ₹ 3.00?
Answer:
Here, P = 1000W = lkW
Total time, t = 2 × 28 hours = 56 hours
Total energy consumed = P × t
= 1 kW × 56 h = 56 kW h
Cost of 1 kWh = ₹ 3.00
Cost of 56 kWh = 3 × 56 = ₹ 168.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 15.
Two identical pointed objects made from iron and wood are allowed to fall on a heap of sand from the same height. The iron object penetrates more in sand than the wooden object. Which of the objects has more potential energy?
Answer:
Of the two identical objects, the one made from iron will have greater mass. So when it falls from a height, it will possess greater kinetic energy as compared to the wooden object. As a result,
(a) the iron object will penetrate more in sand.
(b) the iron object will have more potential energy.

Question 16.
The weight of a person on a planet A is about half that on the earth. He can jump upto 0.4 m height on the surface of the earth. How high can he jump on the planet A?
Answer:
The weight of a person on planet A is about half that on the earth. This means, the acceleration due to gravity of the planet A is half that of the earth. So, Height of the jump on the surface of planet A = \(\frac{0.4 \mathrm{~m}}{1 / 2}\) = 0.8 m

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is work done measured when a body moves in a direction inclined to the direction of the applied force?
Answer:
In the figure, a force F pulls a block making angle 0 with the horizontal surface. Under this force, suppose the block moves from position A to B after covering a distance ‘s’.

Let, F₁ = Component of force in the direction of displacement ‘s’
Then, \(\frac{F_{1}}{F}\) = cos θ or F₁ = F cos θ
Work done = Component of force in the direction of displacement × displacement
W = F₁ × s = F cos θ x s
W = Fs cos θ
Special cases:
(a) When θ = 0°,
cos θ = 1 and W = Fs
Thus, work done is maximum when the displacement of the body is along the direction of the force.

(b) When θ = 90°,
cos θ = 0 and W = 0
Thus, work done is zero when the displacement of the body is perpendicular to the direction of force.

(c) When θ = 180°,
cos θ = -1 and W = – Fs
Thus, work done is negative when displacement is opposite to the direction of force.

(d) When s = 0, W = 0 Thus, work done on a stationary body is zero.

Question 2.
What is meant by potential energy of a body? Give some examples.
Answer:
The energy possessed by a body by the virtue of its position, shape or configuration is called its potential energy.

1. Examples of P.E. due to position:
   • Water stored in a dam at a height has potential energy.
   • A stone lying on the roof of the building has potential energy.
2. Examples of P.E. due to shape:
   • In a toy car, the wound spring possesses potential energy. As the spring is released, its potential energy changes into kinetic energy which moves the toy car.
   • Energy possessed by a stretched rubber band is potential energy.
3. Example of P.E. due to configuration:
   • A stretched bow possesses potential energy. As soon as it is released, it shoots the arrow in the forward direction with a large velocity.
   • The potential energy of the stretched bow gets converted into the kinetic energy of the arrow.
     

Question 3.
A 100 W electric bulb is lighted for 2 hours every day and five 40 W tubes are lighted for 4 hours every day. Calculate:
(a) the energy consumed for 60 days and
(b) the cost of electricity consumed at the rate of ₹3 per kW h.
Answer:
(a) Energy consumed by a 100 W bulb each day = 100 W × 2 h
= 200 Wh = \(\frac{200}{1000}\)= 0.2 kW h
Energy consumed by five 40 W tubes each day = 5 × 40 W × 4h
= 800 Wh = \(\frac{800}{1000}\) = 0.8 kW h
Total energy consumed each day = 0.2 + 0.8 = 1.0 kWh
Total energy consumed in 60 days = 1.0 x 60 = 60 kWh

(b) Cost of 1 kW h = ₹ 3
Cost of 60 kW h = 3 × 60 = 180

Question 4.
Answer the following:
(a) List any three situations in your daily life where you can say that work has been done.
(b) How much work is done in increasing the velocity of a car from 15 km/h to 30 km/h if the mass of the car is 1000 kg?
Answer:
(a) Three situations where work is done are:

1. Pushing a pebble lying on the ground. The pebble moves through some distance. Here, we apply a force and the pebble gets displaced. So, we have done work on the pebble.
2. We apply a force to lift a book through a height. The book rises up. We have done work in moving up the book.
3. A bullock is pulling a cart and the cart moves. There is a force on the cart and the cart has moved. The bullock has done work on the cart.

(b) According to the question,
u = 15 km/h = 4 m/s
v = 30 km/h = 8 m/s
Mass = 1000 kg
W = ?
W = K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m(v² – u²)
\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 1000 × ((8)² – (4)²)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 1000 × (64 – 16)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 1000 × (675) = 24,000J
Hence, work done is 24,000J.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 5.
A boy is moving on a straight road against a frictional force of 5N. After traveling a distance of 1.5 km he forgot the correct path at a roundabout of radius 100 m. However, he moves on that circular path for one and half cycle and then he moves forward up to 2.0 km. Calculate the work done by him.
Answer:
Work done by the boy while moving on a straight road
W = F × s
W = 5N × 1.5 km
= 5 kg m s^-2 × 1500 m = 7500J
Work done during moving around circular path
= 5N × (2 × 100 m) = 1000J
Work done during moving further by
2.0 km = 5N × (2 × 1000 m) = 10,000J
Total work done by the boy = 7500J + 1000J + 10,000J
= 18500J

Activity 1

• Take a heavy ball. Drop it on a thick bed of sand. A wet bed of sand would be better. Drop the ball on the sand bed from a height of about 25 cm and observe the results.
• Repeat this activity from heights of 50 cm, lm and 1.5 m.
• Ensure that all the depressions are distinctly visible.
• Mark the depressions to indicate the height from which the ball was dropped.
• Compare their depths.

Observations

• The ball that falls from the height of 1.5 m creates the deepest depression.
• The ball that falls from the height of 50 cm creates the shallowest depression.
• Larger the height from which the ball is dropped, larger is the kinetic energy gained by the ball on reaching the ground and more is its capability of doing work.

Activity 2

1. Set up the apparatus as shown in the figure.
2. Place a wooden block of known mass in front of the trolley at a convenient fixed distance.
3. Place a known mass on the pan so that the trolley starts moving.
4. The trolley moves forward and hits the wooden block.
5. Fix a stop on the table in such a manner that the trolley stops after hitting the block. The block gets displaced.
6. Note down the displacement of the block.
7. Repeat this activity by increasing the mass on the pan. Observe, in which case is the displacement more.
   

Observations

1. The force of gravity pulls the mass in the pan in the downward direction. This force gets transferred to the trolley through the string.
2. The trolley moves and hits the block with a force.
3. The larger the mass in the pan, the larger is the force with which the trolley hits the block.
4. Consequently, larger will be the displacement and larger will be the work done. The moving trolley possess energy and hence does work on the block.

Activity 3

• Take a slinky as shown below.
• Ask a friend to hold one of its ends. You hold the other end and move away from your friend. Now, you release the slinky and observe.
  

Observations

• When released, the slinky regains its original length. The slinky has acquired potential energy due to the work done on it during stretching. On releasing, potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.
• The slinky will also acquire energy when it is compressed.

Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Apoorva saw few planter pots kept on the balcony sill of fourth floor in her building. She makes an effort and keeps all the planter pots down the sill.
1. What type of energy is present in the pot kept on the balcony sill of fourth floor?
2. If the pot falls from the fourth floor, what type of energy will be seen in the falling pot?
3. What value of Apoorva is reflected in the above act?
Answer:
1. The pot on the sill possesses potential energy.
2. The falling pot possesses both the kinetic energy and the potential energy.
3. Apporva showed the value of moral responsibility and awareness.

Question 2.
Siddharth saw a lady labourer who carried bricks on her head from one point of the construction site to the other end which was some 500 m away. He prepares a trolley for the labourer to carry the bricks to make her work easier.
1. In carrying the bricks from point A to point B on the head by the lady labourer in the construction site, is any work done by the labourer?
2. By pulling the trolley of bricks from point A to point B, is any work done?
3. What value of Siddharth is seen in the above act?
Answer:
1. In carrying the bricks from point A to point B on head by the lady, no work is said to be done.
2. By pulling the trolley of bricks, work is said to be done.
3. Siddharth showed kindness, general awareness and sympathy.

JAC Class 9 Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Science Important Questions Chapter 10 Gravitation

Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 1.
The mass of a body on moon is 40 kg. What is its weight on the earth?
(a) 240 kg
(b) 392 N
(c) 240 N
(c) 400 kg
Answer:
(b) 392 N

Question 2.
The gravitational force between two objects is
(a) attractive at large distance only
(b) attractive at small distance only
(c) attractive at all distances
(d) attractive at large distance but repulsive at small distance
Answer:
(c) attractive at all distances

Question 3.
A body of mass 1 kg is attracted by the earth with a force equal to
(a) 9.8 N
(b) 1 N
(c) 6.67 × 10¹¹ N
(d) 9.8 m/s
Answer:
(a) 9.8 N

Question 4.
The earth attracts a body with a force of 10 N. With what force does that the body attract the earth?
(a) 10N
(b) 1 N
(c) \(\frac{1}{10 \mathrm{~N}}\)
(d) 2 N
Answer:
(a) 10N

Question 5.
The SI unit of G is
(a) Nm² kg^-1
(b) Nm² kg^-2
(c) Nm² kg
(d) N^-1 m² kg^-2
Answer:
(b) Nm² kg^-2

Question 6.
The gravitational force of attraction between two bodies of 1 kg each and 1 m apart is
(a) 6.67 × 10^-11 N
(b) 6.67 × 10^-8 N
(c) 6.67 × 10¹¹ N
(d) 6.67 × 10⁸ N
Answer:
(a) 6.67 × 10^-11 N

Question 7.
The value of acceleration due to gravity near the earth’s surface is
(a) 8.9 m^-2
(b) 9.8 ms^-2
(c) 8.9 cms^-2
(d) 9.8 cms^-2
Answer:
(b) 9.8 ms^-2

Question 8.
Consider an elevator moving downwards with an acceleration a The force exerted by a passenger of mass m on the floor of the elevator is
(a) ma
(b) ma – mg
(c) mg – ma
(d) mg + ma
Answer:
(c) mg – ma

Question 9.
If the earth suddenly shrinks to half of its present size, the value of acceleration due to gravity will
(a) become twice
(b) remain unchanged
(c) become half
(d) become four times
Answer:
(d) become four times

Question 10.
The weight of a body would not be zero
(a) at the centre of the earth
(b) during a free fall of an elevator
(c) in interplanetary space
(d) on a frictionless surface
Answer:
(d) on a frictionless surface

Question 11.
Newton’s law of gravitation
(a) can be verified in a laboratory
(b) cannot be verified but is true
(c) is valid only on earth
(d) is valid only in the solar system
Answer:
(a) can be verified in a laboratory

Question 12.
10 kg weight is equal to
(a) 9.8 N
(b) 98 N
(c) 980 N
(d) \(\frac{1}{9.8}\) N
Answer:
(b) 98 N

Question 13.
The weight of a body cannot be expressed in
(a) kg wt
(b) N
(c) dyne
(d) kg
Answer:
(d) kg

Question 14.
A stone is dropped from a cliff. Its speed after it has fallen 100m is
(a) 9.8 m/s
(b) 44.2 m/s
(c) 19.8 m/s
(d) 98 m/s
Answer:
(b) 44.2 m/s

Question 15.
At which of the following locations, the value of g is the largest?
(a) On top of the Mount Everest
(b) On top of Qutub Minar
(c) At a place on the equator
(d) A camp site in Antarctica
Answer:
(d) A camp site in Antarctica

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 16.
An apple falls from a tree because of gravitational attraction between the earth and apple. If Ft is the magnitude of force exerted by the earth on the apple and F2 is the magnitude of force exerted by the apple on the earth, then
(a) F₁ is very much greater than F₂
(b) F₂ is very much greater than F₁
(c) F₁ is only a little greater than F₂
(d) F₁ and F₂ are equal
Answer:
(d) F₁ and F₂ are equal

Question 17.
An object is put one by one in three liquids having differei dnsities. The object floats with\(\frac{1}{9}\), \(\frac{2}{11}\) and \(\frac{3}{7}\) part of its volume outside dit liquid surface in liquids of densities d₁, d₂ and d₃ respectively. Which of the following is correct?
(a) d₁ > d₂ > d₃
(b) d₁ >d₂ <d₃
(c) d₁ < d₂ > d₃
(d) d₁ < d₂ < d₃
Answer:
(d) d₁ < d₂ < d₃

Question 18.
An object weighs 10N in air. When immersed fully in water, it weighs only 8N. The weight of the liquid displaced by the object will be
(a) 2 N
(b) 8 N
(c) 10 N
(d) 12
Answer:
(a) 2 N

Assertion Reason Questions

Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions and the Reasons have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both the statements are false.
1. Assertion: The law of gravitation is not applicable on the two bodies lying on the surface of the earth.
Reason: Law of gravitation is applied to celestial bodies only.
Answer:
(D) Both the statements are false.

2. Assertion: Mass of a body remains same at all the places.
Reason: Mass of a body is independent of acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: Value of acceleration due to gravity is greater at the poles than at the equator.
Reason: Distance between pole and the centre of the earth is less than the distance between the equator and the centre of the earth.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

4. Assertion: One can jump higher on the surface of the moon than on the earth. Reason: The value of g (acceleration due to gravity) on the moon is greater than that on the earth.
Answer:
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

5. Assertion: Fluids exert an upthrust on the objects immersed in them.
Reason: The upthrust is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced.
Answer:
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define the term ‘gravitation’.
Answer:
Every object in this universe attracts every other object with a force known as ‘force of gravitation’. Gravitation is the force of attraction between any two bodies in the universe.

Question 2.
Give the SI unit and value of G.
Answer:
SI unit of G = \(\frac{\mathrm{Nm}^{2}}{\mathrm{~kg} \cdot \mathrm{kg}}\) = N m² kg^-2
Its value = 6.67 × 10^-11 N m² kg^-2.

Question 3.
g = GM/R², what do the symbols in this formula denote?
Answer:
g = Acceleration due to gravity
G = Gravitational constant
M = Mass of the earth
R = Radius of the earth

Question 4.
Name the scientist who first determined the value of G experimentally.
Answer:
Henry Cavendish first determined the value of G experimentally, in the year 1778, using a sensitive balance.

Question 5.
Why is G called a universal gravitational constant’?
Answer:
The value of constant G is same for any pair of objects in the universe. Also, its value does not depend on the nature of the intervening medium. That is why constant G is called ‘universal’, whether the bodies are big or small, or whether they are celestial or terrestrial.

Question 6.
State any two properties of gravitational force.
Answer:

1. It is always attractive in nature.
2. It does not depend on the nature of the medium between the two bodies.

Question 7.
Which force is responsible for the stability of our universe?
Answer:
The force of gravitation.

Question 8.
How is ‘g’ on the surface of the earth related to ‘G’?
Answer:
g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\) = \(\frac{1.67 \times\left(1.74 \times 10^{6}\right)^{2}}{6.67 \times 10^{-11}}\)

where M = mass of the earth,
R = radius of the earth.

Question 9.
How is weight of an object related to its mass?
Answer:
Weight (w) = mass (m) × acceleration due to gravity (g).

Question 10.
What is the SI unit of pressure?
Answer:
The SI unit of pressure = N/m² = Pascal.

Question 11.
Define thrust. What is the SI unit of thrust?
Answer:
The net force exerted by a body in a particular direction is called thrust. The SI unit of thrust is newton.

Question 12.
Why does a truck or a motorbike have much wider tyres?
Answer:
A truck or a motorbike has much wider types so that the pressure exerted by it can be distributed to more surface area of the road and avoid the wear and tear of tyres.

Question 13.
In what sense does the moon fall towards the earth? Why does it not actually fall on the earth’s surface?
Answer:
At each point of its orbit, the moon falls towards the earth instead of going straight. It does not fall on the earth because it is moving in a circular orbit. The moon is kept in its circular orbit by the centripetal force provided by the force of attraction of the earth.

Question 14.
The earth attracts an apple from the tree and it falls but the earth does not appear to move towards the apple. Why?
Answer:
The mass of the earth is extremely large as compared to that of the apple. So the acceleration produced is very small as compared to that in the apple. Hence, the motion of the earth towards the apple is not noticeable.

Question 15.
What do you mean by the term ‘free fall’?
Answer:
The motion of a body under the influence of the force of gravity alone is called a ‘free fall’.

Question 16.
Suppose a planet exists whose mass and radius, both are half that of the earth. Calculate the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this planet.
Answer:
On the surface of the earth, g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
On the surface of the planet, \(g^{\prime}=\frac{G\left(\frac{M}{2}\right)}{\left(\frac{R}{2}\right)^{2}}=\frac{2 G M}{R^{2}}=2 g\)

Question 17.
Define mass of a body. What is its SI unit?
Answer:
The mass of a body represents the quantity of matter contained in the body. It gives a measure of inertia of the body. The greater the mass of a body, the greater is its inertia. The SI unit of mass is kilogram (kg).

Question 18.
Define one kilogram – weight. How many newtons are there in 1kg wt?
Answer:
One kilogram – weight (kg – wt)
= 1kg × 9.8 m/s² = 9.8 N.

Question 19.
State Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
This principle states that when a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it experiences an upward thrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 20.
A beam balance is used for measuring the mass of a body, whereas a spring balance gives the weight of a body. What is measured by a digital balance?
Answer:
Digital balance measures the weight of a body.

Question 21.
Under what conditions do the two hollow balls – one of aluminium and the other of iron, experience equal upthrust when placed in water?
Answer:
The two balls will experience equal upthrust in water when their volumes inside the water are equal.

Question 22.
The density of liquid B is greater than that of liquid A. A hydrometer is placed one by one in the two liquids. In which liquid will the hydrometer sink to the greater depth?
Answer:
The hydrometer will sink deeper in liquid A.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
During free – fall of an elevator, what is the weight of a body inside it? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
During free – fall of an elevator the apparent weight of the object becomes zero. This is because both the body and the elevator are in free fall, and have a downward acceleration of ‘g’. In this situation normal reaction on the body becomes zero. Since normal reaction is responsible for the sensation of weight in a body, the apparent weight of the body in this case becomes zero.

Question 2.
What is relative density?
Answer:
The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to that of the water at 4°C. Relative density Density of the substance Density of water at 4°C

Question 3.
Differentiate between ‘g’ and ‘G’ in tabular form.
Answer:

Acceleration due to gravity ‘g’	Universal gravitational constant ‘G’
(a) It is the acceleration acquired by a body due to earth’s gravitational pull on it.	(a) It is numerically equal to the force of attraction between two masses of 1kg each separated by a distance of 1 m.
(b) ‘g’ is not a universal constant. It is different at different places on the surface of the earth. Its value varies from one celestial body to another.	(b) ‘G’ is a universal constant and its value is same, i.e., 6.67 × 10-11 N m2 kg-2 everywhere in the universe.
(c) It is a vector quantity.	(c) It is a scalar quantity.

Question 4.
Why is it easier to swim in sea water than in river water?
Answer:
The density of sea water is high due to dissolved salts in it as compared to the density of river water. Hence, the buoyant force applied on the swimmer by the sea water is high which helps in floating and makes swimming simpler.

Question 5.
A ship made of iron does not sink but an iron nail sinks in water. Why?
Answer:
The iron nail sinks because of its high density and less buoyant force acting on it due to lesser surface area. Whereas, the surface area of a ship is greater and thus experiences a higher buoyant force. Due to this fact, a ship floats but an iron nail sinks.

Question 6.
A stone and feather are thrown from a tower. Both the objects should reach the ground at the same time but it does not happen. Give reasons.
Answer:
As per the motion of objects due to gravitational pull of the earth, both the bodies are acted upon by the same force of the earth but the stone will fall first and then the feather. Feather being lighter, experiences greater air resistance, so it will reach later.

Question 7.
The relative density of gold is 18.3. The density of water is 10³ kg/m³? What is the density of gold in S.I units?
Answer:
The relative density of gold is 18.3.
Relative density of gold = \(\frac{Density of gold}{Density of water}\)
That is, density of gold = Relative density of gold × Density of water = 18.3 × 10³ kg/m³ = 18300 kg/m³.

Question 8.
The acceleration due to gravity at the moon’s surface is 1.67 m/s². If the radius of the moon is 1.74 × 106m, calculate the mass of the moon.
Answer:
Here, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg²
g = 1.67 m/s²
R= 1.74 × 10⁶ m.
Mass of the moon is
M = \(\frac{\mathrm{gR}^{2}}{\mathrm{G}}\) = \(\frac{1.67 \times\left(1.74 \times 10^{6}\right)^{2}}{6.67 \times 10^{-11}}\)
= 7.58 × 10²² kg.

Question 9.
Derive the formula for the gravitational force acting between two objects.
Answer:
Let two objects A and B of masses ‘M’ and’m’, lie at a distance d from each other as shown in the figure.

Let the force of attraction between two objects be F.
According to the universal law of gravitation, the force between two objects is directly proportional to the product of their masses.
F ∝ Mm … (1)
And the force between two objects is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them,
F ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~d}^{2}}\) …………(2)
F ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{Mm}}{\mathrm{d}^{2}}\)
where G is universal gravitational constant

Question 10.
Find the value of ‘g’, acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
g = \( \frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg² (constant)
M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg (mass of the earth)
= \( \frac{6.7 \times 10^{-11} \mathrm{Nm}^{2} / \mathrm{kg}^{2} \times 6 \times 10^{24} \mathrm{~kg}}{\left(6.4 \times 10^{6} \mathrm{~m}\right)^{2}}\)
= 9.8 m/s²

Question 11.
Camels can walk easily on desert sand but we are not comfortable walking on the sand. Why do you think so?
Answer:
The surface area of a camel’s feet is broad and large. Thus, the pressure exerted is low. However, when we walk, our legs sink because the pressure exerted by our body is not equally distributed but is directed towards the legs.

Question 12.
Define lactometer and hydrometer.
Answer:
Lactometer is a device used to find the purity of milk. Hydrometer is a device used to find the density of a liquid.

Question 13.
Two wood pieces of same size and mass are dipped in two beakers containing water and oil. One wood floats on water, but the other one sinks in oil. Why?
Answer:
The wood floats on water because the density of wood is lower than the density of water, and the other wood sinks in the oil because the density of wood is more than that of the oil.

Question 14.
What are fluids? Why is Archimedes’ principle applicable only for fluids? Give the applications of Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
Liquids are the substances which can flow. Archimedes principle is based on the upward force exerted by fluids on any object immersed in them. Hence, it is applicable only for fluids. Applications of Archimedes’ principle are as follows:

1. It is used to design ships and submarines.
2. To determine the purity of milk using lactometers which are designed based on the Archimedes’ principle.
3. To make hydrometers which are used to determine the density of liquids.

Question 15.
The volume of 60g of a substance is 10cm². If the density of water is 1g/cm², find out whether the substance will float or sink in water.
Answer:
Mass = 60g
Volume = 10 cm³
The density of water is 1g/cm². As the density of the given substance is more than the density of water, the substance will get submerged in water.

Question 16.
What is meant by buoyancy?
Answer:
When a body is submerged in a fluid, the fluid exerts an upward force on the submerged body. This upward force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the submerged body and is called the buoyant force. In other words, it is the force exerted by the fluid when an object is submerged in it.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 17.
Identical packets are dropped from two aeroplanes, one over the equator and the other over the north pole, both from the height h. Assuming that all conditions are identical, explain if those packets take same time to reach the surface of earth or not. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. The two packets will take different time intervals to reach the earth’s surface. This is because the acceleration due to gravity (g) is greater at the poles than that at the equator. The packet will fall slowly at the equator than that at the north pole.

Question 18.
You must have seen two types of balances. A grocer has a balance with two platforms or pan, and a needle moving on a scale. Some junk dealers (kabadiwalas) may be using a spring balance to weigh used newspapers. Suppose, the two balances give the same measure for a given body on the earth. Now, you take the balances to the moon. Would the two balances give the same measure? Explain your answer.
Answer:
No. The two balances will not give the same measure on the moon. This is because, the spring balance measures the weight, and the grocer’s balance measures the mass. The weight of a body depends upon the acceleration due to gravity at the place of measurement. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is not equal to that on the earth. Therefore, spring balance will give different readings relative to the grocer’s balance on the moon.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is centripetal force? From where does the moon get the centripetal force required for its motion around the earth?
Answer:

1. Centripetal force When a body moves along a circular path with a uniform speed, its direction of motion changes at every point. The change in direction involves change in velocity or acceleration.
2. The force that provides this acceleration and keeps the body moving along the circular path, acts towards the centre. This force is called centripetal (centre seeking) force.
3. Therefore, a force which is required to make a body move along a circular path with uniform speed is called centripetal force. Centripetal force always acts along the radius and towards the centre of the circular path.
   
4. The figure given here shows that it is the centripetal force which continuously deflects a particle from its straight line path to make it move along a circle.
5. Example: The moon needs a centripetal force for its circular motion around the earth. This centripetal force is provided by the gravitational attraction exerted by the earth on the moon.

Question 2.
Show that the weight of an object on the moon is 1/6,h its weight on the earth. Given that the mass of the earth is 100 times the mass of the moon and its radius is 4 times that of the moon.
Answer:
Suppose, mass of the object = m
mass of the earth = M_e
mass of the moon = M_m
radius of the earth = R_e
radius of the moon = R_m
Then, M_e = 100 Mm and Re = 4Rm
Weight of an object of mass m on the earth is
We = the force with which the earth
attracts the object = G \(\frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{e}}^{2}}\)
Weight of the object on the moon is
W_m = The force with which the moon
attracts the object = \( \mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{m}} \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{m}}^{2}}\)
\(\frac{W_{m}}{W_{e}}\) = \(\frac{\left(G \frac{M_{m} m}{R_{m}^{2}}\right)}{\left(G \frac{M_{m} m}{R_{e}^{2}}\right)}\)
= \(\frac{M_{m}}{M_{e}} \times \frac{\left(R_{e}\right)^{2}}{\left(R_{m}\right)^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{m}}}{100 \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{m}}} \times \frac{4 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{m}}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{m}}^{2}}\) = \(\frac{16}{100} \approx \frac{1}{6}\)
Thus, the weight of an object on the moon is about one – sixth of its weight on the earth.

Question 3.
Briefly explain how can Archimedes’ principle be verified experimentally.
Answer:
According to Archimedes’ principle, when a body is immersed in a liquid, completely or partially, it loses its weight. The loss in weight is equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the body. The loss in weight of a body is due to the presence of upthrust which is equal to the weight of liquid displaced.
Thus, a Loss in weight = Weight of body in air – Weight of body immersed in water =
W W₁ = upthrust in water on the body = Weight of liquid displaced.

As shown in figure, measure the weight of a solid, say a metallic ball, in air using spring balance. Weigh the empty beakers using spring balance. Set the spring balance, overflow can with tap water and beaker. Now, allow the bob to immerse completely in water in overflow can. Note down the new position of the pointer of the spring balance.

This will give you the weight of the brass bob in tap water. It is found to be less than the weight of bob in air. Weigh the beaker containing displaced water which is collected from the overflow can while immersing the bob in it completely. It is observed that the loss in weight of the bob is equal to the weight of the water collected in the beaker, i.e., weight of the water displaced.

Question 4.
With the help of an activity, prove that the force acting on a lesser area exerts a larger pressure.
Answer:
Consider a block of wood kept on a tabletop. The mass of the wooden block is 5kg. Its dimensions are 30 cm × 20 cm × 10 cm.
Now, we have to find the pressure applied by the wooden block on the tabletop by keeping it vertically and horizontally.

The mass of the wooden block = 5kg
Weight of the wooden block applies a thrust on the tabletop.
Thrust = F = mg = 5kg × 9.8 m/s² = 49 N
(Case a) : When the wooden box is kept vertically with sides 20 cm × 10 cm,
Area of a side = length × breadth = 20 cm × 10 cm = 200 cm² = 0.02m²
Pressure = \(\frac{Thrust}{Area}\) = \(\frac{49 \mathrm{~N}}{0.02 \mathrm{~m}^{2}}\)
= 2450 N/m²

(Case b): When the block is kept horizontally with side 30 cm × 20 cm, Area = length × breadth = 30 cm × 20 cm = 600 cm² = 0.06 m²

Pressure = \(\frac{Thrust}{Area}\) = [/latex] \frac{49 \mathrm{~N}}{0.02 \mathrm{~m}^{2}}[/latex]
= 816.7 N/m²
The pressure exerted by the box in case (a) in more as compared to the pressure exerted in case (b). The area is reduced and the pressure exerted is more.
This shows that pressure ∝= \( \frac{1}{\text { Area }}\)
Hence, pressure will be larger if the area is reduced.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 5.
(a) A cube of side 5 cm is immersed in water and then in saturated salt solution. In which case it will experience a greater buoyant force. If each side of the cube is reduced to 4 cm and then immersed in water, what will be the effect on the buoyant force experienced by the cube as compared to the first case for water.

(b) A ball of weight 4 kg and density 4000 kg m³ is completely immersed in water of density 10³ kg m³. Find the force of buoyancy on it. (Given g = 10 ms^-2)
Answer:
(a) The cube will experience greater buoyant force in salt solution. When the side of the cube is reduced to 4 cm, it will experience lesser buoyant force as compared to the first case.
This is because the volume of water displaced by the smaller cube is lesser than that displaced by the original cube,

(b) Volume of water displaced by the ball = Volume of the ball = \(\frac{Mass}{Density}\)
= \(\frac{4 \mathrm{~kg}}{4000 \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^{-3}}\) = 10^-3 m³
Weight of water displaced by the ball = Volume of water × Density × g
= 10^-3 m³ × 10³ kg m³ × 10 ms^-2 = 10 N
So, Buoyant force acting on the ball = Weight of water displaced = 10 N

Activity 1

• Take a piece of thread.
• Tie a small stone at one end. Hold the other end of the thread and whirl it round.
• Note the motion of the stone.
• Now release the thread.
• Again, note the direction of motion of the stone.
• Record your observations and draw conclusion about the direction of the stone.
  
• If thread is released when stone is here, stone goes straight towards A not towards B Top view A stone describing a circular path

Observations

• The motion gets accelerated and stone moves in a circular path.
• When the thread is released, the stone makes a tangent to the circle and falls down.

ACTIVITY 2

• Take a sheet of paper and a stone. Drop them simultaneously from the first floor of a building.
• Observe whether both of them reach the ground simultaneously or not.

Observations

• We see that the paper reaches the ground a little later than the stone. This happens because of air resistance. The air offers resistance due to friction to the motion of the falling objects. The resistance offered by air to the paper is more than the resistance offered to the stone.
• If we do the experiment in a glass jar from which air has been sucked out, the paper and the stone would fall at the same rate.

ACTIVITY 3

• Take an empty plastic bottle. Close the mouth of the bottle with an airtight stopper. Put it in a bucket filled with water and observe.
• Push the bottle into the water and observe again. Try to push it further down.
• Now, release the bottle. Record your observations.
• Does the force due to the gravitational attraction of the earth act on this bottle? If so, why doesn’t the bottle stay immersed in water after it is released? How can you immerse the bottle in water?

Gravity

Observations

• The plastic bottle floats on water. When it is pushed deeper, the upward force on the bottle increases.
• When released, the bottle bounces back to the surface because the upthrust on the bottle was larger than the downward pull of gravity
• Take a piece of stone and tie it to one end of a rubber string or a spring balance.

ACTIVITY-4

• Take a piece of stone and tie it to one end of a rubber string or a spring balance.
  Thread
  
• Suspend the stone by holding the balance or the string as shown in the figure (A).
• Note the elongation of the string or the reading on the spring balance due to the weight of the stone.
• Now, slowly dip the stone in the water in a container as shown in Figure (B).
• Observe what happens to the elongation of the string or the reading on the balance.

Observations

• In fig. A, the elongation of the string is more.
• In fig. B, when the stone is dipped in water, the length of the string is reduced.
• The length of the string in case (B) decreases due to the upward force exerted by water on the stone called buoyant force.

Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Priya had a bad experience during the take off of the plane when she boarded it for the first time. Her friend assisted and helped her during the landing of plane. She told her to fasten the seat belt and involved her in gossip. Priya faced less problems while landing of the plane.
1. Why do we tie our seat belts in moving cars or during take off of the plane?
2. What is free fall?
3. What value of Priya’s friend is seen in this set?
Answer:

1. We tie our seat belts to remain intact on the seat so that our body does not fall forward.
2. When an object falls towards the earth under the gravitational force alone, we say that the object is in free fall.
3. Priya’s friend showed the value of concerned, sympathetic, responsible and caring friend.

Question 2.
A goldsmith measured the purity of gold by using a special measuring device. He told the customer that there was impurity present in gold ornament that he wanted to buy and was not 22 carat but 18 carat jewellery.
1. How can we find the purity of gold?
2. What is the unit of relative density?
3. What value of goldsmith is reflected in this act?
Answer:

1. The purity of gold can be obtained by knowing the density of the gold.
2. Relative density does not have any unit.
3. Goldsmith showed the value of honesty and trustworthiness.

JAC Class 9 Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Science Important Questions Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The SI unit of force is
(a) kg m/s
(b) newton
(c) dyne
(d) kg wt
Answer:
(b) newton

Question 2.
The combined effect of mass and velocity is taken into account by a physical quantity called
(a) torque
(b) momentum
(c) moment
(d) force
Answer:
(b) momentum

Question 3.
Quantitative definition of force is given by
(a) Newton’s first law of motion
(b) Newton’s second law of motion
(c) Newton’s third law of motion
(d) Newton’s law of gravitation
Answer:
(b) Newton’s second law of motion

Question 4.
Momentum gives a measure of
(a) mass
(b) weight
(c) velocity
(d) motion
Answer:
(d) motion

Question 5.
An athlete runs some distance before taking a long jump because
(a) he gains energy to take himself through long distance
(b) it helps him to apply a larger force
(c) by running, action and reaction forces increase
(d) by running, the athlete gives himself larger inertia of motion
Answer:
(d) by running, the athlete gives himself larger inertia of motion

Question 6.
Rocket works on the principle of conservation of
(a) velocity
(b) energy
(c) linear momentum
(d) mass
Answer:
(c) linear momentum

Question 7.
The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the
(a) mass of the body
(b) velocity of the body
(c) net force applied on the body
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) net force applied on the body

Question 8.
A force of 50 N moves a body. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Frictional force exerted on the body is less than 50N
(b) Frictional force exerted on the body is more than 50N
(c) None of these
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Frictional force exerted on the body is less than 50N

Question 9.
If a football and a stone have same mass, then both will have
(a) same inertia
(b) same momentum
(c) different inertia
(d) different momentum
Answer:
(a) same inertia

Question 10.
The rate of change of momentum w. r. t time is measured in
(a) kg m
(b) kg
(c) kg ms^-1
(d) kg ms^-1
Answer:
(d) kg ms^-1

Question 11.
A block of mass M is pulled with a force F along a smooth horizontal surface with a rope of mass m. The acceleration of the block will be
(a) F/M
(b) F/m
(c) F/(M + m)
(d)F/(M – m)
Answer:
(c) F/(M + m)

Question 12.
Action and reaction forces act on two
(a) different objects
(b) same objects
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) different objects

Question 13.
A man is standing in a boat in still water. If he tries to walk towards the shore, the boat will
(a) move away from the shore
(b) remain stationary
(c) sink
(d) move towards the shore
Answer:
(a) move away from the shore

Question 14.
When an object undergoes acceleration
(a) its speed always increases
(b) its velocity always increases
(c) it always falls towards the earth
(d) a force always acts on it
Answer:
(d) a force always acts on it

Question 15.
On applying a constant force to a body, it moves with uniform
(a) momentum
(b) speed
(c) acceleration
(d) velocity
Answer:
(c) acceleration

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 16.
A goalkeeper in the game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goal keeper to
(a) exert larger force on the ball
(b) reduce the force exerted by the ball on hands
(c) increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) decrease the rate of change of momentum
Answer:
(b) reduce the force exerted by the ball on hands

Question 17.
A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that motion of the train is
(a) accelerated
(b) uniform
(c) retarded
(d) along circular tracks
Answer:
(a) accelerated

Question 18.
An object of mass 2kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 ms^-1 on a frictionless horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N
Answer:
(b) 0 N

Assertion Reason Questions

Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions and the Reasons have been put forward Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both statements are false.
1. Assertion: A brick has more inertia than a hollow wooden block of the same shape and size.
Reason: Heavier the body, more is the inertia.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. Assertion: A body falling towards the earth also pulls the earth towards itself.
Reason: The forces always occur in pairs.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: When a bus starts, the person inside it falls forward.
Reason: The bus pushes the person forward.
Answer:
(D) Both statements are false.

4. Assertion: The third law of motion defines acceleration.
Reason: The third law of motion states that the net force experienced by a body is proportional to the rate of change in momentum of the body.
Answer:
(D) Both statements are false.

5. Assertion: Action and reaction forces are always equal and opposite.
Reason: Action and reaction forces cancel each other.
Answer:
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define force.
Answer:
Force may be defined as a push or a pull which changes or tends to change the state of rest or of uniform motion or direction of motion of a body.

Question 2.
Define one Newton.
Answer:
One newton is the force which produces an acceleration of m/s² in an object of mass 1kg.
1N = 1kg m/s²

Question 3.
State the various effects of force.
Answer:
A force applied on an object can do five things:
(a) It can change the speed of the object.
(b) It can change the direction of motion of the object.
(c) It can change the shape and size of the object.
(d) It can set an object at rest in motion.
(e) It can bring a moving object to rest.

Question 4.
Define resultant force.
Answer:
The resultant force or resultant of several forces acting simultaneously on a body is that single force which produces the same effect on a body as all these forces produce together.

Question 5.
What is frictional force?
Answer:
The force that always opposes the motion of an object is called force of friction.

Question 6.
What is inertia?
Answer:
The natural tendency of an object to resist a change in their state of rest or of uniform motion along a straight line is called inertia.

Question 7.
State Newton’s first law of motion.
Answer:
An object remains in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an external unbalanced force.

Question 8.
Place a water – filled tumbler on a tray. Hold the tray and turn around as fast as you can. We observe that the water spills. Why?
Answer:
The water spills when the tray turns around fastly, because initially, the water filled in the tumbler placed on the tray was in a state of rest. While turning, we apply force on the tray which starts moving but the water remains at rest due to its inertia, and hence, it spills out of the tumbler.

Question 9.
State Newton’s second law of motion.
Answer:
The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of the force.

Question 10.
State Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:
To every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction and they act on two different bodies.

Question 11.
Why are shockers used in cars, scooters and motorcycles?
Answer:
Due to the shockers, the time interval of the jerk increases. As the rate of change of momentum will be smaller, comparatively less force acts on the passengers during the jerks.

Question 12.
Why is glass or chinaware packed with straw?
Answer:
The straw paper between the chinaware increases the time of experiencing the jerk during transportation. Hence, they strike against each other with a less force and are less likely to be damaged.

Question 13.
A bird hit the windscreen of a fast moving car and fell on the bonnet. Which of the two, the car or the bird, suffers greater change in momentum?
Answer:
By the law of conservation of momentum, both the car and the bird suffered equal and opposite change in momentum.

Question 14.
What decides the rate of change of momentum of an object?
Answer:
The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of force.

Question 15.
The diagram shows a moving truck. Forces A, B, C and D are acting on the truck. Name the type of each of these forces acting on the truck.

Answer:
The forces A, B, C and D acting on the truck are:
A driving force
B normal reaction
C frictional force
D weight gravitational force.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 16.
Two identical bullets are fired, one by a light rifle and another by a heavy rifle, with the same force. Which rifle will hurt the shoulder more and why?
Answer:
The velocity of recoil will be higher for ligher rifle. So lighter rifle will hurt the shoulder more.

Question 17.
When a fast moving carrom striker hits the carrom coin at the bottom of a pile, ¡t moves out without disturbing
the pile. Which kind of inertia of the pile is responsible for it?
Answer:
Inertia of rest of the pile is responsible for it.

Question 18.
There are three solid balls made up of aluminium, steel and wood, of the same shape and same volume. Which of them would have the highest inertia?
Answer:
Steel ball will have the highest inertia This is because the density of steel is higher than aluminium and wood As a result, the steel ball will have the highest mass and hence highest inertia

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between balanced and unbalanced forces.
Answer:

Balanced forces	Balanced forces
1. The resultant of balanced forces is zero.	1. The resultant of balanced forces is zero.
2. These forces donot produce anyacceleration in the body.	2. These forces donot produce anyacceleration in the body.
3. Example: A book kept on the table (the downward force of gravity on the book is balanced by the normal reaction by the table on the book in upward direction).	3. Example: When the book that is kept on the table is pushed to the left side (the book moves as the push towards left is greater than the frictional force acting towards right).

Question 2.
Give examples to show that balanced forces can change the shape of an object.
Answer:
Consider a spring attached to a rigid support at one of its ends, as shown in the figure.

If we pull the free ends of the spring, it gets elongated Thus, on applying force, a spring expands. Similarly, if we hold a rubber ball between our palms and push the two palms against each other, we find that the ball is no longer round but oblong. The force exerted on the ball changes its shape, as shown in the figure. In both cases, the two forces, being equal and opposite, balance each other but change the shape of the object.

Question 3.
A football player kicks the ball which travels in the air for a while and lands on the ground where the ball travels on the ground for a short distance and then stops. What may be the reason behind it?
Answer:
The reason is frictional force. There is always a contact between the ball and the ground The opposing force always acts against the motion of the ball, thereby stopping the ball.

Question 4.
A table is moved across the floor with a constant velocity where the horizontal force acting on it is 400N. What will be the frictional force that will be acting on the table?
Answer:
According to Newton’s third law of motion, for every action there will be an equal and opposite reaction. The net force acting on the table is zero because the table moves with constant velocity in forward direction. Hence, an equal amount of frictional force must act in opposite direction as that of the table, i.e., F = – 400N.

Question 5.
When the car, we are moving in, makes a sharp turn at a very high speed, we tend to get thrown to one side. Explain the statement.
Answer:
The reason behind this is the law of inertia While moving in a car along a straight line, we tend to maintain our state of motion. But when the car takes a sharp turn, our bodies resist the change in direction and are thrown to the opposite side due to inertia.

Question 6.
Athletes always have a special posture by resting their right foot on a solid support, why?
Answer:
During the race, athletes have to run the heats and they rest their right foot on the solid support before the start, so that this support can give them a lot of force during the start of the race. They push the support backwards and get an equal and opposite forward push to get a very good start.

Question 7.
The safety belts in the car help in preventing accidents. Justify the statement.
Yes, safety belts help in preventing accidents. When a car is moving with a high speed, our body tends to be in movement due to inertia of motion in the forward direction. So when there is a sudden  collision, serious injuries can happen. However, seat belts exert a force on our body to slow down the forward motion and hence prevent injuries.

Question 8.
A karate player breaks the pile of tiles with a single blow. Give reason.
Answer:
A karate player strikes the pile of tiles by applying a very large velocity. The overall momentum of fast moving hand is reduced to zero in a very short interval. So this increases the rate of change of momentum which increases the force on the tiles and they eventually break.

Question 9.
Athletes are made to fall on a sand bed while performing a high jump. Give reason.
Answer:
During the high jump event, an athlete is made to fall on the sand bed because it increases the time to attain the rest
position. We know that, F = \(\frac{m(v-u)}{t}\)
So, force and time are inversely proportional to each other. If there is an increase in time, there is a decrease in rate of change of momentum and therefore the force or the impact is reduced This prevents injuries to the feet of athlete.

Question 10.
Explain the law of conservation of momentum.
Answer:
According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum of the objects before collision is equal to the total momentum after collision, provided there is no external unbalanced force acting on them.

Question 11.
A bullet of mass 20g moving with a speed of 500 ms^-2 strikes a wooden block of mass 1kg and gets embedded in it. Find the speed with which the block moves along with the bullet.
Answer:
Let the final velocity of the block along with the bullet embedded in it be v.
For bullet, m₁ = 20g = 0.02 kg,
U₁ = 500 m/s, v₁ = v
For block, m₁ = 1kg, u₂= 0, v₂ = v
According to the law of conservation of momentum,
Total momentum before collision = Total momentum after collision
m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂
m₁u₁ + m₂u₂= (m₁ + m₂) v
v = \(\frac{m_{1} u_{1}+m_{2} u_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)
= \(\frac{(0.02 \times 500)+(1 \times 0)}{(0.02+1)}\)
=\(\frac{10}{1.02}\) = \(\frac{1000}{102}\)
= 9.8 m/s.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 12.
Two balls of the same size but of different materials, rubber and iron, are kept on the smooth floor of a moving train. The brakes are applied suddenly to stop the train. Will the balls start rolling? If so, in which direction? Will they move with the same speed?

Answer:
The balls will start rolling in the forward direction. No. The two balls will move with different speed This is because the inertia of the two balls is not the same.

Question 13.
Two forces F₁ = 40N and F₂ = 60N are acting on an object as shown in the figure.

1. What is the net force acting on the object?
2. What is the direction of the net force acting on the object?
3. How much extra force is acting on the object if the object is not moving due to the application of these two forces? Name that force. Where does that force act and what is the direction of that force?
Answer:

1. Net force on the object = 60N – 40N = 20N
2. Net force of 20N acts in the direction of F₂ (i.e., towards left)
3. A force equal to 20N is acting on the object.
   This force is the frictional force. This force acts in the direction of F₁

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe Galileo’s experiments with inclined planes and state their conclusion.
Answer:
By observing the motion of objects on inclined planes, Galileo deduced that objects move with constant speed when no force acts on them.

1. In the first experiment, Galileo studied the motion of marbles on an inclined plane. He observed that when a marble rolls down an inclined plane, its velocity increases, as shown in the figure A.
2. Here the marble falls under the unbalanced force of gravity. The velocity of the marble decreases when it rolls up the inclined plane (against the force of gravity), as shown in the figure B.
3. From these observations, Galileo argued that the velocity of a marble rolling on a flat horizontal surface should remain constant. To test his idea, Galileo used double inclined planes.
4. He observed that when the inclinations of the planes on both sides were equal, the marble rolled down from one plane from a certain height will climb up to the same height on the other plane.
   
   side plane were gradually decreased, the marble would travel larger and larger distances to reach the same height.
5. Ultimately, if the right side plane were made horizontal, the marble would continue to travel forever to reach the same height from which it was released No unbalanced force acts on the marble in this case.
6. The above experiment suggests that an unbalanced force (external force) is required to change the motion of an object while no unbalanced force is needed to keep an object moving with a constant velocity.
7. In actual practice, the bodies stop due to the force of friction which always acts opposite to the direction of motion.

Question 2.
Mathematically explain the concept of conservation of momentum during collision between two bodies.
Answer:
Let us consider two bodies, viz., A and B, moving with initial velocities u_A and u_B respectively, such that u_A > u_B.
Let mass of body A be m_A and that of B be m_B.
Before collision
For body A, momentum = m_Au_A
For bodv B. momentum = m_Bu_B

After collision, the bodies A and B move with velocities, say, v_A and v_B respectively. Let the collision occur for a time, say, t.
After collision
For body A, momentum = m_Av_A
For body B, momentum = m_Bv_B
The rate of change of momentum for the body A = \(\frac{m_{A}\left(v_{A}-u_{A}\right)}{t}\)
The rate of change of momentum for the body A = \(\frac{m_{B}\left(v_{B}-u_{B}\right)}{t}\)

According to Newton’s third law of motion, The force F_AB exerted by ball A on ball B and the force F_BA exerted by the ball B on ball A must be equal and opposite to each other. Therefore
\(\left\{\frac{m_{A}\left(v_{A}-u_{A}\right)}{t}=-\left(\frac{m_{B}\left(v_{B}-u_{B}\right)}{t}\right)\right\}\)
m_Au_A + m_Bu_B= m_Av_A + m_Bv_B
Here, (m_Au_A + m_Bu_A) is the total momentum of the two bodies, A and B, before collision and (m_Av_A+ m_Bv_B) is the total momentum of the two bodies, A and B, after collision. So, the total momentum of the two bodies remains constant during collision, when no external force acts on them.

Question 3.
Give some examples of Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:
Newton’s third law of motion states that: For every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction acting on two different bodies.
Examples:

1. The person who is swimming, pushes the water backward (action), while water pushes the person forward (reaction).
2. When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun exerts a force on the bullet (action), the bullet exerts an equal and opposite force on the gun (reaction),
3. When a rower jumps out of the boat in the forward direction (action), the boat moves backward (reaction).

Question 4.
Define the term ‘inertia’. Explain its types and state some of its examples in daily life.
Answer:

1. The tendency of a body to resist change in its state of rest or of uniform motion is called inertia.
   • Inertia of rest: The ability of a body to resist any change in its state of rest.
   • Inertia of motion: The ability of a body to resist any change in its state of uniform motion.
   • Inertia of direction: The ability of a body to resist any change in its direction of motion.
2. Examples of application of inertia in our day to day life are as follows:
   • When a carpet is beaten with a stick, the dust falls down.
   • When the car applies a sudden brake, we tend to fall forward.
   • When a bus suddenly takes a turn, we fall in the direction opposite to the turn.

Question 5.
Mathematically explain the concept of Newton’s second law of motion and also explain its importance in sports.
Answer:
Newton’s second law of motion: The rate of change of momentum of an object is directly proportional to the applied unbalanced force and it acts in the direction of force.

Example: Let us consider an object of mass (m), moving along a straight line with an initial velocity (u). Suppose, it attains a final velocity (v) in time (t).
Initial momentum of the object
= p₁ = mu
Final momentum of the object
= p₂ = mv
The change in momentum
= p₂ – p₁ = (mv) – (mu) = m (v – u)
The rate of change in momentum
= \(\frac{\mathrm{m}(\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u})}{\mathrm{t}}\)
Therefore,
The applied force, F is
F ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{m}(\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u})}{\mathrm{t}}\)
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{mk}(\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u})}{\mathrm{t}}\) …………..(i)
(where k is proportionality constant)
From the first equation of motion,
v = u + at
Substituting (ii) in (i),
So, F = kma
The unit of force is so chosen that the value of k becomes one.
Hence, F = kma or
F = ma
The second law is related to sports in the following examples:
(a) In a cricket match, a fielder who is trying to attempt a catch, generally pulls his hands along the moving ball because it consumes time to bring the momentum of the ball to zero. This decreases the rate change of mometum, and hence the force. So, when the time is increased, the overall force reduces, thus saving the hand from getting injured.

(b) In a high jump athletic event, the athletes are made to fall on a sand bed to increase the time of the athlete’s fall to stop after making the jump.
This decreases the rate of change of momentum and hence the force,

(c) A karate expert breaks a slab of ice with a single blow as he moves his hand very fast and then stops it in a very short time. Since the rate of change of momentum increases, the force also increases and the ice slab breaks.

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 6.
A test tube containing little water is corked and suspended from two strings in a slanting position. Afterwards, the test tube is heated Answer the following:

1. What happens to the cork?
2. In which direction does the test tube move?
3. Compare the velocities of the cork and of the recoiling test tube.
Answer:

1. On heating, the water inside the test tube vaporises and the cork is blown out.
2. The test tube moves in the direction opposite to the direction in which the cork has blown out.
3. Cork blows out with greater velocity than the recoiling test tube.

Activity 1

• Make a pile of similar carom coins on a table, as shown in the figure.
• Attempt a sharp and strong horizontal hit at the bottom of the pile using another carom coin or striker.

Observations

• If the hit is strong enough the bottom coin moves out quickly.
• Once the lowermost coin is removed, the inertia of the other coins makes them fall vertically on the table.

Activity 2

• Set a five – rupee coin on a stiff card covering an empty glass tumbler standing on a table as shown in the figure.
• Give the card a sharp horizontal flick with a finger.

Observations

• If we do it fast, the card shoots away, allowing the coin to fall vertically into the glass tumbler due to its inertia.
• The inertia of the coin tries to maintain its state of rest even when the card is flown away.
• The force applied on the card due to flicking changes the inertia of the card but the coin resists this change and stays at rest, i.e, due to the inertia and gravity, the coin falls down into the tumbler.

Activity 3

• Request two children to stand on two separate carts as shown in the figure.
  
• Give them a bag full of sand or some other heavy object.
• Ask them to play a game of catch with the bag and observe.
• You can paint a white line on cartwheels to observe the motion of the two carts when the children throw the bag towards each other.

Observations

• In this case, each of them receives an instantaneous reaction as a result of throwing the sand bag.
• This activity explains Newton’s third law of motion, i.e., a force is exerted in forward direction in throwing the bag full of sand and the person who is throwing it, gets pushed backward.

Activity 4

• Take a big rubber balloon and inflate it fully.
• Tie its neck using a thread Also, using adhesive tape, fix a straw on the surface of this balloon.
• Pass a thread through the straw and hold one end of the thread in your hand or fix it on the wall.
• Ask your friend to hold the other end of the thread or fix it on a wall at some distance.
• The arrangement is shown in the figure.
• Now, remove the thread tied on the neck of the balloon and let the air escape from the mouth of the balloon.
• Observe the direction in which the straw moves.

Observations.

• When the air escapes out from the balloon, the straw moves in the direction opposite to the direction in which the air moved out of the balloon. This activity explains the law of conservation of momentum.
• This activity is also based on Newton’s third law of motion, i.e., for every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction between two bodies.

Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Class IX students were playing cricket with cork ball in the school campus. Abhishek, senior student, told them about the accidents that can occur due to cork ball in the campus and also advised them to bring a soft cosco ball to play the game.
1. Why is it safe to play with a soft ball and not with a hard cork ball?
2. A player pulls his hands backwards while catching the ball shot at high speed Why?
3. What value of Abhishek is seen in this act?
Answer:

1. The soft ball has less inertia as compared to the heavy ball and it would not hurt the players.
2. By pulling the hand backwards, it reduces the force exerted by the ball
   on the hand.
3. Abhishek showed the value of being responsible and helpful by nature.

Question 2.
Rahul saw his karate expert friend breaking a brick. He tried to break the brick but his friend stopped him from doing so and told him that it would hurt him as one needs a lot of practice in doing so.
1. How can a karate expert break the brick without any injury to his hand?
2. What is Newton’s third law of motion?
3. What value of Rahul’s friend is seen in the above case?
Answer:

1. A karate expert applies the force with a large velocity in a very short interval of time on the brick, therefore, a large force is exerted on the brick and it breaks.
2. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction, both act on different bodies.
3. Rahul’s friend showed the value of being responsible and caring friend.

JAC Class 9 Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Science Important Questions Chapter 8 Motion

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is correct for a car which travels a distance of 100 km in 2 hours?
(a) Its average speed is 50 km/h
(b) The car did not travel at 50 km/h all the time
(c) The car travelled at 50 km/h all the time
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Its average speed is 50 km/h

Question 2.
The distance-time graph of an object shown in the given figure represents that the object is
(a) at rest position
(b) moving with constant speed
(c) moving with constant velocity
(d) moving with constant acceleration
Answer:
(a) at rest position

Question 3.
The SI unit of velocity is
(a) ms^-1
(b) ms^-2
(c) ms^-3
(d) Nn^-1
Answer:
(a) ms^-1

Question 4.
Deceleration of a body is expressed in
(a) m
(b) ms^-1
(c) ms^-2
(d) ms^-3
Answer:
(c) ms^-2

Question 5.
The initial velocity of a body is ‘u’. It is under uniform acceleration ‘a’. Its velocity ‘v’ at any time ‘t’ is given by
(a) v = u + at²
(b) v = u + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
(c) v = u + at
(d) v = u
Answer:
(c) v = u + at

Question 6.
A wooden slab starting from rest, slides down a 10m long inclined plane with an acceleration of 5 ms^-2 What would be its speed at the bottom of the inclined plane?
(a) 10 ms^-1
(b) 12ms^-1
(c) 10 cm^-1
(d) 12 cm^-1
Answer:
(a) 10 ms^-1

Question 7.
The velocity of a particle increases from ‘u’ to ‘v’ in time’t’ during which it covers a distance ‘s’. If the particle has a uniform acceleration, which of the following equations does not apply to the motion?
(a) 2s = (v + u) t
(b) v² = u² – 2as
(c) a = v – u/t
(d) s = (u + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at) t
Answer:
(b) v² = u² – 2as

Question 8.
In 12 minutes, a car whose speed is 35 km/h travels a distance of
(a) 7 km
(b) 3.5 km
(c) 2.4 km
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) 7 km

Question 9.
The area under the distance – time graph gives
(a) uniform speed
(b) non – uniform speed
(c) velocity and speed
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 10.
The odometer of a car measures
(a) speed
(b) velocity
(d) acceleration
(d) distance
Answer:
(d) distance

Question 11.
If a particle moves with a constant speed, the distance time graph is a
(a) straight line
(b) curved line
(c) straight line parallel to time axis
(d) straight line parallel to velocity axis
Answer:
(a) straight line

Question 12.
An object moving with uniform circular motion shows
(a) constant acceleration in speed
(b) constant velocity
(c) constant acceleration in direction
(d) constant change in type of motion
Answer:
(c) constant acceleration in direction

Question 13.
The slope of speed – time graph gives
(a) speed
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) momentum
Answer:
(c) acceleration

Question 14.
The distance travelled by a freely falling body is proportional to the
(a) mass of body
(b) square of the time of fall
(c) square of the acceleration due to
Answer:
(b) square of the time of fall

Question 15.
The figure shows the displacement time graph of a body moving in a straight line. The velocity of the body during the

(a) 2 ms^-2
(b) zero
(c) 3 ms^-1
(d) 2.5 ms^-1
Answer:
(b) zero

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 16.
In which of the following cases of motion, the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement are equal?
(a) If the car is moving on a straight road
(b) If the car is moving in a circular path
(c) The pendulum is moving to and fro
(d) The earth is revolving around the Sun
Answer:
(a) If the car is moving on a straight road

Question 17.
Four cars A, B, C and D are moving on a levelled road. Their distance versus time graphs are shown here. Choose the correct statement.

(a) Car A is faster than car D
(b) Car B is the slowest
(c) Car D is faster than car C
(d) Car C is the slowest
Answer:
(b) Car B is the slowest

Question 18.
Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a merry – go – round which is moving with a constant speed of 10 ms^-1. It implies that the boy is
(a) at rest
(b) moving with no acceleration
(c) in accelerated motion
(d) moving with uniform velocity
Answer:
(c) in accelerated motion

Assertion Reason Questions

Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions and the Reasons have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) The assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both the statements are false.

1. Assertion: Velocity is a scalar quantity.
Reason: Velocity cannot be zero.
Answer:
(D) Both the statements are false.

2. Assertion: A body moving in a circular path is in non – uniform motion.
Reason: The direction of a body moving in a circular path changes at every point.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

3. Assertion: A stone thrown vertically upwards has negative acceleration.
Reason: The acceleration of the stone thrown upward is in the direction opposite to the direction of its motion.
Answer:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

4. Assertion: A freely falling body is in uniform motion.
Reason: A freely falling body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time.
Answer:
(D) Both the statements are false.

5. Assertion: An object under acceleration can have a uniform speed.
Reason: Both speed and acceleration are scalar quantities.
Answer:
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define uniform motion.
Answer:
If an object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, however small the time intervals may be, the motion of the object is said to be uniform motion.

Question 2.
Define non – uniform motion.
Answer:
If an object covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in ‘non – uniform motion’.

Question 3.
Define speed.
Answer:
It is the distance travelled by a body per unit time.
Speed. = \(\vec{a}\)

Question 4.
Define average speed.
Answer:
The total distance travelled by an object divided by the total time taken is called its average speed.

Question 5.
Define acceleration.
Answer:
It is defined as the rate of change of velocity with time.
Acceleration = \(\frac{Change in velocity}{Time Taken}\)
or a = \(\frac{v-\mathbf{u}}{t}\)
The SI unit of acceleration is m/s².

Question 6.
Draw a distance – time graph that represents uniform speed.
Answer:

Question 7.
With the help of a distance – time graph show that the object is stationary.
Answer:

Question 8.
Define uniform circular motion.
Answer:
When a body moves in a circular path with uniform speed, its motion is called uniform circular motion.

Question 9.
Define scalar quantities. Give examples.
Answer:
The physical quantities which require only magnitude, and not the direction, for their complete description are called ‘scalars’ or ‘scalar quantities’. Distance, speed, time, area, etc., are all scalar quantities.

Question 10.
Define vector quantities. Give examples.
Answer:
The physical quantities which need both magnitude and direction for their complete description are called ‘vectors’ or vector quantities. Displacement, velocity, force, etc., are all vector quantities.

Question 11.
What is the SI unit of displacement?
Answer:
Metre (m).

Question 12.
A particle moves over three – quarters of a circle of radius. What is the magnitude of its displacement?
Answer:
When the particle covers three quarters of a circle, the magnitude of its displacement is

AB = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{OA}^{2}+\mathrm{OB}^{2}}\) = \(\sqrt{r^{2}+r^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{2 r}\) = √2 r

Question 13.
Can the average speed of a moving body ever be zero?
Answer:
Speed is a scalar quantity and is always positive. So the average speed of a moving body can never be zero.

Question 14.
What is the relationship between the distance travelled and the time elapsed for motion with uniform velocity?
Answer:
Distance is directly proportional to the time elapsed. In fact,
Distance travelled = Uniform velocity × Time elapsed

Question 15.
What is the SI unit of acceleration?
Answer:
The SI unit of acceleration is m/s².

Question 16.
What is acceleration of a body moving with uniform velocity?
Answer:
The acceleration of a body moving with uniform velocity is zero.

Question 17.
State a relationship connecting u, v, a and t for an accelerated motion. Give an example of motion in which acceleration is uniform.
Answer:
The relationship between u, v, a and t is v = u + at A body falling freely towards the earth has a uniform acceleration of 9.8 ms^-2.

Question 18.
Express the velocity of a body in uniform circular motion in terms of its time period T.
Answer:
Suppose a body of mass m rotates in a circle of radiusr with velocity v. It completes one revolution in time T. Then,
Velocity = \(\frac{Distance}{Time}\)[/latex] = \(\frac{Circumference}{Time period }\)[/latex]
or v = \(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{T}}\)

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 19.
The cars A, B, C and D are moving on a levelled road. Their distance versus time graphs are shown in the figure. Which car is the slowest?
Answer:
Speed = Slope of distance – time graph. The smaller the slope, the smaller is the speed

From the given figure, slope is minimum for car D. So, D is the slowest car.

Question 20.
A rubber ball dropped from a certain height bounce to certain height. This height keeps decreasing in subsequent bounces. What type of motion does the ball exhibit?
Answer:
The ball exhibits non – uniform motion.

Question 21.
A vehicle is moving at a constant velocity of 10 km/h in the north – south direction. It turns and starts moving towards east. What is the velocity of the vehicle towards east before taking the turn?
Answer:
Zero. The component of velocity at right angle to the original direction of motion is zero.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define the term rest and motion.
Answer:

• Rest: If a body does not change its position with respect to its surroundings, the body is said to be at rest, e.g., a table lying in a room is at rest with respect to the walls of the room.
• Motion: A body is said to be in motion if it changes its position with respect to its surroundings, e.g., a car running on the road is in motion with respect to the lamp posts, trees or bus stop on the roadside.

Question 2.
What is meant by a point object? Give some examples.
Answer:
Whenever the size of the object is much smaller than the distance it moves in a given time interval, the size of the object can be neglected. The object can be regarded as a point object in such cases.
Examples:

1. A car covering a distance of 10km can be treated as a point object.
2. Earth can be regarded as a point object for studying its motion around the sun.

Question 3.
Give some examples of straight line motion.
Answer:
Examples:

1. A bus moving on a straight road
2. A train moving on a straight track
3. A runner running along a straight track
4. A ball moving along a straight path
5. An object falling vertically downwards towards the surface of the earth.

Question 4.
How can we specify the position of an object?
Answer:
1. The position of an object can be specified by choosing:

• a fixed point called ‘origin’ or reference point, and
• a fixed line passing through the origin, called reference axis.

2. So the position of an object can be fully described by knowing:

• its distance from origin O and
• the angle 0 which the line joining the origin ‘O’ and the object makes with the reference axis.

In the figure shown below, the position of an object located at point P is 6 cm from the origin and 30° north of east. v (Scale: 1cm = 1m)

Question 5.
A body moves in a circle of radius ‘2R’. What is the distance covered and displacement of the body after 2 complete rounds?
Answer:
Distance covered after 2 complete rounds = 2 × circumference
= 2 × 2π (2R) = 8πR
Displacement = zero, because initial and final positions of the body are the same and displacement is the shortest distance between initial and final positions.

Question 6.
Define the term velocity. What is its SI unit? Is it a scalar or a vector quantity?
Answer:
Velocity is a physical quantity that gives both speed and direction of motion of the body.
Definition: Velocity of a body is defined as the displacement produced per unit time. Velocity is also defined as the speed of a body in a givendirection. If ‘s’ is the distance travelled by a body in a given direction and ‘t’ is the time taken to travel that distance, then the velocity V is given by,
Velocity = \(\frac{Displacement}{Time}\)[/latex]
SI unit of velocity is m/s. Velocity is a vector quantity because it requires both magnitude and direction of a body.

Question 7.
Give the difference between distance and displacement.

Distance	Displacement
(a) It is the total path covered by an object.	(a) It is the shortest path from initial position to the final position.
(b) It does not have any direction.	(b) It has direction.
(c) It cannot be zero.V	(c) It can be positive, negative or zero.

Question 8.
Differentiate between speed and velocity.
Answer:

Speed	Velocity
(a) It is the distance travelled by an object per unit of time.	(a) It is the displacement of the body per unit time.
(b) It is a scalar quantity, direction not required.	(b) It is a vector quantity, direction is required.
(c) It is always positive.	(c) It can be positive, negative or zero.

Question 9.
A cheetah is the fastest land animal and can achieve a peak velocity of 100 km/h upto distances less than 500 m. If a cheetah spots his prey at a distance of 100 m, what is the minimum time it will take to get its prey, if the average velocity attained by it is 90 km/h?
Answer:
Here v = 90Km/h = \(\frac{90 \times 1000 \mathrm{~m}}{3600 \mathrm{~s}}\)
= 25m/s
s = 100m
Minimum time, t = \(\frac{s}{v}\) = \(\frac{100}{25}\) = 4s

Question 10.
The Rajdhani Express travels a distance of 1384 km from Mumbai to Delhi. It starts from Mumbai at 4.00 p.m. and reaches Delhi at 9.00 a.m. the next day. What is its average speed?
Answer:
Total distance travelled = 1384 km
Total time taken = 17 hours
Average speed =\(\frac{Total distance travelled}{Total time taken}\)= \(\frac{1384}{17}\)
= 81.4 km/h

Question 11.
A body starts initially with a velocity ‘u’ and is accelerated at constant rate ‘a’. Find an expression for final velocity after time ‘t’
Answer:
First equation of motion : Let a body start with initial velocity ‘u’ and after time ‘t’, its velocity becomes ‘v’ due to uniform acceleration ‘a’. From the definition of acceleration,
Acceleration = \(\frac{Change in velocity }{Time taken}\)
= \(\frac{Final velocity – Initial velocity}{Time taken}\)
a = \(=\frac{\mathrm{V}-\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
at = v – u
v = u + at.

Question 12.
Deduce the expression for the distance travelled by a body moving with uniform acceleration in a given time.
Answer:
Second equation of motion:
Suppose a body starts with initial velocity ‘u’ and due to uniform acceleration ‘a’ its final velocity becomes ‘v’ after time ‘t’ Then,
Average velocity = \(\frac{Initial velocity + Final velocity}{2}\)
=\(\frac{u+v}{2}\)
So, the distance covered by the body in time t is
s = Average velocity × Time =\(\frac{u+v}{2}\) × t = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}+(\mathrm{u}+\mathrm{at}) \times \mathrm{t}}{2}\)
= \(\frac{2 u t + a t^{2}}{2}\)
or s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at 2

Question 13.
Establish the relation v² – u² = 2as, where ‘u’ is the initial velocity, ‘v’ is the final velocity, ‘a’ is the uniform acceleration and ‘s’ is the distance covered by the body.
Answer:
Third equation of motion:
Let a body start with initial velocity ‘u’ and after covering distance ‘s’ under uniform acceleration ‘a’, its velocity becomes ‘v’ in ‘t’ seconds. Then
Average velocity = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}+\mathrm{v}}{2 \mathrm{}}\)
So the distance covered in time t is given by
s = Average velocity x Time
= \(\frac{u+v}{2}\) × t
or v + u = \(\frac{2 s}{t}\) …………..(1)

Using the first equation of motion: v = u + at
or v – u = at … (ii)

Multiplying equations (i) and (ii), we get
(v + u) (v – u) = \(2 \frac{s}{t}\) × at
or v² – u² = 2as

Question 14.
Show that the slope of distance – time graph gives velocity of the body.

Answer:
Given figure shows distance – time graph for a body moving with uniform velocity. Clearly, it covers distances s₁ and s₂ in times t₁ and t₂ respectively.
Slope of line AB = tan θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{AC}}\)
= \(\frac{s_{2}-s_{1}}{t_{2}-t_{1}}\) = \(\frac{Displacement}{Time}\) = velocity
Hence, the slope of the distance-time graph gives velocity of the body.

Question 15.
Show that the slope of velocity time graph gives acceleration of the body.
Answer:
Given figure shows the velocity – time graph for a body in uniform acceleration. It is a straight line inclined to the time – axis. Body has velocities ‘u’ and ‘v’ at times ‘t₁’ and ‘t₂’ respectively
Img-1
Slope of line AE = tan θ = \( \frac{E D}{A D}\)
\(\frac{v-u}{t_{2}-t_{1}}\) = \( \frac{Change in velocity}{Time taken}\)
= Acceleration of the body
Hence, the slope of the velocity – time graph gives the acceleration of the body.

Question 16.
Draw velocity – time graph for a body moving with uniform velocity. Hence show that the area under the velocity time graph gives the distance travelled by the body in a given time interval.
Answer:
In the given figure, line PQ is the velocity – time graph of a body moving with a uniform velocity such that OP = v Area of rectangle ABCD = AD × AB
= OP × AB
= v × (t₂ – t₁)
= Velocity × Time
= Distance travelled in time interval (t₂ – t₁)

Hence, the area under the velocity – time graph gives the distance travelled by the body in the given time interval.

Question 17.
The odometer of a car reads 1800 km at the start of a trip and 2400 km at the end of the trip. If the trip took 10h, calculate the average speed of the car in km/h and m/s.
Answer:
Distance covered by the car (s)
= 2400 – 1800 = 600 km.
Trip time = 10h
Average speed = ?

(i) V_av = \(\frac{s}{t}\) = \(\frac{600}{10}\) km = 60 km/h

(ii) In m/s : (60 km/h) = \(\frac{60 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\)
= 16.7 m/s
The average speed of the car in km/h is 60 km/h and in m/s is 16.7 m/s.

Question 18.
Draw velocity – time graphs to show the following:
(a) Uniform velocity
(b) Uniform acceleration
(c) Non – uniform acceleration
Answer:

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 19.
The table given below shows distance (in km) travelled by bodies A, B and C. Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.

	Distance (in km) covered by different bodies
Time (s)	Body(A)	Body (B)	Body (C)
1st second	20	20	20
2nd second	20	36	60
3rd second	20	24	100
4th second	20	30	140
5 th second	20	48	180

(a) Which of the bodies is moving with
(i) constant speed?
(ii) constant acceleration?
(b) Which of the bodies covers
(i) maximum distance in 3rd second?
(ii) minimum distance in 3rd second?
Answer:
(a) (i) Body A
(ii) Body C

(b) (i) Body C
(ii) Body A

Question 20.
An electron moving with a velocity of 5 × 10⁴ms^-1 enters a uniform electric field and acquires a uniform acceleration of 10⁴ms^-2 in the direction of its initial motion.
(a) Calculate the time in which the electron would acquire a velocity double of its initial velocity.
(b) How much distance the electron would cover in this time?
Answer:
(i) Acceleration = \(\frac{ Change in velocity}{Time taken}\)
or Time taken, t = \(\frac{5 \times 10^{4} \mathrm{~m} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}}{10^{4} \mathrm{~m} \mathrm{~s}^{-2}}\)
= 5 s

(ii) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
= (5 × 10⁴ m s^-1 × 5 s) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10⁴m s^-2 × (5s)²
= 37.5 × 104 m

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the various types of motion observed in bodies.
Answer:
Various types of motion as observed in bodies are:

1. Translatory motion: When a body moves, as a whole, along a straight or curved path, it is said to be in translatory motion. Translatory motion is again of two types:
   • Rectilinear motion : Here a body moves as a whole along a straight path. For example, a train moving on a straight track has translatory rectilinear motion.
   • Curvilinear motion : In this case a body moves as a whole along a curved path. For example, motion of a bicycle taking a turn along a curved path.
2. Rotatory motion: When a body rotates about a fixed point or axis. it exhibits a rotatory motion. For example, motion of a flywheel about a shaft
3. Vibratory or oscillatory motion: When a body moves to and fro about a mean position, the motion is said to be vibratory or oscillatory motion. For example, the motion of the pendulum of a wall – clock.
4. Complex motion: When the motion of a body may be a combination of more than one type of motion, it is said to be a complex motion. For example, a ball rolling down an inclined plane has both translatory and rotatory motions.

Question 2.
Define average velocity when the velocity of a body changes at a non – uniform rate and a uniform rate.
Answer:
Average velocity : When the velocity of a body changes at a non – uniform rate, its average velocity is defined as the net displacement covered divided by the total time taken.
Average velocity = \(\frac{Net displacement}{Total time taken}\)
When the velocity of a body changes at a uniform rate, the average velocity is given by the arithmetic mean of initial velocity and final velocity for a given period of time.
Average velocity = \(\frac{Initial velocity + Final velocity}{2}\) :
If u is the initial velocity and v is the final velocity, the average velocity v_ay is given by,
v_ay = \(=\frac{u+v}{2}\)

Question 3.
Explain the difference regarding the nature of acceleration of the three moving bodies as expressed by the following velocity – time graphs:

(a) Uniform acceleration: A body increases velocity by equal amounts in equal intervals of time.
(b) Non – uniform acceleration: A body travels unequal distances in equal intervals of time.
(c) Uniform motion or zero acceleration: A body moves with constant

Analysing & Evaluating Questions

Question 4.
Two stones are thrown vertically upwards simultaneously with their initial velocities u₁ and u₂ respectively. Prove that the heights reached by them would be in the ratio of \(\mathbf{u}_{1}^{2}\) : \(\mathbf{u}_{2}^{2}\) (Assume upward acceleration is – g and downward acceleration to be + g).
Answer:
Stone 1
Initial velocity = u₁
Acceleration = – g
Height = h,
Final velocity, v = 0
Using the equation, v² – u² =2as
0 – \(\vec{a}\) = 2 (- g) × h₁
h₁ = \(\frac{-u_{1}^{2}}{-2 g}\) = \(\frac{u_{1}^{2}}{2 g}\) ……..(1)

Stone 2
Initial velocity = u₁
Acceleration = – g
Height = h2
Final velocity, v = 0
0² \(-u_{2}^{2}\) = 2 (- g) × h₂
h₂ = \(\frac{-u_{2}^{2}}{-2 g}\) =\(\frac{u_{2}^{2}}{2 g}\) ……..(ii)
This gives; h₁ : h₂ = \(\vec{a}\) : \(\vec{a}\)
= \(=\frac{u_{1}^{2}}{2 g}\) : \(\frac{\mathrm{u}_{2}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{~g}}\)
=\(u_{1}^{2}\) : \(\vec{a}\)

Activity 1

1. In your everyday life, you come across a range of motions in which:
   • acceleration is in the direction of motion
   • acceleration is against the direction of motion
   • acceleration is uniform
   • acceleration is non – uniform
2. Observe these motions carefully and identify one example each of the above type of motions.

Observations

• A car moving on a road.
• A ball thrown up.
• Fan blades rotating
• Windmill at time moves fast when the wind speed is more and becomes slow when the wind speed decreases.

Activity 2

• Take piece of thread and tie a small piece of stone at one of its end. Move the stone to describe a circular path with constant speed by holding the thread at the other end.
  
• Now, let the stone go by releasing the thread.
• Observe the direction in which the stone moves after it is released.
• By repeating the activity for a few more times and releasing the stone at different positions of the circular path, carefully observe whether the direction in which the stone moves remains the same or not.

Observations

• When the stone is released, it moves along a straight line, tangential to the circular path.
• By repeating the activity and releasing the stone at different positions of the circular path, the direction in which the stone moves does not remain the same. It changes every time.

Value Based Questions

Question 1.
The speed limits are prescribed for vehicles running on highways. Why is it essential to follow the speed limit rules?
Answer:
Speed limits are prescribed on the highways/expressways because:
1. When a vehicle is made to run at height speeds, its tyres get hot (due to friction). This makes them softer and the air inside the tubes hotter Both. these factors may lead to bursting of tyre/tube.

2. Reflex time varies from person to person. Any running vehicle needs a certain time period to stop after the brakes are applied. At higher speeds, this time period becomes shorter.

3. As a result, the chances of collision increase. Because of these reasons, one should strictly follow the speed limit regulations. Also, it is safer to drive in your lane depending upon the speed of your vehicle.

4. Moral: Drive below the speed limit and in your lane.

Question 2.
Most drivers involved in road accidents are found to be drunk. Give reason.
Answer:
The reflex time of a person increases when drunk, (average reflex time of a normal person is about 1/15s). Therefore, such a driver of vehicle will take more time in applying brakes. As a result, the vehicle may not stop well in time and cause an accident.

JAC Class 9 Science Important Questions