Month: September 2022

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Sanskrit Solutions Shemushi Chapter 5 जननी तुल्यवत्सला Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10th Sanskrit Solutions Shemushi Chapter 5 जननी तुल्यवत्सला

JAC Class 10th Sanskrit जननी तुल्यवत्सला Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न 1.
एकपदेन उत्तरं लिखत (एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए)
(क) वृषभः दीन इति जानन्नपि कः तम् नुद्यमानः आसीत्? (बैल कमजोर है, ऐसा जानते हुए भी कौन उसे कष्ट दे रहा था?)
उत्तरम् :
कृषक: (किसान)।

(ख) वृषभः कुत्र पपात? (बैल कहाँ गिर गया?)
उत्तरम् :
क्षेत्रे (खेत में)।

(ग) दुर्बले सुते कस्याः अधिका कृपा भवति? (दुर्बल बेटे पर किसकी अधिक कृपा होती है?)
उत्तरम् :
मातुः (माता की)।

(घ) कयोः एक शरीरेण दुर्बलः आसीत्? (किनमें से एक शरीर से कमजोर था?)
उत्तरम् :
बलीवर्दयोः (दो बैलों में से)।

(ङ) चण्डवातेन मेघरवैश्च सह कः समजायत? (तीव्र वायु और बादल की गर्जना के साथ क्या होता था?)
उत्तरम् :
प्रवर्षः (तेज वर्षा)।

प्रश्न 2.
अधोलिखितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृत भाषया लिखत – (निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए।)
(क) कृषकः किं करोति स्म?
(किसान क्या कर रहा था?)
उत्तरम् :
कृषक: क्षेत्रकर्षणं करोति स्म।
(किसान खेत जोत रहा था।)

(ख) माता सुरभिः किमर्थमश्रूणि मुञ्चति स्म?
(माता सुरभि किसलिए आँसू बहा रही थी?)
उत्तरम् :
माता सुरभिः स्वपुत्रं भूमौ पतितं दृष्ट्वा नेत्राभ्याम् अश्रूणि मुञ्चति स्म।
(माता सुरभि अपने पुत्र को धरती पर गिरे हुए को देखकर आँखों से आँसू बहा रही थी।)

(ग) सुरभिः इन्द्रस्य प्रश्नस्य किम् उत्तरं ददाति?
(सुरभि इन्द्र के प्रश्न का क्या उत्तर देती है?)
उत्तरम् :
अहं तु पुत्रं शोचामि तेन रोदिमि।
(मैं पुत्र का शोक कर रही हूँ, अतः रोती हूँ।)

(घ) मातुः अधिका कृपा कस्मिन् भवति?
(माता की अधिक-कृपा किस पर होती है?)
उत्तरम् :
दुर्बले सुते मातुः अधिका कृपा भवति।
(दुर्बल बेटे पर माता की अधिक कृपा होती है।)

(ङ) इन्द्रः दुर्बल वृषभस्य कष्टानि अपाकर्तुं किं कृतवान्?
(इन्द्र ने दुर्बल बैल के कष्टों को दूर करने के लिए क्या किया?)
उत्तरम् :
इन्द्रेण दुर्बल वृषभस्य कष्टानि अपाकर्तुं वृष्टिः कृता।
(इन्द्र ने दुर्बल बैल के कष्ट दूर करने के लिए वर्षा कर दी।)

(च) जननी कीदृशी भवति?
(जननी कैसी होती है?)
उत्तरम् :
जननी तुल्यवत्सला भवति।
(माता समान वात्सल्य प्रदान करने वाली होती है।)

(छ) पाठेऽस्मिन् कयोः संवादः विद्यते?
(इस पाठ में किनका संवाद है?)
उत्तरम् :
पाठेऽस्मिन् सुरभीन्द्रयोः संवादः विद्यते।
(इस पाठ में सुरभि और इन्द्र का संवाद है।)

प्रश्न 3.
‘क’ स्तम्भे दत्तानां पदानां मेलनं ‘ख’ स्तम्भे दत्तैः समानार्थक पदैः करुत –

‘क’ स्तम्भ	‘ख’ स्तम्भ
(क) कृच्छ्रेण	1. वृषभः
(ख) चक्षुभ्या॑म्	2. वासवः
(ग) जवेन	3. नेत्राभ्याम्
(घ) इन्द्रः	4. अचिरम
(ङ) पुत्राः	5. द्रुतगत्या
(च) शीघ्रम्	6. काठिन्येन
(छ) बलीवर्दः	7. सुताः

उत्तरम् :

‘क’ स्तम्भ	‘ख’ स्तम्भ
(क) कृच्छ्रेण	6. काठिन्येन
(ख) चक्षुभ्या॑म्	3. नेत्राभ्याम्
(ग) जवेन	5. द्रुतगत्या
(घ) इन्द्रः	2. वासवः
(ङ) पुत्राः	7. सुताः
(च) शीघ्रम्	4. अचिरम
(छ) बलीवर्दः	1. वृषभः

प्रश्न 4.
स्थूलपदमाधृत्य प्रश्न निर्माणं कुरुत (मोटे पदों को आधार मानकर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए)
(क) सः कुच्छ्रेण भारम् उद्वहति। (वह कठिनाई से बोझ उठाता है।)
(ख) सुराधिपः ताम् अपृच्छत्। (देवराज ने उससे पूछा।)
(ग) अयम् अन्येभ्यो दुर्बलः। (यह औरों से कमजोर है।)
(घ) धेनूनाम् माता सुरभिः आसीत्। (गायों की माता सुरभि थी।)
(ङ) सहस्राधिकेषु पुत्रेषु सत्स्वपि सा दुखी आसीत्। (हजारों से अधिक पुत्र होने पर भी वह दुखी थी।)
केन भारं उदवहति? (वह किससे भार उठाता है?)
(ख) कः ताम् अपृच्छत? (किसने उससे पूछा?)
(ग) अयम् केभ्यो दुर्बलः? (यह किनसे कमजोर है?)
(घ) कासाम् माता सुरभिः आसीत्। (सुरभि किनकी माता थी?)
(ङ) कतिषु पुत्रेषु सत्स्वपि सः दुखी आसीत् ? (कितने पुत्र होने पर भी वह दुखी थी?)

प्रश्न 5.
रेखाङ्कित पदे यथास्थानं संधि-विच्छेद/सन्धिं वा कुरुत।
(रेखांकित पद में संधि अथवा संधि विच्छेद कीजिए।)
(क) कृषकः क्षेत्रकर्षणं कुर्वन्+आसीत्।
(ख) तयोरेकः वृषभः दुर्बलः आसीत्।
(ग) तथापि वृषः न उत्थित।
(घ) सत्स्वपि बहुषु पुत्रेषु अस्मिन् वात्सल्यं कथम्?
(ङ) तथा अपि+अहम् एतस्मिन् स्नेहम् अनुभवामि।
(च) मे बहूनि अपत्यानि सन्ति।
(छ) सर्वत्र जलोपप्लवः सञ्जातः।
उत्तराणि :
(क) कुर्वन्नासीत्
(ख) तयोः एकः
(ग) नोत्थितः
(घ) सत्सु अपि
(ङ) तथाप्यहमेतस्मिन्
(च) बहून्यपत्यानि
(छ) जल+उपप्लवः।

प्रश्न 6.
अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखांकित सर्वनाम पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित सर्वनाम पद किसके लिए प्रयोग हुए हैं ?)
(क) सा च अवदत् भो वासवः अहं भृशं दुखिता अस्मि।
(ख) पुत्रस्य दैन्यं दृष्ट्वा अहम् रोदिमि।
(ग) सः दीनः इति जानन् अपि कृषकः तं पीडयति।
(घ) मे बहूनि अपत्यानि सन्ति।
(ङ) सः च ताम् एवम् असान्त्वयत्।
(च) सहस्रेषु पुत्रेषु सत्स्वपि तव अस्मिन् प्रीतिः अस्ति ।
उत्तराणि :
(क) सुरभिः
(ख) सुरभिः
(ग) वृषभः
(घ) सुरभेः
(ङ) इन्द्रः
(च) सुरभेः

प्रश्न 7.
‘क’ स्तम्भे विशेषण पदं लिखितम् ‘ख’ स्तम्भे पुनः विशेष्य पदं। तयोः मेलनं कुरुत।
(क स्तम्भ में विशेषण पद लिखे हैं, ख स्तम्भ में पुनः विशेष्य पद हैं, उन दोनों का मेल करो।)

‘क’ स्तम्भ	‘ख’ स्तम्भ
(क) कश्चित्	1. वृषभम्
(ख) दुर्बलम्	2. कृपा
(ग) क्रुद्ध	3. कृषीवलः
(घ) सहस्राधिकेषु	4. आखण्डलः
(ङ) अभ्याधिकाः	5. जननी
(च) विस्मितः	6. पुत्रेषु
(छ) तुल्यवत्सला	7. कृषक:

उत्तरम् :

‘क’ स्तम्भ	‘ख’ स्तम्भ
(क) कश्चित्	7. कृषक:
(ख) दुर्बलम्	1. वृषभम्
(ग) क्रुद्ध	3. कृषीवल:
(घ) सहस्राधिकेषु	6. पुत्रेषु
(ङ) अभ्याधिकाः	2. कृपा
(च) विस्मितः	4. आखण्डल:
(छ) तुल्यवत्सला	5. जननी

JAC Class 10th Sanskrit जननी तुल्यवत्सला Important Questions and Answers

शब्दार्थ चयनम् –

अधोलिखित वाक्येषु रेखांकित पदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थ चित्वा लिखत –

प्रश्न 1.
कश्चित् कृषकः बलीवर्दाभ्यां क्षेत्रकर्षणं कुर्वन्नासीत्।
(अ) कर्मकरः
(ब) कृषिबल
(स) वर्दयोः
(द) दुर्बलः
उत्तरम् :
(ब) कृषिबल

प्रश्न 2.
सः ऋषभः हलमूदवा गन्तुमशक्तः क्षेत्रे पपात।
(अ) अपतत्
(ब) आसीत्
(स) वृषभं
(द) प्रपात
उत्तरम् :
(अ) अपतत्

प्रश्न 3.
मातुः सुरभेः नेत्राभ्यामश्रूणि आविरासन्।
(अ) पतिते
(ब) वृषभः
(स) अविरत
(द) कामधेनोः
उत्तरम् :
(द) कामधेनोः

प्रश्न 4.
विनिपातो न वः कश्चिद् दृश्यते त्रिदशाधिप!
(अ) अपृच्छत्
(ब) रोदिषि
(स) इन्द्रः
(द) निपातः
उत्तरम् :
(स) इन्द्रः

प्रश्न 5.
भो वासव! पुत्रस्य दैन्यं दृष्ट्वा अहं रोदिमि।
(अ) वीक्ष्य
(ब) कृत्वा
(स) दीनः
(द) जानन्नपि
उत्तरम् :
(अ) वीक्ष्य

प्रश्न 6.
सः कृच्छ्रेण भारमुबहति।
(अ) कृषक:
(ब) पीडयति
(स) इतरमिव
(द) कष्टेन
उत्तरम् :
(द) कष्टेन

प्रश्न 7.
इन्द्रेण पृष्टा सुरभिः प्रत्यवोचत्।
(अ) अनुयुक्ताः
(ब) वोढुम
(स) शक्नोति
(द) भवान्
उत्तरम् :
(अ) अनुयुक्ताः

प्रश्न 8.
यदि पुत्रसहस्रं मे, सर्वत्र सममेव मे।
(अ) मह्यम्
(ब) नूनम्
(स) सत्वसपि
(द) एतादृशं
उत्तरम् :
(अ) मह्यम्

प्रश्न 9.
बहून्यपत्यानि मे सन्तीति सत्यम्।
(अ) सत्यम्
(ब) उचितम्
(स) विशिष्य
(द) असत्यम्
उत्तरम् :
(ब) उचितम्

प्रश्न 10.
गच्छ वत्से! सर्वं भद्रं जायेत।
(अ) तथापि
(ब) सहजैव इति
(स) सान्त्वयत्
(घ) कल्याणम्
उत्तरम् :
(स) सान्त्वयत्

संस्कृतमाध्यमेन प्रश्नोत्तराणि –

एकपदेन उत्तरत (एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिए)

प्रश्न 1.
कृषक: बलीवर्दाभ्यां किं कुर्वन्नासीत्? (किसान बैलों से क्या कर रहा था?)
उत्तरम् :
क्षेत्रकर्षणम् (खेत की जुताई)।

प्रश्न 2.
जवेन गन्तुं कोऽसमर्थः आसीत्? (तेज चलने में कौन असमर्थ था?)
उत्तरम् :
बलीवर्दः (बैल)।

प्रश्न 3.
वृषभं पतितमवलोक्य का रोदिति स्म (बैल को गिरा हुआ देखकर कौन रोई?)
उत्तरम् :
सुरभिः (गोवंश की माँ)।

प्रश्न 4.
धेनूनाम् माता का? (गायों की माता कौन है?)
उत्तरम् :
सुरभिः (कामधेनु)।

प्रश्न 5.
वृषभं कः पीडयति? (बैल को कौन पीड़ा देता है)
उत्तरम् :
कृषक: (किसान)।

प्रश्न 6.
पतितो वृषभः कथं भारं वहति? (गिरा हुआ बैल भार को कैसे ढोता है?)
उत्तरम् :
कृच्छ्रेण (कठिनाई से)।

प्रश्न 7.
‘बहून्यपत्यानि मे’ इति केनोक्तम्?
(‘बहून्यपत्यानि मे’ पद किसने कहा?)
उत्तरम् :
सुरभ्या (सुरभि द्वारा)।

प्रश्न 8.
जननी कीदृशी भवति?
(जननी कैसी होती है?)
उत्तरम् :
तुल्यवत्सला (समान प्रेम वाली)।

प्रश्न 9.
लोकानां पश्यताम् सर्वत्र किमभवत्?
(लोगों के देखते-देखते सब जगह क्या होता गया?)
उत्तरम् :
जलोपप्लवा (जलभराव)।

प्रश्न 10.
केन सह प्रवर्षः समजायत?
(किसके साथ वृष्टि हुई?)
उत्तरम् :
मेघरवैः
(मेघध्वनि के साथ)।

पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत (पूरे वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)

प्रश्न 11.
सुरभिः कस्मात् रोदिषि?
(सुरभि क्यों रोती है?)
उत्तरम् :
सुरभिः पुत्राय शोचति अत: रोदिषि।
(सुरभि पुत्र का शोक करती है, अत: रोती है।)

प्रश्न 12.
दीनं वृषभं कृषकः कथं व्यवहरति ?
(दीन बैल के साथ किसान कैसा व्यवहार करता है?
उत्तरम् :
सः दीनः इति जानन्नपि तं बहुधा पीडयति।
(वह दीन है, यह जानते हुए भी उसे अनेक प्रकार से पीड़ा देता है।)

प्रश्न 13.
शक्रः सुरभिं कथमसान्त्वयत्?
(इन्द्र ने सुरभि को कैसे सान्त्वना दी?) ।
उत्तरम् :
शक्रः सुरभिमसान्त्वयत्-“गच्छ वत्से? सर्वं भद्रं जायेत।
(इन्द्र ने सुरभि को सान्त्वना दी-जाओ पुत्री! सब कल्याण (भला) हो।

प्रश्न 14.
कथं सर्वत्र जलोपप्लवः सञ्जातः।
(किस प्रकार सब जगह जल भराव हो गया?)
उत्तरम् :
लोकानां पश्यताम् सर्वत्र जलोपप्लवः अभवत्।
(लोगों के देखते-देखते सब जगह जलप्लावन हो गया।)

प्रश्न 15.
एकः बलीवर्दः कीदृशः आसीत्? (एक बैल कैसा था?) ।
उत्तरम् :
एक: बलीवर्दः दुर्बल: जवेन गन्तुमसमर्थः आसीत्।
(एक बैल कमजोर था जो तेज गति से नहीं चल सकता था)

प्रश्न 16.
सुरभिः का आसीत्? (सुरभि कौन थी?)
उत्तरम् :
सुरभिः सर्वधेनूनां जननी आसीत्।
(सुरभि सब गायों की माँ थी।)

प्रश्न 17.
एतस्मिन्नेव वृषभे कस्मात् इयती कृपा? (इस बैल पर इतनी कृपा क्यों है।)
उत्तरम् :
दीनस्थ तुसतः पुत्रस्य अत्यधिका कृपा।
(बेटा अधिक दीन हो तो उस पर अधिक कृपा होती है।)

प्रश्न 18.
कीदृशे पुत्रे जननी अधिकतरं स्नियति?
(कैसे पुत्र पर माँ अधिक प्यार करती है?)
उत्तरम् :
दुर्बले पुत्रे मातुः अत्यधिक कृपा भवेत्।
(कमजोर बच्चे पर माता की अधिक कृपा होती है।)

प्रश्न 19.
दीने पुत्रे माता कीदृशी भवेत्?
(दीनपुत्र पर माता को कैसा होना चाहिए?)
उत्तरम् :
दीनेपुत्रे तु माता कृपार्द्रहृदया भवेत्।
(दीन पुत्र पर तो माता को कृपालु होना चाहिए।)

अन्वय-लेखनम् –

अधोलिखित श्लोकस्य अन्वयमाश्रित्य रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत् –
(क) विनिपातो ……… कौशिकः!
मञ्जूषा – रोदिमि, दृश्यते, पुत्रम्, विनिपातो।

त्रिदशाधिप! वः कश्चिद (1) ……….. न (2) ………..। कौशिकः। अहं तु (3) ………… शोचामि तेन (4) ………….।
उत्तरम् :
1. विनिपातो 2. दृश्यते 3. पुत्रम् 4. रोदिमि।

(ख) यदि ………….. कृपा।।
मञ्जूषा – दीनस्य, पुत्रसहस्रं, अभ्यधिका, सर्वत्र।

यदि मे (1) …………., मे (2) ………… सममेव। शक्र ! (3) …………. पुत्रस्य सत (4)………… कृपा।
उत्तरम् :
1. पुत्रसहस्रं 2. सर्वत्र 3. दीनस्य 4. अभ्यधिका।

मञ्जूषा – दीने, अपत्येषु, कृपाहृदयाभवेत्, तुल्यवत्सला।

(ग) अपत्येषु ……………………… भवेत्।

सर्वेषु (1) ………च जननी (2) ………..। सा माता (3) ……….. पुत्रे तु (4) …………भवेत।
उत्तरम् :
1. अपत्येषु 2. तुल्यवत्सला 3. दीने 4. कृपाईहृदयाभवेत्।

प्रश्ननिर्माणम् –

अधोलिखित वाक्येषु स्थूलपदमाधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत –

1. कृषकः तं दुर्बलं वृषभं तोदनेन नुद्यमानः अवर्तत? (किसान उस दुर्बल बैल को कष्ट देकर धकेल रहा था।)
2. पुत्रस्य दैन्यं दृष्ट्वा रोदिमि। (पुत्र की दीनता को देखकर रोती हैं।)
3. इन्द्रेण पृष्टा सुरक्षित प्रत्यवोचत्। (इन्द्र द्वारा पूछी हुई सुरभि बोली।)
4. यतो हि अयमन्येभ्यः दुर्बलः। (क्योंकि यह अन्यों से दुर्बल है)
5. स च तामेवमसान्त्वयत्। (और उसने उसे इस प्रकार सान्त्वना दी।)
6. कृषक: हर्षातिरेकेण गृहमगात्। (किसान अति प्रसन्नता से घर चला गया।)
7. पुत्रे दीने तु सा माता कृपार्द्र हृदया भवेत्। (दीनपुत्र पर तो उस माता को और भी कृपा होना चाहिये।)
8. वृषभः हलमूदवा क्षेत्रे पपात। (बैल हल को उठाकर खेत में गिर गया।)
9. क्रुद्धः कृषीवलः तमुत्थापयितुं यत्नमकरोत् । (क्रुद्ध किसान ने उसे उठाने का प्रयत्न किया।)
10. भूमौः पतिते स्वपुत्रं दृष्ट्वा सुरभिरागच्छत्। (धरती पर पड़े हुए अपने पुत्र को देखकर सुरभि आ गई।)
उत्तराणि :
1. कृषक: तं दुर्बलं वृषभं केन नुद्यमानः अर्तत?
2. कस्य दैन्यं दृष्ट्वा रोदिमि?
3. केन पृष्टा सुरभिः प्रत्यवोचत्?
4. यतो हि कः अन्येभ्यः दुर्बलः?
5. स च काम् एवम् असान्त्वयत्?
6. कृषक: केन गृहमागच्छत् ?
7. पुत्रे कीदृशे तु सा माता कृपाई हृदया भवेत् ?
8. वृषभ: हलमूदवा कुत्र अपतत् ?
9. कीदृशः कृषीवल: तमुत्थापायितुं यत्नमकरोत् ?
10. कुत्र पतितं स्वपुत्रं दृष्ट्वा सुरभिरगाच्छत् ।

भावार्थ-लेखनम् –

अधोलिखित पद्यांशानां संस्कृते भावार्थं लिखत –

(i) विनिपातो न वः …………………………. तेन रोदिमि कौशिक!।।
भावार्थ – कामधेनोः अवदत्-‘हे देवराज इन्द्र युष्माकं कोऽपि अधःपतन हानिर्वा अहं द्रष्टुं शक्न मि (पश्यामि) हे कुशिक नन्दन! अहं तु आत्मजस्य परितापं करोमि तस्मात् रुदनं करोमि।

(ii) यदि पुत्र सहस्रं ………………………. पुत्रस्याभ्यधिका कृपा।।
भावार्थ – हे देवराज इन्द्र! यद्यपि (चेत्) मे दशशताधिकात्मजा: सर्वेषु स्थानेषु सन्ति परञ्च मह्यं सर्वे एव समानमेव । हे इन्द्र! यदि कश्चित् पुत्र दीनः दयनीयः वा भवति सः अधिकतरं मर्षणीयं भवति।।

(ii) अपत्येषु च सर्वेषु …………………………. कृपाईहदया भवेत् ।।
भावार्थ-माता सर्वासु सन्ततीषु समानभावेन वात्सल्यं प्रदायनी भवति । परञ्च असौ निर्बले आत्मजे अति कृपालु भवेत्।

पाठ-सार –

प्रश्न :
‘जननी तुल्य वत्सला’ इति पाठस्य-सारांशः हिन्दी भाषायां लिखत।
उत्तर :
कोई किसान भूमि जोत रहा था। उन बैलों में से एक शरीर से कमजोर तथा तेज चलने में असमर्थ था। इसी कारण से किसान उस कमजोर बैल को पीड़ा या कष्ट देकर हाँक रहा था। वह बैल हल को धारण करके चलने में असमर्थ धरती पर गिर गया। क्रोधित किसान ने उसे उठाने का अनेक बार प्रयत्न किया फिर भी बैल नहीं उठा। धरती पर गिरे हुए पुत्र (बैल) को देखकर सभी गायों की जननी कामधेनु की आँखों से आँसू प्रकट हो गए। कामधेनु की यह दशा देखकर उससे पूछा “हे कल्याणी! ऐसे क्यों रो रही हो। कहो!” वह बोली-“हे देवराज इन्द्र आपका कोई अध:पतन (हानि) नजर नहीं आ रही है।

मैं तो अपने पुत्र का शोक कर रही हूँ, इस कारण से रो रही हूँ।” हे देवराज! मैं पुत्र की दीनता को देखकर विलाप कर रही हूँ। वह दुखी है, ऐसा जानकर भी किसान उसे कष्ट देता है। वह बैल बड़ी कठिनाई से भार को उठा सकता है। दूसरे बैल की तरह वह बोझा अथवा धुरी को वहन करने योग्य नहीं है। यह सब तुम स्वयं भी देख रहे हो। इस प्रकार उसने उत्तर दिया। कल्याणि यद्यपि तेरे हजारों बेटे हैं फिर भी इस पर ही इतना वात्सल्य क्यों? इन्द्र द्वारा पूछी हुई कामधेनु ने इस प्रकार उत्तर दिया- “यद्यपि मेरे हजारों पुत्र सभी स्थानों पर हैं परन्तु मेरे लिए सभी समान हैं।

हे इन्द्र ! कोई पुत्र दीन अथवा दयनीय हो तो वह अधिक दया का पात्र होता है। बहुत-सी सन्तान मेरी हैं यह उचित ही है फिर भी मैं इस बेटे पर विशेष रूप से अपनी पीड़ा अनुभव क्यों करती हूँ? क्योंकि यह दूसरों से कमजोर है। सभी पुत्रों पर माता समान स्नेह देने वाली होती है। अतः निर्बल पुत्र पर माँ का अनुग्रह स्वाभाविक होता है। कामधेनु के वाक्य को सुनकर अत्यधिक आश्चर्यचकित इन्द्र का हृदय भी द्रवित हो गया तथा वह उस सुरभि को इस प्रकार सान्त्वना देने लगा-जाओ, बेटी सब ठीक हो जायेगा।

शीघ्र ही तेज हवा से मेघ गर्जना के साथ जोर की वर्षा होने लगी। लोगों के देखते-देखते सब जमह पानी भर गया। किसान अत्यधिक प्रसन्न होता हुआ खेत की जुताई छोड़कर बैलों को लेकर घर चला गया। माता सभी सन्तानों पर समान भाव से वात्सल्य प्रदान करने वाली होती है परन्तु उसे निर्बल बेटे पर अत्यधिक कृपालु होना चाहिए।

जननी तुल्यवत्सला Summary and Translation in Hindi

पाठ-परिचय – कृष्ण द्वैपायन वेदव्यास चारों वेदों और अठारह पुराणों के सम्पादक और रचयिता हैं। अत: वेदों का व्यसन करने के कारण वे वेदव्यास के नाम से प्रसिद्ध हैं। इन्हीं महर्षि वेद व्यास की महान रचना है- महाभारत। यह वृहदाकार होने के कारण विश्वकोश माना जाता है। महाभारत में ही कहा गया है –

धर्मे चार्थे च कामे च मोक्षे च भरतर्षभ।
यदिहास्ति तदन्यत्र, यन्नेहास्ति न तत् क्वचित्।।

प्रस्तुत पाठ महर्षि वेदव्यास विरचित ऐतिहासिक ग्रन्थ महाभारत के ‘वन पर्व’ से लिया गया है। यह कथा सभी प्राणियों में समान दृष्टि की भावना का बोध कराती है। इसका वांछित अर्थ है कि समाज में विद्यमान दुर्बल प्राणियों के प्रति भी माँ का वात्सल्य उत्कृष्ट ही होता है।

मूलपाठः,शब्दार्थाः,सप्रसंग, हिन्दी-अनुवादः

1. कश्चित् कृषकः बलीवर्दाभ्यां क्षेत्रकर्षणं कुर्वन्नासीत्। तयोः बलीवर्दयोः एकः शरीरेण दुर्बलः जवेन गन्तुमशक्तश्चासीत्। अत: कृषकः तं दुर्बलं वृषभं तोदनेन नुद्यमानः अवर्तत। सः ऋषभः हलमूदवा गन्तुमशक्तः क्षेत्रे पपात। क्रुद्धः कृषीवल: तमुत्थापयितुं बहुवारम् यत्नमकरोत्। तथापि वृषः नोत्थितः।

शब्दार्थ: – कश्चित् = कोऽपि (कोई), कृषकः = कृषिवल: (किसान), क्षेत्रकर्षणं कुर्वन्नासीत् = भूमि कर्षति स्म (खेत जोत रहा था) तयोः = अमुयोः (उन दोनों में), बलीवर्दयोः = वृषभयोः (बैलों में), एकः = (एक), शरीरेण = वपुसा (शरीर से)। दुर्बलः = निर्बल: (कमजोर), जवेन = वेगेन (तेज), गन्तुम् = गमनाय (जाने में), अशक्त: = असमर्थः (कमजोर) आसीत् = अभवत् (था), अतः = अनेनैव कारणेन (इसलिए), कृषकः = कृषीवल: (किसान), तम् = अमुम् (उसको)। दुर्बलम् =अशक्तम् (कमजोर को), वृषभं = बलीवर्दम् (बैल को)। तोदनम् = वेदनां, कष्टं (कष्ट), नुद्यमानः = प्रेरयन् (हाँकता हुआ), अवर्तत = अभवत् (रहता)। सः वृषभः = असौ बलीवर्दः (वह बैल), हलमूदवा = लाङ्गलं धृत्वा, संधार्य (हल वहन करके), गन्तुमशक्तः = गमनेऽसमर्थः (जाने में असमर्थ)। क्षेत्रे पपात = भूमौ अपतत् (धरती पर गिर गया), क्रुद्धः = प्रकुपितः (नाराज), कृषीवलः = कृषक: (किसान ने), तमुत्थापयितुम् = अमुम् उत्थापनाय (उसे उठाने के लिए), बहुवारम् = अनेकशः (अनेक बार), यत्नमकरोत् = प्रयास कृतवान् (प्रयास किया), तथापि = पुनरपि (फिर भी), वृषः = बलीवर्दः (बैल), नोत्थितः= न उत्थितवान् (नहीं उठा)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गद्यांश हमारी पाठ्यपुस्तक ‘शेमुषी’ के ‘जननी तुल्यवत्सला’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पाठ महर्षि वेदव्यास-कृत महाभारत के वनपर्व से संकलित है। इस गद्यांश में दुर्बल बैल के साथ किसान का व्यवहार वर्णित है।

हिन्दी अनुवादः – कोई किसान दो बैलों से खेत जोत रहा था। उन बैलों में से एक शरीर से कमजोर था, तेज गति से चलने में असमर्थ था। अतः किसान उस कमजोर बैल को कष्ट देता हुआ हाँकता रहता था। हल वहन कर चलने में असमर्थ वह खेत में गिर गया। नाराज हुये किसान ने (उसे) उठाने के लिए अनेक बार प्रयत्न किया फिर भी बैल नहीं उठा।

2. भूमौ पतिते स्वपुत्रं दृष्ट्वा सर्वधेनूनां मातुः सुरभेः नेत्राभ्यामश्रूणि आविरासन्। सुरभेरिमामवस्थां दृष्ट्वा सुराधिपः तामपृच्छत्-“अयि शुभे! किमेवं रोदिषि? उच्यताम्” इति। सा च

विनिपातो न वः कश्चिद् दृश्यते त्रिदशाधिप!।
अहं तु पुत्रं शोचामि, तेन रोदिमि कौशिक!।।

शब्दार्थाः – भमौ = धरायाम (धरती पर). पतिते = गलिते (गिरने पर), स्वपत्रम = आत्मजम (बे सर्वधेनूनां = सर्वासां गवाम् (सब गायों की), मातुः = जनन्या (माता), सुरभैः = कामधेनोः (कामधेनु के) नेत्राभ्याम् = नयनाभ्याम् (आँखों में), अश्रूणिः = वाष्पं, नेत्रजलम् (आँसू), आविरासन् = प्रकटिताः (निकल आये)। सुरभेः = कामधेनोः (कामधेनु की), इमां = एतद् (इस), अवस्थाम् = दशां, स्थितिम् (हालत को), दृष्ट्वा = विलोक्य (देखकर), ताम् = अमूम् (उसको), अपृच्छत् = पृष्टवान् (पूछा), अयि = भोः (अरी), शुभे = कल्याणि (कल्याणी), किम् एवम् = कस्मात् अनेन प्रकारेण (इस प्रकार क्यों),

रोदिषि = रोदनं करोषि (रो रही हो), उच्यताम् = कथ्यताम्, ब्रूहि (कहो), इति = एवम् (इस प्रकार), सा च = असौ च (और वह), त्रिदशाधिपः = देवराजः इन्द्रः (देवराज इन्द्र), वः = युष्माकम् (तुम्हारा), कश्चिद् = कोऽसि (कोई कुछ भी), विनिपातः = अनादरः, अध: पतनं (हानि, बर्वादी), दृश्यते = द्रष्टुं शक्नोति (देख सकता), कौशिकः = हे कुशिक नन्दन (हे विश्वामित्र), अहम् तु = (मैं तो) पुत्रं = आत्मजम् (बेटे का), शोचामि = परितापं करोमि (शोक कर रही हूँ), तेन = तस्मात् कारणात् (उसकी वजह से), रोदिमि = रुदनं करोमि (रोती हूँ)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – (यह गद्यांश हमारी पाठ्यपुस्तक ‘शेमुषी’ के ‘जननी तुल्यवत्सला’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पाठ महर्षि वेदव्यास-कृत महाभारत के वनपर्व से सङ्कलित है। इस गद्यांश में गायों में प्रमुख कामधेनु का वात्सल्य वर्णन है।

हिन्दी अनुवादः – भूमि पर गिरे हुए अपने पुत्र (बैल) को देखकर सभी गायों की माता कामधेनु की आँखों में आँस भर आये। कामधेनु की इस अवस्था को देखकर देवराज इन्द्र बोले-अरी कल्याणी! ऐसे क्यों रो रही हो। कहो। और वह (बोली) “हे देवराज इन्द्र तुम्हारा कोई अनादर (क्षय) दिखाई नहीं देता।” हे विश्वामित्र! मैं तो बेटे का शोक कर रही हूँ। अतः रो रही हूँ।

3. “भो वासव! पुत्रस्य दैन्यं दृष्ट्वा अहं रोदिमि। सः दीन इति जानन्नपि कृषकः तं बहुधा पीडयति। सः कृच्छ्रेण भारमुबहति। इतरमिव धुरं वोढुं सः न शक्नोति। एतत् भवान् पश्यति न?” इति प्रत्यवोचत्।
“भद्रे! नूनम्! सहस्राधिकेषु पुत्रेषु सत्स्वपि तव अस्मिन्नेव एतादृशं वात्सल्यं कथम्?” इति इन्द्रेण पृष्टा सुरभिः प्रत्यवोचत्।

यदि पुत्रसहस्रं मे, सर्वत्र सममेव मे।
दीनस्य तु सतः शुक्र! पुत्रस्याभ्यधिका कृपा।।

शब्दार्था: – भो वासव! = हे देवराज इन्द्र! (हे इन्द्र), पुत्रस्य = आत्मजस्य (पुत्र की), दैन्यम् = दीनताम् (दीनता को), दृष्ट्वा वीक्ष्य (देखकर), अहं रोदिमि = अहम् विलपामि (विलाप कर रही हूँ), स: = असौ (वह), दीनः विषण्णः (दुखी), इति एव (इतना), जानन्नपि ज्ञात्वापि (जानते हुए भी), कृषक: कृषीवल (किसान), तम् अमुम् (उसे), पीडयति = तुदति, क्लिश्नाति (दुख देता है), सः = असौ वृषः (वह बैल), कृच्छ्रेण = काठिन्येन, कष्टेन (कठिनाई से), भारमुवहति = भारमुत्थापयति (वजन उठाता है), इतरमिव अपरमिव (दूसरे बैल के समान), सः = असौ (वह), धुरम् अक्षम्, भारम् (धुरी को, बोझ को) वोढुम वहनाययोग्य (वहन करने योग्य), न = नैव (नहीं), शक्नोति = सकता, एतत् इदम् (इसे), भवान् त्वम् (तुम), पश्यति न = अवलोकयसि न (देख रहे हो न), इति एवं (इस प्रकार), प्रत्यवोचत् = उत्तरं दत्तवती (जवाब दिया), भद्रे = कल्याणि (कल्याणी), नूनम् निश्चयेन (निश्चित ही), सहस्राधिकेषु = दशशताधिकेषु (हजारों से अधिकों में),

पुत्रेषु = आत्मजेषु, सुतेषु, तनयेषु (बेटों में/पर), सत्वसपि भवत्स्वपि (होते हुए भी), तवते (तेरा), अस्मिन्ने = अस्योपरि एव (इस पर ही), एतादृशं इयत् (इतना, ऐसा), वात्सल्यम् वत्सलता, स्नेहभावः (प्रेम), कथम् कस्मात् (कैसे), इति एवं (इस प्रकार), इन्द्रेण वासवेन (इन्द्र द्वारा), पृष्टा = अनुयुक्ता (पूछी गई), सुरभिः = कामधेनुः (कामधेनु), प्रत्यवोचत् उत्तरं दत्तवती (उत्तर दिया, जवाब में बोली), यदि-चेत् (यदि), मे = मम (मेरे), पुत्रसहस्र-दशशत् आत्मज (हजारों पुत्र), सर्वत्र सर्वेषु स्थानेषु (सब जगह), मे मह्यम् (मुझे, मेरे लिए), सममेव = समानमेव (समान ही है), शक्र! हे इन्द्र (हे इन्द्र), दीनस्य तु पुत्रस्य = यदि पुत्रः दीनः भवति (यदि पुत्र दुखी हो तो), अत्यधिका कृपा = अधिकतरः मर्षणीयम्, मर्षणम् (और भी अधिक कृपा होती है।)

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गद्यांश हमारी पाठ्यपुस्तक ‘शेमुषी’ के ‘जननी तुल्य वत्सला’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पाठ महर्षि वेदव्यास-कृत महाभारत के वनपर्व से सङ्कलित है। इस गद्यांश में सुरभि शोक और रोदन का कारण बताती है।

हिन्दी अनुवादः – “हे इन्द्र! पुत्र की दीनता देखकर मैं रो रही हूँ। वह दीन है, ऐसा जानते हुए भी किसान उसे बहुत पीड़ा दे रहा है। वह कठिनाई से बोझ उठाता है। दूसरे बैल की तरह से वह धुर को वहन नहीं कर सकता है। यह आप देख रहे हैं न”। ऐसा उत्तर दिया।

“कल्याणि! नि:संदेह हजारों पुत्र होते हुए भी तुम्हारा इस पर इतना प्रेम (वात्सल्य) क्यों है? ऐसा इन्द्र के पूछने पर सुरभि ने उत्तर में कहा
यदि (यद्यपि) हजारों पुत्र हैं मेरे। वे सब जगह मेरे लिए समान हैं। हे इन्द्र! पुत्र के दीन होने पर तो उस पर और भी अधिक कृपा होती है।

4. ‘बहून्यपत्यानि मे सन्तीति सत्यम्। तथाप्यहमेतस्मिन् पुत्रे विशिष्य आत्मवेदनाममनुभवामि। यतो हि अयमन्येभ्यो दुर्बलः। सर्वेष्वपत्येषु जननी तुल्यवत्सला एव। तथापि दुर्बले सुते मातुः अभ्यधिका कृपा सहजैव’ इति। सुरभिवचनं श्रुत्वा भृशं विस्मितस्याखण्डलस्यापि हृदयमद्रवत्। स च तामेवमसान्त्वयत्- “गच्छ वत्से! सर्वं भद्रं जायेत।”

शब्दार्था: – बहून्यपत्यानि = बहवः पुत्राः, सन्ततयः (बहुत से बच्चे), मे = मम् (मेरे), सन्ति वर्तन्ते (हैं), सत्यम्-उचितम् (सच), तथापि = पुनरपि (फिर भी), अहमेतस्मिन् = अहमस्मिन् (मैं इसमें, इस पर), पुत्रे-आत्मजे (बेटे पर), विशिष्य-विशेष रूपेण (विशेष रूप से), आत्मवेदनाम् स्वस्यपीडाम् (अपनी पीड़ा का), अनुभवामि = अनुभवं करोमि (अनुभव कर रही हूँ), यतोहि = यस्मात् हि (क्योंकि), अयम् एषः (यह), अन्येभ्य = अपरेभ्यः (और से), दुर्बल: = अशक्तः, निर्बलः (कमजोर), सर्वेषु = अखिलेषु (सभी में), अपत्येषु = पुत्रेषु, जातेषु (बच्चों में), जननी = माता (माँ), तुल्यवत्सला एव = समान स्नेहवती (एक समान) स्नेह करने वाली होती है), तथापि पुनरपि (फिर भी), दुर्बले निर्बले (कमजोर), सुते = पुत्रे (बेटे पर), मातुः जनन्याः (माँ की), अभ्यधिका = प्रभूताम् (अधिकतर), कृपा अनुग्रहः (महरबानी), सहजैव इति स्वाभाविकी एव (स्वाभाविक है), सुरभिवचनं कामधेनोः वाक्यं (कामधेनु की बात), श्रुत्वा = आकर्ण्य, निशम्य (सुनकर), भृशं = अत्यधिकम् (बहुत), विस्मितस्याखण्डलस्यापि आश्चर्यचकितस्य इन्द्रस्य अपि (आश्चर्यचकित इन्द्र का भी), हृदयम् = मानसम् (हृदय), अद्रवत् = द्रवितोऽभवत् (पिघल गया), सः च असौ च (और उसने), ताम् अमूम् (उसे), एवम् अनेन प्रकारेण (इस प्रकार), सान्त्वयत् सान्त्वनां प्रदत्तवान् (सान्त्वना प्रदान की) गच्छ याहि (जाओ) वत्से बालिके (बच्ची), सर्वम्स कलम् (सब), भद्रम् कल्याणम् (भला), जायेत = भवेत (हो)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गद्यांश हमारी पाठ्यपुस्तक ‘शेमुषी’ के ‘जननी तुल्यवत्सला’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पाठ महर्षि वेदव्यास-कृत् महाभारत के वनपर्व से सङ्कलित है। इस गद्यांश में इन्द्र सुरभि के तुल्य वात्सल्य भाव को जानकर उसे सान्त्वना प्रदान करता है।

हिन्दी अनुवादः – यह सच है कि मेरे बहुत सी सन्तान हैं, फिर भी मैं इस बेटे पर विशेष रूप से आत्मवेदना का अनुभव कर रही हूँ। क्योंकि यह औरों से कमजोर है, सभी सन्तानों पर माता का समान वात्सल्य होता है। फिर भी कमजोर बेटे पर अधिक महरबानी स्वाभाविक होती है। सुरभि के वचन सुनकर अत्यधिक आश्चर्यचकित इन्द्र का भी हृदय द्रवित हो गया (पिघल गया) और उसने उसे इस प्रकार सान्त्वना प्रदान की- ‘जाओ बेटी! सब का कल्याण हो।

5. अचिरादेव चण्डवातेन मेघरवैश्च सह प्रवर्षः समजायत। लोकानां पश्यताम् एव सर्वत्र जलोपप्लवः सञ्जातः। कृषकः हर्षातिरेकेण कर्षणविमुखः सन् वृषभौ नीत्वा गृहमगात्।

अपत्येषु च सर्वेषु जननी तुल्यवत्सला।
पुत्रे दीने तु सा माता कृपाईहृदया भवेत् ।।

शब्दार्थाः – अचिरादेव = शीघ्रमेव (जल्दी ही), चण्डवातेन-वेगयुता वायुना, तीव्र वायुना (तेज हवा द्वारा), मेघरवैः = वारिद गर्जनेन (मेघों की गर्जना से) सह प्रवर्षः = वृष्टिसहितम् (वर्षा समेत), समजायत = समभवत् (हो गई), लोकानाम् मनुष्याणाम् (लोगों के), पश्यताम् पश्यन्नेव (देखते-देखते), सर्वत्र = सर्वेषु स्थानेषु (सब जगह) जलोपप्लव: = जलप्लाव (जलोत्पात), सञ्जातः = अभवत् (हो गया), कृषक: = कृषिवल: (किसान), हर्षातिरेकेण = अत्यधिक प्रसन्नतया (अत्यधिक प्रसन्नता से), कर्षण विमुख = कर्षण कार्यात् विमुखः सन् (जोतने से रुककर), वृषभौ = बलीवी (बैलों को लेकर), गृहमगात् = गृहमगच्छत् (घर को चला गया), जननी = माता (माता), सर्वेषु = सकलेषु (सभी पर), अपत्येषु = सन्ततीषु आत्मजेषु (सन्तान पर), तुल्य = समान भावेन (समान भाव से), वत्सला = वात्सल्य स्नेह भावेन, युता भवति (वात्सल्य या स्नेह से युक्त होती है), परञ्च (परंतु) दीन = दयनीय (निर्बल), पुत्रे = आत्मजे (बेटे पर), तुसा = तु असौ (तो वह), कृपा = कृपया आर्द्र हृदयं यस्याः सा (कृपा से जिसका हृदय आर्द्र है), भवेत् = स्यात् (होनी चाहिए)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह गद्यांश हमारी पाठ्यपुस्तक ‘शेमुषी’ के ‘जननी तुल्यवत्सला’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पाठ महर्षि वेदव्यास-कृत महाभारत के वनपर्व से सङ्कलित है। इस गद्यांश में वर्णित है कि भाग्य से वर्षा हो जाती है, प्रसन्न किसान बैलों को लेकर घर चला गया, जिससे दीन बैल की जान सुरक्षित हो जाती है।

हिन्दी अनुवादः – शीघ्र ही तेज वायु से मेघों की गर्जना के साथ वर्षा हो गई। लोगों के देखते-देखते सब जगह जलभराव हो गया। किसान अत्यन्त प्रसन्नता के साथ हल जोतना छोड़कर बैलों को लेकर घर चला गया। माता सभी सन्तानों को समान वात्सल्य (स्नेह) प्रदान करती है। परन्तु जो पुत्र दीन होता है उस माता को उस पुत्र पर तो अधिक कृपा से आर्द्र हृदय (कृपालु) होना चाहिए।

Jharkhand Board JAC Class 10 Sanskrit Solutions Shemushi Chapter 4 शिशुलालनम् Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

JAC Board Class 10th Sanskrit Solutions Shemushi Chapter 4 शिशुलालनम्

JAC Class 10th Sanskrit शिशुलालनम् Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न 1.
एकपदेन उत्तरं लिखत (एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए)
(क) कुशलवौ कम् उपसृत्य प्रणमतः ?
(कुश और लव किसके पास जाकर प्रणाम करते हैं?)
(ख) तपोवन वासिनः कुशस्य मातरं केन नाम्ना आह्वयन्ति?
(तपोवनवासी कुश की माता को किस नाम से बुलाते हैं?)
(ग) वयोऽनुरोधात् कः लालनीयः भवति?
(उम्र के कारण कौन लाड़ करने योग्य होता है?)
(घ) केन सम्बन्धेन वाल्मीकिः लव कुशयोः गुरुः?
(किस संबंध से वाल्मीकि लव-कुश के गुरु हैं?)
(ङ) कुत्र लवकुशयोः पितुः नाम न व्यवह्रियते?
(लव-कुश के पिता का नाम कहाँ व्यवहार में नहीं लाया जाता ?)
उत्तरम्
(क) रामम्
(ख) देवी
(ग) शिशुजन: (बच्चे)
(घ) उपनयनोपदेशेन (यज्ञोपवीत संस्कार (दीक्षा) के कारण
(ङ) तपोवने (तपोवन में)।

प्रश्न 2.
अधोलिखितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतभाषया लिखत –
(निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए)
(क) रामाय कुशलवयोः कण्ठाश्लेषस्य स्पर्शः कीदृशः आसीत् ?
(राम के लिए कुश और लव को गले लगाने का स्पर्श कैसा था ?)
उत्तरम् :
रामाय कुशलवयोः कण्ठाश्लेषस्य स्पर्शः हृदयग्राही आसीत्।
(राम के लिए कुश-लव को गले लगाने का स्पर्श हृदयग्राही था।)

(ख) रामः लवकुशौ कुत्र उपवेशयितुं कथयति ?
(राम लव-कुश को कहाँ बैठने के लिए कहते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
रामः लवकुशौ आसनार्धमुपवेशयितुं कथयति।
(राम लव-कुश को आधे आसन पर बैठने के लिए कहते हैं।)

(ग) बालभावात् हिमकरः कुत्र विराजते ?
(बालभाव के कारण चन्द्रमा कहाँ शोभा देता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
बालभावात् हिमकरः पशुपति-मस्तके विराजते।
(बालभाव के कारण चन्द्रमा शिव के शिर पर शोभा देता है।)

(घ) कुशलवयोः वंशस्य कर्ता कः ?
(कुश और लव के वंश का कर्ता कौन है ?)
उत्तरम् :
कुशलवयोः वंशस्य कर्ता सहस्रदीधितिः। (कुश-लव के वंश का कर्ता सूर्य है।)

(ङ) कुशलवयोः मातरं वाल्मीकिः केन नाम्ना आह्वयति ?
(कुश-लव की माता को वाल्मीकि किस नाम से पुकारते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
कुशलवयोः मातरं वाल्मीकिः ‘वधूः’ इति नाम्ना आह्वयति।
(कुश-लव की माता को वाल्मीकि ‘बह के नाम से पुकारते हैं।)

प्रश्न 3.
रेखाङ्कितपदेषु विभक्ति तत्कारणंच उदाहरणानुसारं निर्दिशत –
(रेखाङ्कित पदों में विभक्ति-कारण का उदाहरणानुसार निर्देश कीजिए)
यथा – राजन् ! अलम् अतिदाक्षिण्येन। (महाराज ! अधिक दक्षता मत करो।)
उत्तरम् :
तृतीया विभक्ति। ‘अलम्’ के योग में तृतीया।

(क) रामः लवकुशौ आसनार्धम् उपवेशयति। (राम लवकुश को आधे आसन पर बैठाते हैं।)
उत्तरम् :
द्वितीया। ‘उप’ योगे (उप + विश्) के योग में।

(ख) धिङ्माम् एवं भृतम्। (इस प्रकार के मुझको धिक्कार है।)
उत्तरम् :
द्वितीया। ‘धिक्’ के योग में।

(ग) अङ्क-व्यवहितम् अध्यास्यतां सिंहासनम्। (गोदी में बने आसन पर बैठिए।)
उत्तरम् :
द्वितीया। अधिशीङ्स्थासां कर्म
(‘अधि’ उपसर्गपूर्वक शी, स्था तथा आस् धातु के योग में द्वितीया।)

(घ) अलम् अतिविस्तरेण। (अधिक विस्तार मत करो।)
उत्तरम् :
तृतीया। ‘अलम्’ के योग में तृतीया।

(ङ) रामम् उपसृत्य प्रणम्य च।।
उत्तरम् :
‘उप’ उपसर्ग के योग में ‘राम’ में द्वितीया।

प्रश्न 4.
यथानिर्देशम् उत्तरम्त् –
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तरम् दीजिए)
(क) ‘जानाम्यहं तस्य नामधेयम्’ अस्मिन् वाक्ये कर्तृ पदं किम्?
(इस वाक्य में कर्ता क्या है?)
उत्तरम् :
अहम् (मैं)।

(ख) ‘किं कुपिता एवं भणति उत प्रकृतिस्था’ अस्मात् वाक्यात् ‘हर्षिता’ इति पदस्य विपरीतार्थकं पदं चित्वा
लिखत।
(‘क्या नाराज हुई इस तरह कहते हो अथवा स्वाभाविक, इस वाक्य से ‘हर्षिता’ पद का विलोम लिखिए।)
उत्तरम् :
कुपिता (नाराज)

(ग) विदूषकः (उपसृत्य) ‘आज्ञापयतु भवान्’ अत्र भवान् इति पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(‘आज्ञापयतु भवान्’ में भवान् पद किसके लिए प्रयोग हुआ है?)
उत्तरम् :
रामाय (राम के लिए)।

(घ) ‘तस्मादङ्क-व्यवह्नितम् अध्यासाताम् सिंहासनम्’ अत्र क्रियापदं किम्’?
(‘तस्मादङ्क’ आदि वाक्य में क्रिया पद क्या है?)
उत्तरम् :
अध्यासाताम् (विराजिए)।

(ङ) ‘वयसस्तु न किञ्चिदान्तरम्’ अत्र ‘आयुषः’ इत्यर्थे किं पदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(‘वयसस्तु’ आदि वाक्य में आयुषः के अर्थ में क्या शब्द प्रयुक्त हुआ है?)
उत्तरम् :
वयसः (आयु का)।

प्रश्न 5.
अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि कः कं प्रति कथयति –
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को कौन किससे कहता है -)
उत्तरम् :

प्रश्न 6.
(अ) मञ्जूषातः पर्यायद्वयं चित्वा पदानां समक्षं लिखत
[मञ्जूषा (बॉक्स) में से दो पर्यायवाची शब्द चुनकर पदों के सामने लिखिए-]
शिवः, शिष्टाचारः, शशिः, चन्द्रशेखरः, सुतः, इदानीम्, अधुना, पुत्रः, सूर्यः, सदाचारः, निशाकरः, भानुः।
(क) हिमकरः
(ख) सम्प्रति
(ग) समुदाचारः
(घ) पशुपतिः
(ङ) तनयः
(च) सहस्रदीधितिः।
उत्तरम् :
(क) हिमकरः = शशिः, निशाकरः
(ख) सम्प्रति = अधुना, इदानीम्
(ग) समुदाचारः = शिष्टाचारः, सदाचारः
(घ) पशुपतिः = चन्द्रशेखरः, शिवः
(ङ) तनयः = सुतः, पुत्रः
(च) सहस्रदीधितिः = सूर्यः, भानुः।

(आ) विशेषण-विशेष्यपदानि योजयत (विशेषण-विशेष्य पदों को जोड़िए) –
विशेषणपदानि – विशेष्यपदानि
यथा – श्लाघ्या – कथा
1. उदात्तरम्यः (क) समुदाचारः
2. अतिदीर्घः (ख) स्पर्शः
3. समरूपः (ग) कुशलवयोः
4. हृदयग्राही (घ) प्रवास:
5. कुमारयोः (ङ) कुटुम्बवृत्तान्तः।
उत्तरम् :
1. उदात्तरम्यः (क) समुदाचारः
2. अतिदीर्घः (घ) प्रवास:
3. समरूपः (ङ) कुटुम्बवृत्तान्तः।
4. हृदयग्राही (ख) स्पर्शः
5. कुमारयोः (ग) कुशलवयोः

प्रश्न 7.
(क) अधोलिखितपदेषु सन्धिं कुरुत (निम्नलिखित पदों में सन्धि कीजिए)
(क) द्वयोः + अपि
(ख) द्वौ + अपि
(ग) क: + अत्र
(घ) अनभिज्ञः + अहम्
(ङ) इति + आत्मानम्।
उत्तरम् :
(क) द्वयोरपि,
(ख) द्वावपि,
(ग) कोऽत्र,
(घ) अनभिज्ञोऽहम्,
(ङ) इत्यात्मानम्।

(ख) अधोलिखितपदेषु सन्धिविच्छेदं कुरुत –
(निम्नलिखित पदों का सन्धि-विच्छेद कीजिए)
(क) अहमप्येतयोः
(ख) वयोऽनुरोधात्
(ग) समानाभिजनौ
(घ) खल्वेतत्
उत्तरम् :
(क) अहमप्येतयोः = अहम + अपि + एतयोः
(ख) वयोऽनुरोधात् = वयः + अनुरोधात्
(ग) समानाभिजनौ = समान + अभिजनौ
(घ) खल्वेतत् = खलु + एतत्।

JAC Class 10th Sanskrit शिशुलालनम् Important Questions and Answers

शब्दार्थ चयनम् –

अधोलिखित वाक्येषु रेखांकित पदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थ चित्वा लिखत –

प्रश्न 1.
रामस्य समीपम् उपसृत्य प्रणम्य च।
(अ) उपगम्य
(ब) प्रविशतः
(स) तापसी
(द) कुशलवौ
उत्तरम् :
(अ) उपगम्य

प्रश्न 2.
राजासनं खल्वेतत्, न युक्तमध्यासितुम्।
(अ) रामस्य समीपम्
(ब) प्रणम्य
(स) सिंहासनम्
(द) महाराजस्य
उत्तरम् :
(ब) प्रणम्य

प्रश्न 3.
भवति शिशुजनो वयोऽनुरोधाद् गुणमहतामपि लालनीय एव।
(अ) भवतोः
(ब) परिष्वज्य
(स) राजासनम्
(द) बालको
उत्तरम् :
(द) बालको

प्रश्न 4.
एष भवतोः सौन्दर्यावलोकजनितेन कौतूहलेन पृच्छामि।
(अ) भवतोः
(ब) अयम्।
(स) कौतूहलेन
(द) क्षत्रियकुल
उत्तरम् :
(ब) अयम्।

प्रश्न 5.
समरूपः शरीरसन्निवेशः। वयसस्तु न किञ्चिदन्तरम्।
(अ) आयुसः
(ब) वंशयोः
(स) कथम्
(द) सोदयौँ
उत्तरम् :
(अ) आयुसः

प्रश्न 6.
आर्यस्य वन्दनायां लव इत्यात्मानं श्रावयामि।
(अ) युज्यते
(ब) श्रोता
(स) निर्दिश्य
(द) निवेदयामि
उत्तरम् :
(द) निवेदयामि

प्रश्न 7.
अहमत्रभवतोः जनकं नामतो वेदितुमिच्छामि।
(अ) सम्बन्धेन
(ब) पितरम्
(स) उपनयन
(द) जननी
उत्तरम् :
(ब) पितरम्

प्रश्न 8.
न कश्चिदस्मिन् तपोवने तस्य नाम व्यवहरति।
(अ) अमुष्य
(ब) कश्चित्
(स) व्यवहरति
(द) वयस्य
उत्तरम् :
(अ) अमुष्य

प्रश्न 9.
एवं तावत् पृच्छामि निरनुक्रोश इति क एवं भणति ?
(अ) विचिन्त्य
(ब) कुपिता
(स) प्रपात
(द) कथयति
उत्तरम् :
(द) कथयति

प्रश्न 10.
किं कुपिता एवं भणति, उत प्रकृतिस्था ?
(अ) क्रुद्धा
(ब) तपस्विनी
(स) स्वापत्यमेव
(घ) निर्भर्त्सयति
उत्तरम् :
(अ) क्रुद्धा

संस्कृतमाध्यमेन प्रश्नोत्तराणि –

एकपदेन उत्तरत (एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिए)

प्रश्न 1.
विदूषकः कान् मार्ग दर्शयति ?
(विदूषक किनको मार्गदर्शन करता है?)
उत्तरम् :
लवकुशौ।

प्रश्न 2.
कुशलवी कम् उपसृत्य प्रणमतः ?
(कुश और लव किसके पास जा कर प्रणाम करते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
रामम्।

प्रश्न 3.
रामः सौन्दर्यावलोकजनितेन कुतूहलेन कं पृच्छति ?
(राम सौन्दर्य देखने से उत्पन्न आश्चर्य से किसको पूछते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
कुशलवौ (लव-कुश को)।

प्रश्न 4.
कुशस्य समुदाचारः कीदृशः ?
(कुश का सदाचार कैसा है ?)
उत्तरम् :
उदात्तरम्यः (अत्यन्त रमणीय)।

प्रश्न 5.
कुशः स्वपितुः किं नाम न्यवेदयत् ?
(कुश ने अपने पिता का क्या नाम बताया ?)
उत्तरम् :
निरनुक्रोशः (निर्दयी)।

प्रश्न 6.
कशलवयोः जनकस्य निरनुक्रोशः इति नाम केन कतम् ?
(लवकुश के पिता का नाम निर्दयी किसने रखा ?)
उत्तरम् :
अम्बया (सीतया)।

प्रश्न 7.
लवकुशयोः जननीं ‘वधूः’ शब्देन कः आह्वयति ?
(लव-कुश की माँ को ‘वधू’ शब्द से कौन बुलाता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
वाल्मीकिः।

प्रश्न 8.
रामस्य कुमारयोः च कुटुम्बवृत्तान्तः कीदृशः ?
(राम और कुमारों का कुटुम्ब-वृत्तान्त कैसा है ?)
उत्तरम् :
समरूपः (समान)।

प्रश्न 9.
रामेण कः सम्माननीयः नाट्यांशानुसारम् ?
(नाट्यांश के अनुसार राम के द्वारा क्या सम्माननीय है ?)
उत्तरम् :
मुनिनियोगः (मुनि का कार्य)।

प्रश्न 10.
रामः किं श्रोतुम् इच्छति ?
(राम क्या सुनना चाहते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
सुहृद्जनसाधारणम् (सामान्य सुहद्जनों को)।

प्रश्न 11.
अतिथिजन-समुचितः कः आचारः ?
(अतिथि जनोचित क्या आचार बताया है ?)
उत्तरम् :
कण्ठाश्लेषः (गले लगना)।

प्रश्न 12.
रामः कुत्र स्थितः आसीत् ?
(राम कहाँ बैठे थे ?)
उत्तरम् :
सिंहासनस्य / सिंहासने (सिंहासन पर)।

प्रश्न 13.
कुशलवयोः वंशस्य कर्ता कः आसीत् ?
(कुश और लव के वंश का कर्ता (पूर्वज) कौन था ?)
उत्तरम् :
सहस्रदीधितिः (सूर्य)।

प्रश्न 14.
रामः कशलवौ केन (कथ) पच्छति ?
(राम कश लव को किससे (कैसे) पछते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
कुतूहलेन (आश्चर्य से)।

प्रश्न 15.
कुशलवयोः गुरोः नाम किम् आसीत् ?
(कुश और लव के गुरु का नाम क्या था ?)
उत्तरम् :
वाल्मीकिः (वाल्मीकि)।

प्रश्न 16.
वाल्मीकिः कुशलवयोः केन सम्बन्धेन गुरु आसीत् ?
(वाल्मीकि लव-कुश के किस सम्बन्ध से गुरु थे ?)
उत्तरम् :
उपनयनोपदेशेन (यज्ञोपवीत संस्कार से)।

प्रश्न 17.
लवः स्वमातुः कति नामानि कथयति?
(लव अपनी माँ के कितने नाम बताता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
द्वे (दो)।

प्रश्न 18.
तपोवनवासिनः कुशलवयोः मातरं केन नाम्ना आवयन्ति ?
(तपोवन के वासी कुश-लव की माता को किस नाम से बुलाते हैं ?)
उत्तरम् :
‘देवी’ इति (देवी)।

प्रश्न 19.
कस्य वेला सञ्जाता ?
(किसका समय हो गया ?)
उत्तरम् :
रामायणगानस्य (रामायण-गान का)।

प्रश्न 20.
लवकुशौ कः त्वरयति ?
(लव कुश को जल्दी कौन कराता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
उपाध्यायदूतः (गुरुंजी का दूत)।
पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत (पूरे वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)

प्रश्न 21.
यदा रामः कुशलवौ आसनार्धम् उपवेष्टुं निर्दिशति तदा तौ किम् अकथयताम् ?
(जब राम ने कुश और लव को आधे आसन पर बैठने का निर्देश दिया तब उन्होंने क्या कहा ?)
उत्तरम् :
तदा तौ अकथयताम् – ‘राजासनम् खलु एतत्, न युक्तम् अध्यासितुम्।’
(तब उन्होंने कहा – ‘यह राजा का आसन है, बैठना उचित नहीं’।)

प्रश्न 22.
कौतूहलेन रामः किम् अपृच्छत् ? (आश्चर्य से राम ने क्या पूछा ?)
उत्तरम् :
क्षत्रियकुलपितामहयोः सूर्यचन्द्रयोः को वा भवतो वंशस्य कर्ता ?।
(क्षत्रिय ‘कुल’ के पितामहों, सूर्य और चन्द्र में से तुम्हारे वंश का कर्ता/पूर्वज कौन है?)

प्रश्न 23.
कुशलवयोः पितुः नाम कः जानाति ?
(लवकुश के पिता का नाम कौन जानता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
नाट्यांशानुसारं स्वपितुः नाम कुश: जानाति।
(नाट्यांश के अनुसार अपने पिता का नाम कुश जानता है।)

प्रश्न 24.
नाट्यांशानुसारं कुतूहलेनाविष्टो रामः किं वेदितुम् ऐच्छत् ?
(नाट्यांश के अनुसार आश्चर्यचकित राम क्या जानना चाहते थे ?)
उत्तरम् :
कुतूहलेनाविष्टः रामः कुशलवयोः मातरं नामतः वेदितुम् ऐच्छत्।
(आश्चर्यचकित राम लव-कुश की माता को नाम से जानना चाहते थे।)

प्रश्न 25.
रामायणस्य सन्दर्भः कीदृशः ?
(रामायण का सन्दर्भ कैसा है ?)
उत्तरम् :
रामायणस्य सन्दर्भः वसुमती प्रथममवतीर्णः गिरां सन्दर्भः।
(रामायण का सन्दर्भ पृथ्वी पर पहली बार अवतीर्ण हुआ वाणी का सन्दर्भ है।)

प्रश्न 26.
कुशलवौ केनोपदिश्यमानमार्गों प्रविशतः ?
(कुश और लव किसके द्वारा मार्ग-निर्देश किए जाते हुए प्रवेश करते हैं?)
उत्तरम् :
कुशलवौ विदूषकेणोपदिश्यमानमार्गों प्रविशतः।
(कुश और लव विदूषक द्वारा मार्ग-निर्देश किए जाते हुए प्रवेश करते हैं।)

प्रश्न 27.
रामस्य कौतूहलः केन जनितः आसीत् ?
(राम का आश्चर्य किससे उत्पन्न हुआ ?)
उत्तरम् :
रामस्य कौतूहल: कुशलवयोः सौन्दर्यावलोकजनितः आसीत्।
(राम का आश्चर्य कुश और लव के सौन्दर्य से उत्पन्न था।)

प्रश्न 28.
रामेण तपोवनस्य किं माहात्म्यम् मतम् ?
(राम ने तपोवन का क्या माहात्म्य माना ?)
उत्तरम् :
यतः तपोवने कुशलवयोः जनकस्य कोऽपि नाम न व्यवहरति।
(क्योंकि तपोवन में लव-कुश के पिता का कोई नाम नहीं लेता है।)

प्रश्न 29.
रामानुसारः प्रवासः कीदृशः भवति ?
(राम के अनुसार प्रवास कैसा होता है ?)
उत्तरम् :
रामानुसारः प्रवासः अतिदीर्घः दारुणश्च।
(राम के अनुसार प्रवास अत्यन्त लम्बा और कठोर है।)

प्रश्न 30.
रामायणस्य कविः कीदृशः ?
(रामायण का कवि कैसा है ?)
उत्तरम् :
रामायणस्य कवि पुराण: व्रतनिधिः च।
(रामायण का कवि पुरातन और तपोनिधि है।)

अन्वय-लेखनम् –

अधोलिखितश्लोकस्यान्वयमाश्रित्य रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत –
(नीचे लिखे श्लोक के अन्वय के आधार पर रिक्तस्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए)

1. भवति ……… केतकच्छदत्वम् ॥
मञ्जूषा – पशुपति, लालनीयः, वयोऽनुरोधात्, मकरः।

गुणमहतामपि (i) ……… शिशुजनः (ii)……….एव भवति। बालभावात् (iii) ……… अपि (iv) …. मस्तक-केतकच्छदत्वं व्रजति।
उत्तरम् :
(i) वयोऽनुरोधात् (ii) लालनीयः (iii) हिमकरः (iv) पशुपति।

2. भवन्तौ ……….. परिकरः ॥
मञ्जूषा – पुराणः, सरसिरुहनाभस्य, वसुमतीम्, श्लाघ्या कथा।

भवन्तौ गायन्तौ (i) ……….. प्रतिनिधिः कविः अपि (ii)……….. प्रथमम् अवतीर्ण: गिराम् अयं सन्दर्भ: (iii) ………. च इयं (iv) ……… सः च अयं परिकरः नियतं श्रोतारं पुनाति रमयति च।
उत्तरम् :
(i) पुराण: (ii) वसुमतीम् (iii) सरसिरुहनाभस्य (iv) श्लाघ्या कथा।

प्रश्ननिर्माणम् –

अधोलिखित वाक्येषु स्थूलपदमाधृतय प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत –

1. विदूषकेनोपदिश्यमानमार्गौ तापसौ कुशलवौ प्रविशतः।
(विदूषक द्वारा मार्ग दर्शाए हुए तपस्वी कुश और लव प्रवेश करते हैं।)
2. रामः कुशलवौ आसनार्धमुपवेशयति।
(राम कुश और लव को आधे आसन पर बैठाते हैं।)
3. शिशुजनो वयोऽनुरोधात् गुणवतामपि लालनीयः भवति।
(बच्चे उम्र के कारण गुणवानों के द्वारा भी लाड़ करने योग्य होते हैं।)
4. हिमकरः बालभावात् पशुपति-मस्तक-केतकच्छदत्वं व्रजति।
(चन्द्रमा बालभाव से शिव के सिर पर केतकी के छत्र की शोभा प्राप्त करता है।)
5. आवयोः गुरोः नाम भगवान् वाल्मीकिः।
(हम दोनों के गुरु का नाम भगवान् वाल्मीकि है 1)
6. सा तपस्विनी मत्कृतेनापराधेन स्वापत्यमेवं भर्स्यति।
(वह बेचारी मेरे द्वारा किए गए अपराध के कारण अपनी सन्तान की इस प्रकार भर्त्सना करती है।)
7. अलम् अति-विस्तेरण।
(अधिक विस्तार मत करो।)
8. तपोवनवासिनः देवीति नाम्नाह्वयन्ति।
(तपोवनवासी ‘देवी’ इस नाम से बुलाते हैं।)
9. उपाध्यायदूतोऽस्मान् त्वरयति।
(उपाध्याय का दूत हमसे जल्दी करवाता है।)।
10. अपूर्वोऽयं मानवानां सरस्वत्यवतारः।
(मनुष्यों का यह सरस्वती अवतार अनोखा है।)
उत्तरम् :
1. विदषकेन उपदिश्यमानमार्गों को प्रविशतः ?
2. रामः कुशलवौ कत्र उपवेशयति ?
3. शिशुजनः कस्मात् गुणवतामपि लालनीयः भवति ?
4. हिमकरः कस्मात् पशुपति-मस्तक-केतकच्छदत्वं व्रजति ?
5. युवयोः गुरोः नाम किम् ?
6. सा तपस्विनी केन कारणेन स्वापत्यमेवं भर्त्सयति ?
7. अलम् कः ?
8. के देवीति नाम्नाह्वयन्ति ?
9. क; युष्मान् त्वरयति ?
10. कीदृशोऽयं मानवानां सरस्वत्यवतारः।

भावार्थ-लेखनम् –

अधोलिखित पद्यांशानां संस्कृते भावार्थं लिखत –

1. भवति शिशुजनो ……………………… पशुपति-मस्तक-केतकच्छदत्वम्।।

भावार्थ – अत्यधिक सदाचारस्यापि ना आवश्यकता। सद्गुणोपेतेभ्योऽपि आयुसः कारणात् अल्पवयो बालकः अपि लालनमर्हति। यतः शिशुभावात् एवं शशिः शिवस्य शिरसि केतकपुष्प निर्मितस्य आभूषणस्य शोभां प्राप्नोति।

2. भवन्तौ गायन्तौ ……………………………… सोऽयं परिकरः॥

भावार्थ – रामः कथयति – मह्यमसि महर्षेः निश्चितं कार्यम् आदरणीयमेव। यतः युवाम् उभौ अस्याः कथायाः गायकौ, पुरातनः तपोनिधि: वाल्मीकि, अस्याः कथायाः कवयिता, पृथिवीं सर्व प्रथममवतरितः एषा वाणी कमलनाभस्य विष्णो, एषा प्रशंसनीया कथा, असौ च संयोगः यत् निश्चयमेव श्रोतागणं पावनमानन्दितं च करिष्यति।

मित्र! मनुष्याणाम् अद्भुतः एषः शारदायाः अवतारः तर्हि अहम् सामान्य मित्राणि, जनसामान्यं च श्रोतुमीहे अतः समित्रानन्दन! सभ्यान् अस्माकं समीपं गमयताम्। अहमपि अनयोः चिरात् आसनेन श्रमम् विहार विधाय दूरं करोमि। (एवं पर्वे निष्क्रामन्ति)

अधोलिखितसूक्तीनां भावबोधं हिन्द्या, आंग्लभाषया संस्कृतभाषया वा लिखत।
(निम्नलिखित सूक्तियों का भाव हिन्दी, अंग्रेजी अथवा संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए।)

(i) भवति शिशुजनो वयोऽनुरोधात् गुणमहताम् अपि लालनीयः।
भावार्थ – शिशवः अल्पायुत्वात् गुणवताम् अपि लालनीया भवन्ति।
(बच्चे अल्पायु होने के कारण गुणवान् लोगों के भी लाड़ करने योग्य होते हैं।)

(ii) अतिदीर्घः प्रवासोऽयं दारुणश्च।
भावार्थ – सुविधानाम् अभावत्वात् गृहाबहिर्वासः कष्टप्रदः भवति अतः अति दीर्घः भवति।
(सुविधाओं के अभाव में घर से बाहर रहना बड़ा कष्टदायक होता है। अतः लम्बा होता है।)

(iii) न युक्त स्त्रीगतमनुयोक्तुम्।
भावार्थ – परकीयैः स्त्रीजनैः सह सम्बन्धवर्धनं न उचितम्।
(पराई स्त्रियों के साथ सम्बन्ध बढ़ाना उचित नहीं।)

शिशुलालनम् Summary and Translation in Hindi

पाठ-परिचय – प्रस्तुत पाठ संस्कृत-साहित्य के इसी प्रसिद्ध नाटक ‘कुंदमाला’ के पंचम अंक का सम्पादित रूप है। नाटक में राम द्वारा अपने पुत्रों कुश, लव को पहचानने की कौतूहलवर्द्धक परिकल्पना है। नाट्यांश में श्रीराम अपने पुत्रों कुश और लव को सिंहासन पर बैठाना चाहते हैं किन्तु वे दोनों अति शालीनतापूर्वक मना कर देते हैं। सिंहासनारूढ़ श्रीराम कुश और लव के सौन्दर्य से आकृष्ट होकर उन्हें अपनी गोद में बैठा कर आनन्दित होते हैं। नाट्यांश में शिशु के दुलार का मार्मिक एवं मनोहर चित्रण किया गया है। इसी कारण से इसे ‘शिशुलालनम्’ शीर्षक दिया गया है।

मूलपाठः,शब्दार्थाः, अन्वयः,सप्रसंग हिन्दी-अनुवादः

(सिंहासनस्थः रामः। ततः प्रविशतः विदूषकेनोपदिश्यमानमार्गौ तापसौ कुशलवौ)

विदूषकः – इत इत आर्यो !
कुशलवी – (रामस्य समीपम् उपसृत्य प्रणम्य च) अपि कुशलं महाराजस्य ?
रामः – युष्मदर्शनात् कुशलमिव। भवतोः किं वयमत्र कुशलप्रश्नस्य भाजनम् एव, न पुनरतिथिजन-समुचितस्य कण्ठाश्लेषस्य। (परिष्वज्य) अहो हृदयग्राही स्पर्शः। (आसनार्धमुपवेशयति)
उभौ – राजासनं खल्वेतत्, न युक्तमध्यासितुम्।
रामः – सव्यवधानं न चारित्रलोपाय। तस्मादङ्क – व्यवहितमध्यास्यतां सिंहासनम्। (अङ्कमुपवेशयति)
उभौ – (अनिच्छां नाटयतः) राजन् ! अलमतिदाक्षिण्येन।
रामः – अलमतिशालीनतया।

भवति शिशुजनो वयोऽनुरोधाद् गुणमहतामपि लालनीय एव।
व्रजति हिमकरोऽपि बालभावात् पशुपति-मस्तक-केतकच्छदत्वम्।।

शब्दार्थाः – सिंहासनस्थः रामः = राघवः राज्यासने स्थितः (सिंहासन पर बैठे श्रीराम), ततः = तदा (तब), प्रविशतः = प्रवेशं कुरुतः (प्रवेश करते हैं), विदूषकेनोपदिश्यमानमार्गों = विदूषकेन निर्दिश्यमानपद्धतिः (विदूषक द्वारा राह बताए गए हुए), तापसौ = तपस्विनौ धृततापसवेषौ (तपस्वी), कुशलवौ = कुश: च लवः च (कुश और लव), इत इत आर्यो = अत्र-अत्र एतम् श्रीमन्तौ श्रेष्ठौ (इधर-इधर श्रेष्ठजनो!), रामस्य समीपम् = रामं समया (राम के समीप), उपसृत्य = उपगम्य (निकट जाकर), प्रणम्य = अभिवाद्य च (और प्रणाम करके), अपि कुशलं = किं मंगलं (क्या कुशल है), महाराजस्य = भूभृताम् (महाराज की),

युष्मदर्शनात् = युवयोः दर्शनात् (तुम्हारे दर्शन से), कुशलमिव = मंगलम् इव (कुशल-सा ही है), भवतोः = युवयोः (आप दोनों का), किं वयमत्र = अपि अत्र वयम् (क्या यहाँ हम), कुशलप्रश्नस्य = मंगलपृच्छायाः (कुशल पूछने के), भाजनम् एव = पात्रम् एव (पात्र ही हैं), न पुनरतिथिजनसमुचितस्य = न वयम् अभ्यागताय समीचीनस्य योग्यस्य (क्या हम अतिथि के लिए उचित के), कण्ठाश्लेषस्य – कण्ठे आश्लेषस्य, आलिङ्गनस्य (गले लगाने के पात्र नहीं हैं), परिष्वज्य = आलिङ्गनं कृत्वा (आलिंगन करके), अहो = आश्चर्य (अरे), हृदयग्राही स्पर्शः = हृदयेन ग्राह्यः स्वीकार्यः स्पर्शः (हृदय द्वारा ग्रहण करने योग्य स्पर्श),

आसनार्द्धम् = अर्द्धासने, पार्वे (आधे आसन पर), उपवेशयति = स्थापयति, आसयति (बैठाते हैं), राजासनम् = सिंहासनं, नृपासनम् (राजा का आसन है), खल्वेतत् = वस्तुतः निश्चितं इदम् (वास्तव में निश्चित ही यह), न युक्तमध्यासितुम् = नोचितम् उपवेष्टुम् (बैठना उचित नहीं), सव्यवधानं = व्यवधानेन सहितम् (रुकावट सहित), चारित्रलोपाय = आचरणनाशाय (आचरण लोप के लिए बाधा नहीं अर्थात् सिंहासन पर बैठने से तुम्हारे चरित्र की कोई हानि नहीं होगी), तस्मात् = अतः (इसलिए), अङ्क = क्रोडे (गोद में), व्यवहितम् = सम्पादितम् (बनाए हुए), अध्यास्यताम् = उपविश्यताम् (बैठो), सिंहासनम् = राजासनम् (सिंहासन पर), अङ्कमुपवेशयति = क्रोडे आसयति (गोदी में बैठाते हैं)। अनिच्छां नाटयतः = अनिच्छायाः अभिनयं कुरुतः (अनिच्छा का अभिनय करते हैं), राजन् = नृप! (हे राजन्), अलमति-दाक्षिण्येन = अत्यधिककौशलस्य आवश्यकता न वर्तते, अत्यधिक कौशलं मा कुरु [अत्यधिक दक्षता या कुशलता की आवश्यकता नहीं, अधिक दक्षता या कौशल मत करो (दिखाओ)।

भवति शिशुजनो वयोऽनुरोधाद् गुणमहतामपि लालनीय एव।
व्रजति हिमकरोऽपि बालाभावात् पशुपति-मस्तक-केतकच्छदत्वम्।।

अन्वयः – गुणमहतामपि वयोऽनुरोधात् शिशुजनः लालनीयः एव भवति। बालभावात् हिमकरः अपि पशुपति-मस्तक केतकच्छदत्वं व्रजति।

शब्दार्थाः – गुणमहतामपि = सद्गुणेषु उत्कृष्टेभ्यः अपि (महान् गुणवान् लोगों के लिए भी), वयोऽनुरोधात् = आयुस: कारणात्, अल्पवयोऽपि (कम उम्र का बालक भी, उम्र के कारण, अल्पायु होने के कारण), शिशुजनः = बालकः (शिशु या बालक), लालनीयः एव भवति = लालनस्य योग एव भवति, लालनमर्हति (लाड़ के योग्य होता है), यतः = (क्योंकि), बालभावात् हि = शिशुभावात् एव (बालभाव के कारण ही), हिमकरः अपि = शशिः, चन्द्रः अपि (चन्द्रमा भी), पशुपति-मस्तक = शिवस्य शिरसि, शेखरे (भगवान् शिव के मस्तक पर), केतकच्छदत्वम् = केतकपुष्प निर्मितस्य शेखरस्य आभूषणताम् (केवड़ा के फूलों से बने जूड़े पर लगे आभूषण की शोभा को), व्रजति =गच्छति, प्राप्नोति (प्राप्त होता है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह नाट्यांश हमारी ‘शेमुषी’ पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘शिशुलालनम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह पाठ दिङ्नाग द्वारा रचित ‘कुन्दमाला’ नाटक से संकलित है। इस नाट्यांश में लेखक कुश और लव के साथ श्रीराम का संवाद, व्यवहार एवं सदाचार वर्णन करता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – (श्रीराम सिंहासन पर बैठे हैं। तभी विदूषक द्वारा राह बताए हुए तपस्वी का वेश धारण किए हुए कुश और लव प्रवेश करते हैं।)

विदूषक-इधर-इधर (आइए) आर्य !

कुशलव – (राम के समीप जाकर और प्रणाम करके) क्या महाराज की कुशल है अर्थात् क्या महाराज सकुशल हैं ?
राम – आप दोनों के दर्शन से कुशल-सा ही है। क्या यहाँ हम आप कुशल समाचार पूछने के ही पात्र हैं? तो क्या हम अतिथियों के लिए उचित आलिङ्गन (गले लगने) योग्य नहीं हैं। (आलिङ्गन करके) अरे हृदय से स्वीकार्य स्पर्श है। (आधे आसन पर बैठाते हैं।)
दोनों – यह तो निश्चित ही राजसिंहासन है, बैठना उचित नहीं है।
राम – यह (आपके) चरित्र विनाश का व्यवधान नहीं है अर्थात् इस पर बैठने से आपके चरित्र का विनाश नहीं होगा। इसलिए गोद में बने हुए सिंहासन पर बैठे। (गोदी में बैठाते हैं।)
दोनों (लवकुश) – (अनिच्छा का अभिनय करते हैं) महाराज ! अत्यधिक उदारता मत करें।
राम – अधिक शालीनता की आवश्यकता नहीं है। “महान गुणवान् लोगों के लिए भी अल्पायु बाल उम्र के कारण लाड़ के योग्य होता है। (क्योंकि) बालभाव के कारण ही चन्द्रमा भगवान शिव के सिर पर केवड़ा के फूलों से बने जूड़े पर लगे आभूषण की शोभा को प्राप्त होता है।”

2. रामः – एष भवतोः सौन्दर्यावलोकजनितेन कौतूहलेन पृच्छामि-क्षत्रियकुल-पितामहयोः सूर्यचन्द्रयोः
को वा भवतोवंशस्य कर्ता ?
लवः – भगवन् सहस्रदीधितिः।
रामः – कथमस्मत्समानाभिजनौ संवृत्तौ ?
विदूषकः – किं द्वयोरप्येकमेव प्रतिवचनम् ?
लवः – भ्रातरावावां सोदयौं।
रामः – समरूपः शरीरसन्निवेशः।
वयसस्तु न किञ्चिदन्तरम्।
लवः – आवां यमलौ।
रामः – सम्प्रति युज्यते। किं नामधेयम् ?
लवः – आर्यस्य वन्दनायां लव इत्यात्मानं श्रावयामि (कुशं निर्दिश्य) आर्योऽपि गुरुचरणवन्दनायाम्
कुशः – अहमपि कुश इत्यात्मानं श्रावयामि।
रामः – अहो! उदात्तरम्यः समुदाचारः। किं नामधेयो भवतोगुरुः ?

शब्दार्थाः – एषः = अयम् (यह), भवतोः = युवयोः कुशलवयोः (आप दोनों कुश और लव का), सौन्दर्यावलोकजनितेन = सुन्दरतादर्शनोद्भूतेन (सुन्दरता के देखने के कारण), कौतूहलेन = आश्चर्येण (कुतूहल से/के कारण), पृच्छामि = प्रष्टुमिच्छामि (पूछता हूँ), क्षत्रियकुल = क्षात्रकुलोद्भूतयोः पितुः पित्रोः (क्षत्रिय कुल में उत्पन्न दादा/पूर्वज), सूर्यचन्द्रयोः = दिनकरनिशाकरयोः (सूर्य-चन्द्र), वंशयोः = कुलयोः अन्वयोः (वंशों में से), भवतोः = युवयोः (आप दोनों के), वंशस्य = अन्वयस्य, कुलस्य (कुल का), कर्ता = जनयिता (पैदा करने वाला), को = कः (कौन हैं अर्थात् आप सूर्यवंशी हैं या चन्द्रवंशी), भगवान् सहस्त्रदीधितिः = सहस्ररश्मिः भगवान् सूर्यः (हजार किरणों वाले सूर्य), कथम् = किम् (क्या),

अस्मत् = अस्माकम् (हमारे), समान = तुल्यः, सदृशः (समान), अभिजनौ = समानकुलोत्पन्नौ (एक कुल में पैदा होने वाले), संवृतौ = संजातौ (हो गए), किं = अपि (क्या), द्वयोरपि = उभयोरपि (दोनों का भी), एकमेव = समानमेव (एक ही), प्रतिवचनम् = उत्तरम्म् (उत्तरम् है), भ्रातरावावाम् = आवाम् उभौ एव बन्धू (हम दोनों ही भाई हैं), सोदयौँ = सहोदरौ (सगे भाई हैं), समरूप = रूपः समानः (रूप समान, एक जैसा), शरीरसन्निवेशः = अंगरचनाविन्यासः (शरीर की बनावट भी समान है), वयसस्तु = आयुसः तु, अवस्थायाः तु (आयु का), न किञ्चिद् अन्तरम् = किञ्चिदपि न्यूनाधिक्यम् (कोई अन्तर नहीं), आवां यमलौ = आवाम् उभौ एव युगलौ (हम दोनों ही जुड़वाँ हैं), सम्प्रति = इदानीम् (अब),

युज्यते = उचितम्, समीचीनम् (ठीक है, उचित है), किं नामधेयम् = किम् अभिधानम् (क्या नाम है), आर्यस्य = श्रीमतः श्रेष्ठ-जनस्य (आर्य की), वन्दनायाम् = निवेदने, सेवायाम् (सेवा में), लव इत्यात्मानं = लवनाम्ना स्वम् (‘लव’ नाम से अपने को), श्रावयामि = कथयामि/निवेदयामि (सुनाता हूँ, निवेदन करता हूँ, कहता हूँ, अर्थात् मेरा नाम लव है)। कुशं निर्दिश्य = कुशं प्रति संकेतं कृत्वा (कुश की ओर इशारा करके), आर्योऽपि = अग्रजोऽपि (भैया भी), गुरुचरणवन्दनायाम् = आयुवृद्धानाम् चरणसेवायाम् (गुरुचरणों की सेवा में), अहमपि = अहम् अपि (मैं भी), कुश इत्यात्मानम् = ‘कुश’ इति स्वाभिधानम् (‘कुश’ ऐसा अपना नाम निवेदन करता हूँ), अहो = आश्चर्यम् (अरे आश्चर्य है), उदात्तरम्यः = अत्यन्तरमणीयः (अत्यधिक मनोहर है), समुदाचारः = शिष्टाचारः (शिष्टाचार), किं नामधेयो भवतोर्गुरुः = युवयोः गुरोः किमभिधानम् (आपके गुरुजी का क्या नाम है ?)

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह नाट्यांश हमारी ‘शेमुषी’ पाठ्य पुस्तक के ‘शिशुलालनम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। यह पाठ दिङ्नाग द्वारा रचित ‘कुन्दमाला’ नाटक से संकलित है। इस नाट्यांश में नाटककार लव और कुश के साथ राम का संवाद प्रस्तुत करता है। यहाँ राम कुश और लव से परिचय पूछते हैं। उन दोनों के वंश, गुरु, पिता और माता आदि के विषय में जानना चाहते हैं।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – राम – यह आप दोनों (कुश-लव) की सुन्दरता को देखने से उत्पन्न कुतूहल के कारण पूछता हूँ कि क्षत्रिय कुल में उत्पन्न (तुम्हारे) पितामहों (पूर्वजों) का सूर्य एवं चन्द्र वंशों में से कौन जन्मदाता है अर्थात् आप सूर्यवंशी हैं अथवा चन्द्रवंशी।

लव – हजार किरणों वाले भगवान् सूर्य।
राम – क्या (आप) हमारे समान कुल में ही पैदा होने वाले हैं ?
विदूषक – क्या आप दोनों का एक ही उत्तरम् है ?
लव – हम दोनों भाई हैं, सहोदर हैं।
राम – रूप और अंग विन्यास (शारीरिक गठन) तो समान ही है। उम्र का तो कोई अन्तर नहीं है अर्थात् न्यूनाधिक नहीं है।
लव – हम दोनों जुड़वाँ भाई हैं।
राम – अब ठीक है। क्या नाम है ?
लव – श्रीमान् की सेवा में मैं अपने को ‘लव’ सुनाता (कहता हूँ) (कुश की ओर संकेत करके) भैया भी गुरुचरणों की सेवा में ……….
कुश – मैं भी ‘कुश’ अपना नाम निवेदन करता हूँ।
राम – आश्चर्य है, अत्यधिक शिष्टाचार है। आपके गुरुजी का क्या नाम है ?

3. लवः – ननु भगवान् वाल्मीकिः।
रामः – केन सम्बन्धेन ?
लवः – उपनयनोपदेशेन।
रामः – अहमत्रभवतो: जनकं नामतो वेदितुमिच्छामि।
लवः – न हि जानाम्यस्य नामधेयम्। न कश्चिदस्मिन् तपोवने तस्य नाम व्यवहरति।
रामः – अहो माहात्म्यम्।
कुशः – जानाम्यहं तस्य नामधेयम्।
रामः – कथ्यताम्।
कुशः – निरनुक्रोशो नाम ……..
रामः – वयस्य, अपूर्वं खलु नामधेयम्।
विदूषकः – (विचिन्त्य) एवं तावत् पृच्छामि निरनुक्रोश इति क एवं भणति ?
कुशः – अम्बा।
विदूषकः – किं कुपिता एवं भणति, उत प्रकृतिस्था ?
कुशः – यद्यावयोर्बालभावजनितं किञ्चिदविनयं पश्यति तदा एवम् अधिक्षिपति-निरनुक्रोशस्य पुत्रौ, मा चापलम् इति।
विदूषकः – एतयोर्यदि पितुर्निरनुक्रोश इति नामधेयम् एतयोर्जननी तेनावमानिता निर्वासिता एतेन वचनेन दारको निर्भर्त्सयति।
रामः – (स्वगतम्) धिङ् मामेवंभूतम्। सा तपस्विनी मत्कृतेनापराधेन स्वापत्यमेवं मन्युगभैर क्षरैर्निर्भर्त्तयति। (सवाष्पमवलोकयति)

शब्दार्थाः – ननु भगवान् वाल्मीकिः = भगवान् प्रचेतात्मजः वाल्मीकिः (भगवान् वाल्मीकि), केन सम्बन्धेन = केन प्रकारेण (किस सम्बन्ध से), उपनयनोपदेशेन = उपनयन (यज्ञोपवीत) उपदेशेन (संस्कारेण), [उपनयन = (संस्कार दीक्षा या) उपनयन की दीक्षा देने के कारण], अहमत्रभवतोः = अहम् युवयोः (मैं तुम दोनों के), ज को), नामतः = नाम्नः (नाम से), वेदितुमिच्छामि = ज्ञातुम् इच्छामि (जानना चाहता हूँ), न हि जानाम्यस्य नामधेयम् = (अहम्) एतस्य (जनकस्य) अभिधानं न जानामि [(क्योंकि मैं इनका) (पिताजी का) नाम नहीं जानता हूँ], अस्मिन् तपोवने = एतस्मिन् आश्रमे (इस तपोवन में), कश्चित् = कोऽपि (कोई भी), तस्य = अमुष्य मे जनकस्य (उन मेरे पिताजी का), नाम न व्यवहरति = अभिधानं न आचरति (नाम का प्रयोग नहीं करता है), अहो माहात्म्यम् = अहो आश्रमस्य महनीयता (अरे! आश्रम की महानता), जानाम्यहं तस्य नामधेयम् = अहम् अमुष्य अभिधानं जानामि (मैं उनका नाम जानता हूँ), कथ्यताम् = उद्यताम् तावत् (तो बताओ), निरनुक्रोशो नाम = निर्दयः (दयारहित नाम), वयस्य = (मित्र !),

अपूर्व खलु नामधेयम् = निश्चितरूपेण न श्रुतं पूर्वमभिधानम् (यह नाम पहले सुना हुआ नहीं है), विचिन्त्य = विचार्य (सोच कर), एवं तावत् पृच्छामि = तावत् त्वाम् इत्थम् पृच्छामि (तो तुमसे इस प्रकार पूछना चाहता हूँ), निरनुक्रोश इति कः एवं भणति = क एवं भणति ? (निर्दय ऐसा कौन कहता है), अम्बा = माता (माँ), किं कुपिता = किं क्रुद्धा सती (क्या नाराज होकर), एवं भणति = इत्थं कथयति (ऐसा कहती है), उत प्रकृतिस्था = अथवा स्वाभाविकरूपेण (अथवा स्वाभाविक रूप से), यदि आवयोः बालभावजनितं = चेत् नौ वात्सल्येन उद्भूतम् (यदि हमारे बालभाव से उत्पन्न), किञ्चिदविनयम् = काचिद् धृष्टताम्, उद्दण्डताम् (किसी उद्दण्डता को), पश्यति = ईक्षते (देखती हैं), तदा = तर्हि (तो, तब), एवम् = इत्थम् (इस प्रकार), अधिक्षिपति = आक्षिपति, आक्षेपं करोति, अधिक्षेपं करोति (फटकारती है), निरनुक्रोशस्य = निर्दयस्य (निर्दय के), पुत्रौ = आत्मजौ (बेटे), मा चापलम् इति = अलं चापल्येन (चपलता मत करो), एतयोः = अनयोः (इन दोनों के),

पितुर्निरनुक्रोश: नामधेयम् = जनकस्य निर्दय इति अभिधानम्, नाम (पिता का निर्दय नाम है), [तदा-तर्हि(तो)] एतयोः = अनयोः (इन दोनों की), जननी = माता (माताजी), तेनावमानिता = अमुना अपमानं कृत्वा तिरस्कृता (उसके द्वारा अपमानित की गई, तिरस्कार की हुई), निर्वासिता = निष्काषिता भवेत् (निकाली गई होगी), तदैव एतेन = तदैव अनेन (तभी इस), वचनेन = कथनेन (कथन से), सा = असौ (वह), दारको = पुत्रौ (पुत्रों को), निर्भर्सयति = तर्जयति (फटकारती है), स्वगतम् = आत्मगतम् (अपने आप से, मन ही मन), धिङ्मामेवंभूतम् = धिक्कारम् माम्, मयासैहैव एव घटितम् (धिक्कार है मुझे, मेरे साथ ही ऐसा घटित हुआ है), सा तपस्विनी = असा तपस्विनी (वह बेचारी), मत्कृतेनापराधेन = मया विहितेन अपराधेन (मेरे द्वारा किए गए अपराध से), स्वापत्यमेव = आत्मनः सन्ततिम्, प्रजाम् एव (अपनी सन्तान को ही), मन्युगभैरक्षरैः = क्रोधाविष्टैः वचनैः (क्रोधपूर्ण शब्दों से), निर्भर्त्सयति = तर्जयति (फटकारती है), सवाष्यमवलोकयति = सास्त्रम् पश्यति (अश्रुपूर्ण नेत्रों से देखता है)।

सन्दर्भ – प्रसङ्गश्च -यह नाट्यांश हमारी ‘शेमुषी’ पाठ्यपुस्तक के ‘शिशुलालनम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पाठ दिङ्नाग कृत ‘कुन्दमाला’ नाटक से संकलित है। इस नाट्यांश में श्रीराम कुश और लव में उनके गुरु का नाम, सम्बंध और पिता का नाम पूछना चाहते हैं। कुश पिता का नाम निरनुक्रोश (निर्दय) ऐसा बताकर उसके प्रति अपनी क्रोध भावना को प्रकट करता है। संवाद से राम के प्रति सीता का भी कोप-भाव प्रकट होता है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः –

लव – निश्चय ही प्रचेतापुत्र वाल्मीकि।
राम – किस सम्बन्ध से ?
लव – उपनयन संस्कार की दीक्षा देने के कारण (सम्बन्ध से)।
राम – आप दोनों के पिताजी को नाम से जानना चाहता हूँ।
लव – इनका नाम (मैं) नहीं जानता। इस तपोवन में कोई उनके नाम का प्रयोग नहीं करता है।
अरे! आश्रम की (कितनी) महानता है।
कुश – मैं उनका नाम जानता हूँ।
राम – कहिए।
कुश – निर्दय नाम …….।
राम – मित्र, निश्चय ही पहले कभी न सुना हुआ नाम है।
विदूषक – (सोच कर) तो (तुमसे) इस प्रकार पूछना चाहता हूँ (मैं यों पूछना चाहता हूँ) कि ‘निर्दय’ (ऐसा नाम) कौन कहता है ?
कुश – माताजी।
विदूषक – क्या क्रोधित होकर कहती हैं या स्वाभाविक रूप से ?
कश – यदि हम दोनों की बालभाव के कारण उत्पन्न किसी ढीठता को देखती हैं तब इस प्रकार फटकारती हैं –
“निर्दयी के बेटो चपलता मत करो।”
विदूषक – इन दोनों के पिता का यदि ‘निर्दयी’ नाम है (तो निश्चय ही) इनकी माता उसने तिरस्कृत करके निर्वासित की है (इसलिए) इन वचनों से बच्चों (पुत्रों) को फटकारती है।
राम – (मन ही मन) इस प्रकार के मुझको धिक्कार है। वह बेचारी मेरे द्वारा किए हुए अपराध के कारण अपनी सन्तान को क्रोध भरे वचनों से फटकारती है। (अश्रुपूर्ण नेत्रों से देखते हैं।)

4 रामः – अतिदीर्घः प्रवासोऽयं दारुणश्च। (विदूषकमवलोक्य जनान्तिकम्) कुतूहलेनाविष्टो मातरमनयो मतो वेदितुमिच्छामि। न युक्तं च स्त्रीगतमनुयोक्तुम्, विशेषतस्तपोवने। तत् कोऽत्राभ्युपायः ?
विदूषकः – (जनान्तिकम्) अहं पुनः पृच्छामि। (प्रकाशम्) किं नामधेया युवयोर्जननी ?
लवः – तस्याः द्वे नामनी।
विदूषकः – कथमिव ?
लवः – तपोवनवासिनो देवीति नाम्नाह्वयन्ति, भगवान् वाल्मीकिर्वधूरिति।
रामः – अपि च इतस्तावद् वयस्य ! मुहूर्तमात्रम्।
विदूषकः – (उपसृत्य) आज्ञापयतु भवान्।
रामः – अपि कुमारयोरनयोरस्माकं च सर्वथा समरूपः कुटुम्बवृत्तान्तः ?

शब्दार्थाः – अयं = एषः (यह), प्रवासः = परदेशवासः (परदेश में रहना), अतिदीर्घः = अत्यधिकं दूरम् (बहुत लम्बा), दारुणश्च = निष्ठुरः, भयानकः च (और कठोर है), विदूषकमवलोक्य = विदूषकं दृष्ट्वा (विदूषक को देखकर), जनान्तिकम् = एकतः मुखं कृत्वा, मुखं परिवर्त्य (एक ओर मुँह मोड़कर), कुतूहलेनाविष्टः = सकुतूहलम् (कुतूहल के साथ), अनयोः = एतयोः (इनकी), मातरम् = जननीम् (माँ को), नामतः = नाम्नः, अभिधानात् (नाम से), वेदितमिच्छामि = ज्ञातुमीहे (जानना चाहता हूँ), स्त्रीगतम् = स्त्रीविषयकः (स्त्री के विषय में), अनुयोक्तम् = अन्वेष्टुम् (छानबीन करना), न युक्तम् = नोचितम् (उचित नहीं), विशेषतः = विशेषरूपेण (विशेष रूप से), तपोवने = तपस्थले, तपोभूमौ, आश्रमे (तपोवन में), तत् = तदा (तब), कोऽत्राभ्युपायः = अस्मिन् विषये कः उपचारः, उपायः (इस विषय में क्या उपाय है), जनान्तिकम् = मुखं परिवर्त्य (मुँह फेरकर), अहं पुनः पृच्छामि = अहं पुनः पृष्टुम् इच्छामि (मैं फिर पूछता हूँ, पूछना चाहता हूँ),

प्रकाशम् = स्पष्टरूपेण (खुले में), युवयोः = भवतोः (आप दोनों की), जननी = माता (माताजी का), किं नामधेया = अभिधाना (क्या नाम है, किस नाम की हैं), तस्याः = अमुष्याः (उसके), द्वे नामनी = द्वे अभिधाने स्तः (दो नाम हैं), कथमिव = केन प्रकारेण (किस प्रकार, कैसे), तपोवनवासिनः = तपोभूमौ वास्तव्याः (तपोवन में वास करने वाले), ताम् = (उसे), देवीति नाम्ना (देवी नाम से), आह्वयन्ति = आह्वानं कुर्वन्ति, आकारयन्ति (बुलाते हैं), भगवान् वाल्मीकिर्वधूरिति = महर्षिः प्राचेतसः ‘वधूः’ इति (नाम्ना आह्वयति) (और प्रचेतापुत्र महर्षि वाल्मीकि उसे ‘बहू’ कहकर बुलाते हैं), अपि च = किमन्यत् (और क्या), वयस्य = मित्र ! (मित्र !), तावत् = तर्हि (तो), मुहूर्त्तमात्रम् = क्षणमात्रम् इतः (आयाहि) (क्षणभर इधर आइए), उपसृत्य = उपगम्य, समीपं गत्वा (पास जाकर), आज्ञापयतु = आज्ञां देहि (आज्ञा दें), भवान् = श्रीमान् (आप), अपि = किम् (क्या), अनयोः = एतयोः (इन दोनों), कुमारयोः = किशोरयोः (कुमारों का), अस्माकं च = (और हमारा), कुटुम्बवृत्तान्तः = परिवारस्य विवरणम् (परिवार का वृत्तान्त), समरूपः एव = समानमेव (समान रूप है)।

सन्दर्भ-प्रसङ्गश्च – यह नाट्यांश हमारी ‘शेमुषी’ पाठ्य पुस्तक के ‘शिशुलालनम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पाठ दिङ्नाग कृत ‘कुन्दमाला’ नाटक से संकलित है। इस नाट्यांश में श्रीराम कुश-लव की माँ का नाम जानना चाहते हैं, परन्तु तपोवन में नारी का परिचय पूछना उचित नहीं है। अंत में रुक जाते हैं।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः –

राम – यह परदेशवास भी अत्यन्त लम्बा और कठोर है। (विदूषक को देखकर एक ओर मुख मोड़कर) कुतूहल के साथ इन दोनों की माँ को नाम से जानना चाहता हूँ (परन्तु) स्त्री के विषय में खोजबीन (छानबीन) करना उचित नहीं। विशेष रूप से तपोवन में, तब यहाँ (इस विषय में) क्या उपाय है ?

विदूषक – (मुँह मोड़कर) मैं फिर पूछता हूँ। (खुले में) आप दोनों की माताजी का क्या नाम है ?
लव – उनके दो नाम हैं।
विदूषक – कैसे ?
लव – तपोवन में निवास करने वाले उसे ‘देवी’ बुलाते हैं और प्रचेतापुत्र महर्षि वाल्मीकि उसे ‘बहू’ कहकर बुलाते हैं।
राम – तो क्या मित्र ! क्षणभर इधर आइए।
विदूषक – (पास जाकर) आज्ञा दें आप।
राम – क्या इन दोनों कुमारों का और हमारे परिवार का वृत्तान्त समान ही है?

5. (नेपथ्ये)
इयती वेला सञ्जाता रामायणगानस्य नियोगः किमर्थं न विधीयते ?
उभौ – राजन्! उपाध्यायदूतोऽस्मान् त्वरयति।
रामः – मयापि सम्माननीय एव मुनिनियोगः। तथाहि

भवन्तौ गायन्तौ कविरपि पुराणो व्रतनिधिर्
गिरां सन्दर्भोऽयं प्रथममवतीर्णो वसुमतीम्।
कथा चेयं श्लाघ्या सरसिरुहनाभस्य नियतं,
पनाति श्रोतारं रमयति च सोऽयं परिकरः।।

वयस्य! अपूर्वोऽयं मानवानां सरस्वत्यवतारः; तदहं सुहृज्जनसाधारणं श्रोतुमिच्छामि। सन्निधीयन्तां सभासदः, प्रेष्यतामस्मदन्तिकं सौमित्रिः, अहमप्येतयोश्चिरासनपरिखेदं विहरणं कृत्वा अपनयामि।

(इति निष्क्रान्ताः सर्वे)

शब्दार्थाः – इयती = एतावती (इतनी), वेला = समयः, कालः (समय), सजाता = अजायत, अभवत् (हो गई), नियोगः = निश्चितं कार्यम् करणीयम् (कर्त्तव्य), किमर्थम् = कस्मै (किसलिए), न विधीयते = न क्रियते (नहीं किया जाता है), राजन् = महाराज !, नराधिप ! (हे महाराज), उपाध्यायदूतो = गुरोः दूतः (गुरुजी का दूत), अस्मान् = नः (हमें), त्वरयति = त्वरां, विधातुं प्रेरयति शीघ्रतां कारयति (जल्दी करा रहा है), मयापि = अहम् अपि (मैं भी), सम्माननीय एव = सम्मान योग्यं मन्यै एव (सम्मान के योग्य मानता हूँ), मुनिनियोगः = मुनेः कार्यम् (मुनि के कार्य को), तथाहि = यतः (क्योंकि)।

भवन्तौ ………………………………………………. परिकरः ।।

अन्वयः – भवन्तौ गायन्तौ पुराण: व्रतनिधिः कविः अपि वसुमी प्रथमं अवतीर्णः गिराम् अयं सन्दर्भः सरसिरुहनाभस्य च इयं श्लाघ्याकथा, सः च अयं परिकरः नियतं श्रोतारं पुनाति रमयति च।

शब्दार्थाः – भवन्तौ = युवाम् (आप दोनों), गायन्तौ = गानं कुर्वन्तौ (गायन करते हुए, गान करने वाले हैं), पुराण: = पुरातनः पुराणानाम् (प्राचीन), व्रतनिधिः = तपोनिधिः तपः पुंजः (तपस्वी), कविः अपि = कवयितापि (कवि भी), वसुमती = पृथिवीम्, भूमिम् (धरती पर), प्रथमम् = सर्वप्रथमम् (पहली बार), अवतीर्णः = अवतरितः (अवत गिराम् = वाणीम् (वाणी का), अयम् = एषः (यह), सन्दर्भः = काव्यम् (काव्य), सरसिरुहनाभस्य = कमलनाभस्य (विष्णु का), च इयम् = च एषा (और यह), श्लाघ्या = सराहनीया (सराहनीय, प्रशंसनीय), कथा = वृत्तान्तः (कथा है), सः च = असौ च (और वह), परिकरः = संयोगः, सम्बन्धः (संयोग), नियतम् = निश्चयमेव (निश्चय ही), श्रोतारं = श्रोतागणम् (श्रोताओं को), पुनाति रमयति च = पावनं, आनन्दितं च करोति (पवित्र और आनन्दित करता है, करने वाला है)। वयस्य! = मित्र ! (मित्र),

मानवानाम् = मनुष्याणाम् (मानव जाति का), अयम् = एषः (यह), सरस्वती-अवतारः = शारदायाः साक्षादवतारः (सरस्वती का अवतार है), अपूर्वः = अद्भुतः, न पूर्वदृष्टः एव अस्ति (अद्भुत, पहले न देखा हुआ है), तदहम् = तर्हि अहम् (तो मैं), सुहृद्जनसाधारणं = सामान्यसुहृदः, मित्राणि (सामान्य मित्रों को), श्रोतुमिच्छामि = श्रवणायोत्सुकोऽस्मि (सुनने का इच्छुक हूँ, सुनना चाहता हूँ), सभासदः = सांसदाः (सभासद), सन्निधीयन्ताम् = समीपम् आयान्तु (समीप आएँ), सौमित्रः = सुमित्रानन्दनः लक्ष्मणः (सुमित्रासुत लक्ष्मण), अस्मदन्तिकम् = अस्माकं समीपे (हमारे समीप), प्रेष्यताम् = गमयताम् (भेजा जाये, पहुँचाया जाये), अहमपि = (मैं भी), एतयोः = अनयोः (इन दोनों के), चिरासनपरिखेदम् = चिरात् आसनेन श्रमम् (बहुत देर तक बैठे रहने से हुई थकावट को), विहरणम् कृत्वा = विहारम् कृत्वा, विधाय (चहल-कदमी करके), अपनयामि = दूरं करोमि, विदधामि (दूर करता हूँ)।

सन्दर्भः प्रसङ्गश्च – यह नाट्यांश हमारी ‘शेमुषी’ पाठ्य पुस्तक के ‘शिशुलालनम्’ पाठ से लिया गया है। मूलतः यह पाठ दिङ्नाग कृत ‘कुन्दमाला’ नाटक से संकलित है। इस नाट्यांश में महर्षि वाल्मीकि और उनकी रामायण की प्रशंसा की गई है।

हिन्दी-अनुवादः – (नेपथ्य में) इतना समय (व्यतीत) हो गया। रामायण गाने के निर्धारित कार्य को क्यों नहीं किया जा रहा है ?

दोनों – महाराज ! गुरुजी का दूत (हमें) शीघ्रता करा रहा है। राम- मैं भी मुनि के कार्य को सम्मान योग्य मानता हूँ। क्योंकि आप दोनों (कुश और लव) इस (रामायण) कथा का गान करने वाले हैं, तपोनिधि पुराणमुनि (भगवान् वाल्मीकि) इस भी हैं, धरती पर पहली बार अवतरित होने वाला स्पष्ट वाणी वाला यह काव्य है, कमलनाभ विष्णु की यह प्रशंसनीय कथा है। इस प्रकार निश्चित ही यह संयोग श्रोताओं को पवित्र और आनन्दित करता है।

मित्र ! मानव जाति में यह सरस्वती का, जो पहले देखा हुआ नहीं है ऐसा अद्भुत अवतार है तो मैं सामान्य सुहृद्जनों को सुनना चाहता हूँ। सभासदों को पास आने दो। लक्ष्मण (सुमित्रानन्दन) को मेरे समीप भेज दो। मैं भी इन दोनों के बहुत देर से बैठे हुओं के परिश्रम को चहल-कदमी करके दूर करता हूँ।

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village

I. Objective Type Questions

1. The main economic activity of Palampur village is
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Dairy
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

2. What is required for the production of goods and services ?
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Physical capital
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

3. Green revolution took place in India in
(a) late 1980s
(b) late 1970s
(c) late 1960s
(d) late 2000s
Answer:
(c) late 1960s

4. To grow more than one crop on the same piece of land during the years is known as
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Mixed cropping
(c) Modern cropping
(d) Plantatign cropping
Answer:
(a) Multiple cropping

3. is a common activity in many families of Palampur.
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Dairy
(c) Transportation
(d) Shopkeeping
Answer:
(b) Dairy

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where is Palampur village located?
Answer:
Palampur village is located in Bulandshahar district of western Uttar Pradesh.

Question 2.
What is the main economic activity of Palampur village?
Answer:
Agriculture is the main economic activity of Palampur Village.

Question 3.
Write the name of various forms of transport visible on the road from Palampur to Shahpur.
Answer:
Forms of transport seen are bullock carts, tongas, bogeys, motorcycles, Jeeps, tractors and trucks.

Question 4.
Name some non-farming activities.
Answer:
Small manufacturing, shop-keeping, tailoring, carpentery, dairy; transporting, animal husbandary, etc.

Question 5.
What is the aim of production?
Answer:
The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want.

Question 6.
Name the factors of production.
Answer:

1. Land,
2. Labour,
3. Physical capital,
4. Human capital.

Question 7.
A What is Bigha or Guintha?
Answer:
Bigha or Guintha is the local unit of measuring land in villages.

Question 8
During which season do farmers of Palamphur grow Jowar and Bajra?
Answer:
During the rainy season (kharif) the farmers of Palampur grow Jowar and-Bajra.

Question 9.
In which season wheat is grown in Palampur village?
Answer:
During rabi season (winter), wheat is grown in Palampur village.

Question 10.
What is multiple cropping?
Answer:
To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as multiple cropping.

Question 11.
What is the full form of‘HYV’ seeds?
Answer:
HYV stands for High Yielding Variety seeds.

Question 12.
In which states modern farming was first used?
Answer:
Modem farming was first introduced in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh.

Question 13.
What is the disadvantage of using chemical fertilisers in modern farming methods?
Answer:
The chemicals kill bacteria and microbes, which are essential for soil fertility.

Question 14.
Which state has the highest consumption of chemical fertilisers in India?
Answer:
Punjab has the highest consumption of chemical fertilisers in India.

Question 15.
Who hires farm labourers?
Answer:
Medium and large farmers hire farm labourers.

Question 16.
Where do farm labourers come from?
Answer:
Farm labourers come either from landless families or families cultivating small plots of land.

Question 17.
From where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for capital in Palampur?
Answer:
Most of the small farmers borrow money from village moneylenders in Palampur.

Question 18.
What are the non-farming activities being carried our in Palampur?
Answer:
Some of the non-farming activities being carried out in Palampur are manufacturing, transport, shopkeeping and computer education.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
There are some requirements for production of goods and services. What are these?
Answer:
There are four requirements for production of goods and services. These requirements are as follows:

1. The first requirement is land and other natural resources.
2. The second requirement is labour.
3. The third requirement is physical capital.
4. The fourth requirement is human capital.

Question 2.
What are the items that come under physical capital?
Answer:
The following items come under physical capital :
1. Fixed capital:
Tools, machines, buildings that can be used in production over many years are called fixed capital. Example Farmer’s plough, generators, turbines, computers, etc.

2. Working capital:
Raw materials and money in hand are called working capital. It is used up during the production activity. Resulting in finished goods and services that are required. Example Yarn used by the weaver, clay used by the potter.

Question 3.
How many kinds of crops are grown in Palampur?
Answer:
Following types of crops are grown in Palampur:

1. During the rainy season (Kharif), farmers grow jowar and bajra.
2. It is followed by cultivation of potato between October and December.
3. In the winter season (Rabi), fields are sown with wheat.
4. A part of the land area is also devoted to sugarcane which is harvested once every year.

Question 4.
Throw light on irrigation in the villages across India.
Answer:
Not all the villages in India have high levels of irrigation as Palampur. Apart from the riverine plains, coastal regions in our country are well-irrigated. In contrast, plateau regions such as the Deccan plateau have low levels of irrigation. Of the total cultivated area in the country, a little less than 40 per cent is irrigated even today. In the remaining areas, farming is largely dependent on rainfall.

Question 5.
What was the Green revolution? How did it solve the food crisis in India?
Answer:
Green revolution is the modern technique of using high yielding varieties of (HYV) seeds (Hyvs). increased use of chemical fertilizers and irrigation in agriculture Green Revolution was introduced in India by M.S. Swaminathan.
Green Revolution made India self-sufficient in food grains by improving crop production at a large scale.

Question 6.
Write any four differences between traditional and modern methods of farming.
Answer:
Four differences between traditional and modern methods of farming are as follows:

Traditional methods	Modem methods
1. Seeds used are simple.	1. High Yielding Variety (HYV) sees are used.
2. Fertilizer used is manure from cow dung.	2. Chemical fertilizers are used.
3. Manual labour is used for all activities.	3. Modern machinery is used for all activities.
4. Irrigation is done through wells and tanks	4. Irrigation is done through dams, tubewells and canals.

Question 7.
Modern farming methods have overused the natural resource base. How?
Answer:
Land is a natural resource. It is necessary to be very careful in its use. But scientific reports indicate that modem farming methods have overused the natural resource base in the following ways:

1. Green Revolution is associated with the loss of soil fertility due to increased use of chemical fertilizers.
2. Continuous use of groundwater for tubewell irrigation has reduced the water table below the ground. Environmental resources like soil fertility and groundwater are built up over many years. Once destroyed, it is very difficult to restore them.

Question 8.
What are the bad-effects of chemical fertilizers?
Answer:
The bad-effects of chemical fertilizers are as follows:

1. Chemical fertilizers provide minerals which dissolve in water and are immediately available to plants but they not retain in the soil for long. This means, some time after, their use, the soil become less fertile than ever before.
2. Chemical fertilizers kill useful bacteria and other micro-organisms in the soil.
3. Chemical fertilizers pollute groundwater, rivers and lakes.

Question 9.
Explain the distribution of land among farmers in Palampur village.
Answer:
In Palampur village, about one-third of the total of 450 families are landless, i.e., 150 families are landless. 240 families cultivate small plots of less than 2 hectares. There are 60 families of medium and large farmers who cultivate more than 2 hectares of land. A few of the large families have land extending over 10 hectares or more.

Question 10.
What is the need of labour in farming and where does it come from?
Answer:
Farming requires a great deal of hard work for various activities, like ploughing, harvesting, seeding, threshing etc. Small farmers aloi-g with their families cultivate their own fields. Thus, they provide the labour required for farming from their family itself. While medium and large farmers hire farm labourers to work on their fields.

Question 11.
How do most small farmers arrange the necessary capital for farming?
Answer:
Most small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for capital. They borrow from large farmers or the village moneylenders or the traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. The rate of interest on such loans is very high. They are put to great distress to repay the loan.

Question 12.
What do large farmers like Tejpal Singh do with the capital derived from surplus produce?
Answer:
Like Tejpal Singh, other large and medium farmers sell the surplus farm products. A part of the earnings is saved and kept for buying capital for the next season. Thus, they are able to arrange for capital needed for farming from their own savings. Some farmers might also use their savings to buy cattle, tractors or to set up shops.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Palampur is a well-developed village”. Justify this statement
Or
Provide major evidents to show that Palampur a developed village.
Answer:
Palampur is a developed village due to the following reasons:
1. Palampur is well-connected with neighbouring villages and towns. Raiganj is a big village three kilometers from Palampur. An all-weather road connects the village to Raiganj and further on to the nearest small town of Shahpur.

2. Many kinds of transport are visible on this road, starting from bullock carts, tongas, bogees loaded with jaggery and other commodities, to motor vehicles like motorcycles, jeeps, tractors and trucks.

3. Palampur village has about 450 families belonging to several different castes. The 80 upper caste families have their houses made of bricks and cement plas¬tering.

4. Most of the houses have electric connections. Electricity powers all the tubewells in the fields and is used in various types of small businesses.

5. Palampur has two primary schools and one high school.

6. There is a primary health centre run by the government and one private dispensary where sick people are treated.
This description shows that Palampur has a well developed system of roads, electric¬ity and irrigation facilities, schools and health centres, so, we can say that Palampur is a well-developed village.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the factors of production? Explain.
0r
What are requirements for production of goods and services?
Answer:
Productjpq. is organised by combining land, labour, physical capital and human capital which are collectively known as factors of production. We cart understand about these factors of production with the help of a chart as given below: Factors of Production/Requirements for Production

The description of each of them is as follows:
1. Land:
Land is the foremost factor of production. Land includes other natural resources; such as water, forests, minerals etc. which are essential for production.

2. Labour:
Labour is the second factor of production. People who perform work are known as labour. Some production activities require highly educated workers to perform the necessary tasks. Other activities require workers who can do manual work. Each worker provides labour necessary for production.

3. Physical capital:
The variety of inputs required at every stage of production is called physical capital. Physical capital can be categorised into two as follows.

(a) Fixed capital:
Tools and machines range from very simple tools to sophisticated machines, buildings etc. and these are included under fixed capital. This capital can be used in production over many years. The examples of fixed capital are, farmer’s plough, generators, turbines, computers, land, factory etc.

(b) Working capital:
Raw material and money in hand comes under working capital. This capital is used in production. Examples are-yarn used by weavers, clay used by potter, etc. Money is also required during production to make payments and buy other necessary items.

(4) Human capital:
Human capital is required to put together land, labour and physical capital and produce an output either to use yourself or to sell in the market. Knowledge and enterprise are known as human capital.

Question 3.
How are the farmers in Palampur village able to grow more crops from the same land? Explain.
Answer:
The following points state how the farmers in Palampur village are able to grow more crops from the same land:

1. All land is cultivated in Palampur village and no land is left idle.
2. Palampur’s farmers follow multiple cropping. They grow at least two main crops. Many of them also grow potato as the third crop.
3. There is a well-developed irrigation system in Palampur village that enables the farmers to grow three different crops in one year.
4. Electricity has played an important role in transformation of the irrigation system in the village. The previously existing Persian wheels were replaced by electric run tubewells which could irrigate much larger areas of land.
5. Previously farmers follow modem farming methods for obtaining a higher yield.
6. Green Revolution introduced HYV seeds and modem farming methods. The farmers of Palampur village significantly increased their agricultural produc¬tion by using HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers and pesticides.

Question 4.
What do you know about HYV seeds? Write its merits and limitations.
Answer:
HYV seeds HYV seeds means high yielding variety of seeds. These types of seeds provide much more yield than traditional seeds for the same area under cultivation.

1. Merits of HYV seeds: Compared to the traditional seeds, the high yielding variety of seeds promise to produce much greater amounts of grain on a single plant. As a result, the same piece of land can now produce far greater quantities of food grains than it was possible earlier.

2. Limitations of HYV seeds: High yielding variety of seeds need plenty of water, chemical fertilizers and pesticides to produce best results. Excessive use of these inputs reduces soil fertility over a long time period.

Question 5.
What do you mean by farm labourers? Write some characteristics of farm labourers.
Answer:
Farm labourers come either from landless families or families cultivating small plots of land. Characteristics of Farm Labourers: The chief characteristics of farm labourers are as follows:

1. Farm labourers do not have a right over the crops grown on the land.
2. They are paid wages by the farmer for whom they work.
3. Paid wages can be in cash or in a kind, e.g., crop.
4. Sometimes labourers get meals also.
5. Wages vary widely from region to region, from crop to crop, and from one farm activity to another.
6. A farm labourer might be employed on a daily basis or for one particular farm activity or for the whole year.
7. They look for work every day.
8. There is heavy competition for work among the farm labourers.

Question 6.
Mention ary four non-farm production activities of Palampur village.
Answer:
Following are the four main non-four production activites of Palampur village
1. Dairy:
Dairy is a common activity in many families of Palampur village. They keep buffaloes ror supplying the milk to the collection-cum-chilling center at Rani- ganj. The milk i. orocessed further for supply in various town and cities.

2. Manufacturing:
At present, less than fifty people are engaged in manufacturing in Palampur village. Unlike the manufacturing that takes place in the large factories in the towns and cities, manufacturing in Palampur involves very simple production methods and are done on a small scale. They are carried out mostly at home or in the fields with the help of family members and rarely are labourers hired.

3. Shopkeeping:
People involved in trade are not many in Palampur village. The traders of Palampur are mostly shopkeepers wrho buy various goods from wholesale markets in the cities and sell them in the village. Some of them have also opened shops selling eatables near the village bus stand.

4. Transport services:
There are a variety of vehicles on the road connecting Palampur to Raiganj. Ricksha wallahs, tonga wallays, jeep, tractor, truck drivers and people driving the traditional bullock carts and bogeys are people engaged in the transport services. They carry people and goods from one place to another and in return they get paid for it, i.e., the number of people involved in transport has grown over the last several years.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 5 Democratic Rights

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Which of the following countries had a major terrorist attack an 11 September 2001?
(a) United states of America
(b) China
(c) India
(d) South Africa
Answer:
(a) United states of America

2. Which of the following countries is ruled by a dynasty?
(a) China
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Japan
(d) India
Answer:
(b) Saudi Arabia

3. Kosovo was a province of which of the following countries before its split?
(a) Egypt
(b) Yugoslabia
(c) USA
(d) Saudi Arabia
Answer:
(b) Yugoslabia

4. Which one of the following is a Fundamental Right in India?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Cultural and Educational rights
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

5. When was the national human rights commission established in India?
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1993
(d)2019
Answer:
(c) 1993

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the reason given by United States of America for imprisoning people at guantanamo bay?
Answer:
United States of America considered the people as their enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September, 2001.

Question 2.
Which body exposed to the world that prisoners at guantanama bay were being tortured in ways that violated the US law.
Answer:
Amnesty International.

Question 3.
What was Milosavic’s attitude towards the albanians?
Answer:
Milosavic was a narrow-minded Serb nationalist, who wanted serbs to dominate the albanians as his government was hostile to the kosovo albanions.

Question 4.
What is meant by the term‘Right’.
Answer:
Rights are reasonable claims of person recognised by society and sanctioned by law.

Question 5.
What is the need of rights in a democracy. Give a reason.
Answer:
Rights are necessary for the very systenance of democracy.

Question 6.
Define Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
Basic human rights guaranteed in the constitution are called Fundamental Rights. Articles 12 to 35 of the constitution deal with fundamental Rights.

Question 7.
How many fundamental Rights does the Indian constitution provide?
Answer:
Indian constitution provides six fundamental rights.

Question 8.
Which articles of the constitution deal with Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
Articles 12 to 35.

Question 9.
According to which fundamental right, the public places should be accessible to all the persons?
Answer:
Under right to equality, the public places should be accessible to all the persons.

Question 10.
Mention any four freedoms given in the constitution of India.
Answer:

1. Freedom of speech and expression,
2. Assembly for peaceful manner.

Question 11.
What do you understand by human trafficking?
Answer:
gale and purchase of human beings‘is called human trafficking?

Question 12.
What is meant by the term‘Begar’?
Answer:

Question 13.
‘Begar’ is a practice where the worker is forced to render service to the ‘master’ free
Answer:
The fundamental rights, which ensures the ban on bounded labour is ‘Right against exploitation’.

Question 14.
What is the minimum age below which no one can employ a child?
Answer:
The constitution prohibits child labour. No one can employ a child below the age of 14 to work in any factory.

Question 15.
What is a secular state?
Answer:
ln a secular state, no religion can get any privilege or favour and there is no official

Question 16.
If our fundamental rights are violated, where can we seek the remedy?
Answer:
if our fundamental rights are violated, we seek remedy from the supreme court or high court.

Question 17.
Who called the right to constitutional remedies, the heart and soul of our constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called the right to constitutions remedies, ‘the heart and soul’ of our constitution.

Question 18.
Can a law violating fundamental rights be made?
Answer:
There can be no law or action that violates the fundamental rights.

Question 19.
What is writs?
Answer:
A formal document containing an order of the court to the government issued only by high court or the supreme court is called writs.

Question 20.
“From time to time, the courts gave judgements to expand the scope of rights.” What are these rights?
Answer:

1. Right to freedom of press
2. Right to informations
3. Right to education
4. Right to food.

Question 21.
Who has the responsibility to provide free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of 14 years?
Answer:
The governments are responsible for providing free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of 14 years.

Question 22.
Name any two political rights.
Answer:

1. Right to vote,
2. Right to contest election.

Question 23.
Give any twro features of fundamental rights.
Answer:
Two important features of fundamental rights are that these are limited and these can be suspended during emergency.

Question 24.
What are Human Rights?
Answer:
The Human Rights are such essential conditions of life, without which no person can be a human being in the real sense. These are natural to man like the breath in his nostrils. Any denial of these human rights means to the denial of existence of man himself.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was Milosevic? What was his government’ policy towards the albanians?”
Answer:
Milosevic was a narrow-minded serb nationalist leader who won elections in
Yugoslavia. His government behaved very harshly towards the Albanians of kosovo. The population as over whelming ethnic albanians in kosovo. But the serb people were in abundance throughout the country. He wanted the serbs to have complete control over the country.

Question 2.
What are rights? Why is it said that right comes with an obligation to respect others rights? Explain.
Answer:
Right: Rights are the reasonable claims of persons recognised by society and sanctioned by law. Rights come with an obligation to respect other’s rights as.

1. All of us want to live happily, without fear and without being subjected to degraded treatments .
2. For this we expect others to behave in such a way that does not harm us.
3. So a right is possible when we make a claim that is equally possible for others.
4. The claims should be reasonable and such that can be available to others in equal measure.

Question 3.
Why do we need rights in a democracy? Describe it.
Answer:
Rights are necessary for the very sustance of a democracy. Without rights, democracy will become meaningless and ineffective. For democratic elections, it is necessary that citizens should have the right to express their opinions, form political parties and take part in political activities. Rights protect minorities from the oppression of majority.

They ensure the majority cannot do whatever it likes. The government is expected to protect citizen’s rights. But sometimes elected government may not protect or may even attack the rights of their own citizens. So, some rights need to be placed higher than the government so that it cannot violate them.

Question 4.
Mention the Fundamental Rights which have been provided to the citizens by the constitution.
Answer:

1. Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18)
2. Right to Freedom (Articles 19 to 22)
3. Right against Exploitation (Articles 23 and 24)
4. Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25 to 28)
5. Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29 and 30)
6. Right to constitutional Remedies (Articles 32)

Question 5.
Mention any two exceptions to the Right to equality.
Answer:
The Right to Equality contains two exceptions, which are as follows:

1. The state can make special provisions for women and children, scheduled castes and scheduled tribes and backward classes. These sections of our society need special protection because, often, they have been the victims of unequal treatment.
2. The state can reserve some posts in the government offices of SCs, STs and OBCs.

Question 6.
What are the various aspects of ‘Right to Equality’?
The various aspects of ‘Right to Equality’ are as follows:
1. Equality before Law:
The constitution guarantees that all citizens are equal before law. There is no discrimination on the basis of race, caste, sex or
place of birth. The state cannot discriminate against anyone in the matter of employment.

2. Protection of Weaker Sections:
The right to equality gives special provisions for women and children.

3. Reservation:
In legislatures, educational institution and government offices, some seats are reserved for the persons belonging to the weaker sections of society.

4. Ban on Untouchability:
Untouchability has been made an offence. Anyone who practises untouchability is liable to punishment. No citizen can be denied across to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment

Question 7.
“Right to Freedom” is a cluster of six rights. Mention these rights.
Answer:
The Article 19 gives six fundamental freedoms, which are given below:

1. Freedom of speech and expression.
2. Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms.
3. Freedom to form association or unions.
4. Freedom of movement throughout India.
5. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India.
6. Freedom to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation.

Question 8.
What are the rules to be followed while arresting or detaining a person?
Answer:
The following rules have to be followed while arresting or detaining a person.

1. A person who is arrested and detained in custody will have to be informed of the reasons for such arrest and detention.
2. A person who is arrested and detained shall be produced before the nearest
   magistrate within a period of 24 hours of arrest.
3. Such a person has the right to cousult a lawyer or engage a lawyer for his defence.

Question 9.
Which provisions are made in the constitution to prevent exploitation of the weaker sections.
Answer:
Following are the three provisions made in constitution to prevent exploitation of the weaker sections.

1. The constitution prohibits traffic in human beings especially the weaker sections.
2. The constitution also prohibits child labour. No one can employ a child below the age of 14 to work in any factory or mine or any hazardous work.
3. The constitution prohibits forced labour or begar in any form because begar is a practice where the worker is forced to render service to the master free of charge or at a nominal remuneration.

Question 10.
Mention any three features of Right to Freedom of Religion.
OR
‘India is a secular state’. Justify by giving examples.
Answer:
India is a secular state because the Indian constitution provides us Right to Freedom of Religion under Article 25 to 28 with the objective to sustain the principle of secularism in the country. Right to Freedom of Religion provides religious freedom to all the citizens of India. The main declaration of this Right are as under:

1. All religions are equal before the state and no religion will be given preference over the other.
2. Citizens are free to practice their respective religions.
3. No state can run institutions which can give religious education. Religious communities can set up charitable institutions of their own. However, there could be activities in such institutions are performed according to the laws laid down by the government.

Question 11.
Explain the Right to Cultural and Educational rights.
Answer:
India is a multi-religious, multi-lingual and multi-cultural nation, each having its own identity and characteristics. To preserve these diversities, it is natural to grant the following cultural and Educational Rights to the minorities and other communities.

1. Right to conserve the Language, Script and Culture (Article 29):
Under this Right minorities have the right to conserve their distinct language, script or culture, and to join state-owned or state-aided institution without discriminations.

2. Right to Establish Educational Institutions (Article 30):
Under this, each minority group has a right to establish and administer educational institutions of its choice. The state shall not discriminate between minorities while granting aid to their educational institutions.

Question 12.
How does constitution safeguard Fundamental Rights?
OR
Explain the Right which protects all other Rights.
OR
What do you mean by the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedy’?
Answer:
Right to Constitutional Remedy is the Right which protects all other Rights.

1. The constitution States that the courts have a duty to protect citizens’ rights.
2. Every citizen has a right to go to a court to enforce his fundamental rights.
3. He can challenge any act of the Government against his fundamental rights.
4. Courts can issue orders to the government in case of violation of the fundamental rights.
5. These court orders are known as Writs.

Question 13.
The right to constitutional remedies is the ‘heart and soul’ of the Indian constitution”. Justify the statement.
OR
Why did Br. B.R. Ambedkar call the right to constitutional remedies the heart and soul of our constitution?
Answer:
The right to constitution remedies is the heart and soul of the indian constitution was said by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar because.

1. When any of our rights is violated we can seek remedy through courts. If it is a fundamental right, we can directly approach or the supreme court or the high court of the state.
2. If any act of legislature or executive takes already or limits any of the fundamental rights, it will be invalid. We can challenge such law of the central or the state government in the court of law.
3. The supreme court and the high court have the power to issue writs, orders or directions for the enforcements of the fundamental rights.
4. Right to constitutional remedies makes other rights effective. This right is the guardian of other rights.

Question 14.
What is National Human Rights Commission? What are its functions?
Answer:
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is an independent commission. It was set up in 1993 to perform the following functions:

1. It can make an independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of human rights.
2. It can inquire into any case of violation or negligence in controlling it by any government officer.
3. It can take any step to promote human rights in the country.
4. It can summon witnesses and question any government official.
5. It can visit any prison for inspection or send its own team for on-the-spot inquiry.

Question 15.
Describe the near rights given to the citizens by the constitution of South Africa?
Answer:
In South Africa the following new rights have been given by the constitution to its
citizens.

1. Right to privacy So that citizens or their home cannot be searched, their phones cannot be tapped, their communication can not be opened.
2. Right to an environment that is not harmful to their health or well being.
3. Right to have access to adequate housing.
4. Right to have access to health care services. Sufficient food and water; no one may be refused emergency medical treatment.

Question 16.
Explain the international covenant on economic, social and cultural rights.
Answer:
The following rights were accepted in the international convenant.

1. Right to work opportunity to everyone to earn livelihood by working.
2. Right to safe and healthy working conditions, fair wages that can provide decent standard of living for the workers and their families.
3. Right to adequate standard of living including adequate food, clothing and housing.
4. Right to health: medical care during illness, special care for worsen during child birth and prevention of epidemics.
5. Right to education: free and compulsory primary education, equal access to higher education.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the Amnesty International’s report regarding the prisoners in Guantanamo Bay? Describe
OR
Explain the condition of prisoners in Guantanamo Bay
Answer:
condition of prisoners in Guantanamo Bay About 600 people were secretly picked up the United States of America’s forces from all over the world and put in a prison Guantanamo Bay, and area near Cuba controlled by American Navy. The Americ, Government said they were enemies of the USA and linked them to the attack 01 New York (USA) on 11th September 2001.

In most cases, the governments of their countries were not asked or even informed about their imprisonment. Families of prisoners, media or even United Nations Organization’s representatives were not allowed to meet them. The USA army arrested them, interrogated them and decided whether to keep them there or not. There was no trial before any magistrate in the USA. Even the prisoners could not approach courts in their own country.

Amnesty International’s Report The amnesty International reported that the prisoners were being tortured in ways that violated the united nations organization’s laws. They were being denied the treatment that even prisoners of war must get as per international treaties. Prisoners were not released even after they were officially declared not guilty. An independent inquiry by the UN supported these findings.

Question 2.
The rights of citizens are being violated in Saudi Arabia justify this statement.
Answer:
The rights of citizens are being violated in Saudi Arabia. This is clear from the following facts.

1. The country is ruled by a hereditary king and the people hance no role in electing or changing their rulers.
2. The king selects the legislature as well as the executive. He appoints the judges and can change any of their decisions.
3. Citizens cannot form political parties or any political organizations. Media cannot report anything that the monarch does not like.
4. There is no freedom of religions. Every citizen is required to be muslim. Non- muslim residents can follow their religion in private, but not in public.
5. Women are subjected to many public restrictions. The testimony of one man is considered equal to that of two women.

Question 3.
What fundamental rights are given by the Indian constitution to the citizens? Describe in detail.
Answer:
The Indian constitution has given 6 fundamental rights to the citizens.
1. Right to equality (Articles. 14-18)
2. Right to freedom (Articles. 19-22)
3. Right against exploitation (Articles. 23-24)
4. Right to freedom of religion. (Articles. 25-28)
5. Cultural and Educational right (Articles. 29-30) and
6. Right to constitutional remedies. (Articles. 23-35)

1. The right to equality includes equality before the law the prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, gender or place of birth, equality of opportunity in matters of employment, the abolition of untouchability and abolition of titles.

2. The right of freedom includes freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association or union or cooperatives, movement.
Residence, and right to practice any profession or oecupat ;on.

3. The right against exploitation prohibits all forms of forced labour, child labour and trafficking of human beings.

4. The right of freedom of religion includes freedom of conscience and free profession,
practice, and propagation of religion, freedom to manage religious affairs, freedom from certain taxes and freedom from religious instructions in certain educational institutes. .

5. Cultural and educational rights preserve the right of any section of citizens to conserve their culture, language or script, and right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

6. The right to constitutional remedies is present for enforcement of fundamental right. This right makes other rights effective. When any of the fundamental rights are violated, then citizens can directly approach the supreme court or the high courts. Both courts have the power to writs for the enforcement of the rights.

Question 4.
What are the freedom provided by the Indian constitution to every citizen? Describe any one.
Answer:
The indian constitution has provided the following freedoms to every citizen:

1. Freedom of speech and expression.
2. Assembly in a peaceful manner.
3. Form associations and unions.
4. Move freely through out the country.
5. Reside in any part of the country.
6. Practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Freedom of speech and expression:
Freedom of speech and expression is a fundamental human right. It reinforces all other human rights, allowing society to develop and progress. Freedom of speech and expression means the right to express One’s own convictions and opinions freely by words of mouth, writing, printing, pictures or any other mode.

We may express our views through pamphlets, magzines, news papers, paintings, poetry or songs. How ever, we can not use this freedom to stimulate violence against others and excite people to rebel against government. Neither can we use it to against other’s by saying false and mean things that cause to a person’s reputation. “This right is available only to a citizen of India and not the foreign nationals.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 4 Working of  Institutions

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Who is the highest formal authority in our country?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Vice-President of India
(c) The Prime Minister on India
(d) The Chief Justice India
Answer:
(a) The President of India

2. The Indian parliament consists of how many houses?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) Two

3. Which is called as ‘upper chamber’ of the Indian parliament?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) President’s office
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha

4. Which of the following is called as ‘Lower chamber’ of the parliament?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) President’s office
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Lok Sabha

5. Which one of the following is incorrect about the supreme court of India?
(a) It can hear appeals against the decisions of the high courts.
(b) It is the highest court of appeal in civil cases. –
(c) it cannot take up any dispute between citizens of the county.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which are the three institutions in a Parliamentary democracy ?
Answer:

1. Legislature,
2. Executive and
3. Judiciary.

Question 2.
What do you understand by office memorandum?
Answer:
A communication issued by an appropriate authority stating the policy or decision of the government is called office memorandom.

Question 3.
What is the full form of SEBC?
Answer:
SEBC Socially and Educationally Backward classes.

Question 4.
Who are the decision makers in India?
Answer:
The president, the Prime Minister and the parliament are the decision makers.

Question 5.
Who is formally the country’s highest officer?
OR
Who is the head of the country in India?
Answer:
President.

Question 6.
Who is the head of government?
Answer:
Prime minister is the head of the government.

Question 7.
Which political institutions take all important policy decisions in our country?
Answer:
The Prime Minister and the cabinet are institutions that take all important policy decisions.

Question 8.
How many Houses of Indian parliament are there?
Answer:
The Indian parliament has two houses

1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha.

Question 9.
When was the second backward classes commission set up?
Answer:
In 1979.

Question 10.
Who was the head of the second backward classes commission?
Answer:
B.P. Mandal.

Question 11.
Mention any one recommendation of the mantal commission.
Answer:
One recommendation is that 27% of government jobs be reserved for the socially and educationally backward classes.

Question 12.
Who is the final authority for making laws in any country?
Answer:
The parliament is the final authority for making laws in any country.

Question 13.
How many members are presently in Lok Sabha?
Answer:
There are 545 members on Lok Sabha presently.

Question 14.
Name the three components of the Indian Parliament.
Answer:

1. The President of the Union.
2. The Lok Sabha or the House of the People.
3. The Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

Question 15.
What do you know about Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian parliament, which is directly elected by the people and exercises the real power on behalf of the people.

Question 16.
What is Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Indian parliament, which is indirectly elected by the people.

Question 17.
How many members are presently in Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
There are 245 memebers in Rajya Sabha presently.

Question 18.
What is the term of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Five years.

Question 19.
What is the tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Six years.

Question 20.
Can this house be dissolved or is it permanent?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha is a parmanent house, so it can not be dissolved wheres Lok Sabha can be dissolved.

Question 21.
Which is the Upper House of the Parliament?
Answer:
The Rajya Sabha.

Question 22.
Which is the Lower house of the Parliament?
Answer:
The Lok Sabha.

Question 23.
In what ways Lok Sabha exercises supreme power over Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Lok Sabha exercises more powers on money matter and during the joint session, final decision is taken by Lok Sabha because of its large number of members.

Question 24.
Who exercises more powers in money matters?
Answer:
The Lok Sabha.

Question 25.
Which house is better placed with regard to control over the executive in our country?
Answer:
Lok Sabha.

Question 26.
What do we mean by government?
Answer:
By government we refer to the executive.

Question 27.
In which house of the Indian parliament a money bill can be introduced?
Answer:
Lok Sabha.

Question 28.
Describe the type of executive.
Answer:

1. political executive
2. permanent executive.

Question 29.
Who are civil servants?
Answer:
Person, working in civil services are called civil sarvants.

Question 30.
What work do secretaries of different departments do?
Answer:
The secretaries provide the necessary back ground information to the ministers to . take decisions.

Question 31.
Which is the most important political institution in our country?
Answer:
Prime Minister is the most important political institution in our country.

Question 32.
Who appoints the Prime Minister in our country?
Answer:
The President appoints the Prime Minister in our country.

Question 33.
Whom does the President appoint as Prime Minister?
Answer:
The President appoints the leader of the majority party or the coalition of parties that commands a majority in the Lok Sabha.

Question 34.
Who is the leader of the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The Prime Minister.

Question 35.
What is the tenure of the Prime Minister?
Answer:
The Prime Minister does not have a fixed tenur. He continues in power so long as he remain the leader of the majority party or coalition.

Question 36.
How are members of Council of Minister appointed india?
Answer:
The members of Council of Minister appointed by the president on the advice of the Prime Ministers.

Question 37.
A person who is not a memeber of any house of parliament is appointed as minister within what time he has to get elected to one of the house of the parliament?
Answer:
Within 6 months, he has to be elected to one of the house of the parliament.

Question 38.
Which types of ministers are included in the union council of ministers?
Answer:
Union council of ministers include cabinet ministers, ministers of state and ministers of state with independent charges.

Question 39.
Who presides over cabinet meetings?
Answer:
The Prime Minister presides over cabinet meetings.

Question 40.
State any two functions of the Prime Minister.
Answer:

1. Presiding over cabinet meetings.
2. Distibution and redistribution of work to ministers.

Question 41.
In which type of government the Prime Minister cannot take decisions as he likes?
Answer:
The Prime Minister of a coalition government can not take decisions as he likes.

Question 42.
The President of India is like the Queen of which country?
Answer:
The President of India is like the Queen of Britain whose functions are to a large extent ceremonial.

Question 43.
What is the term of office for the President?
Answer:
Five years.

Question 44.
Who supervises the functioning of all political institutions in the country?
Answer:
The President supervises the overall functioning of all the political institutions in the country.

Question 45.
How is the President elected in India?
Answer:
The President in India is not directly elected by the public. Members of the parliament and members of the legislative assemblies of the entire country are elected by him.

Question 46.
In whose name are international treaties and agruments made?
Answer:
All international treaties and agreements are made in the name of the president.

Question 47.
Who is the supreme commander of India’s defence forces?
Answer:
The President is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India.

Question 48.
A bill passed by parliament becames law only after whose approval?
Answer:
A bill passed by parliament becomes law only after the approval of the President.

Question 49.
State any two functions of the President.
Answer:

1. He appoints the Prime Minister.
2. He approves bills passed by the parliament.

Question 50.
When can the President exercise his discretionary powers in the matter of appointment of the Prime Minister?
Answer:
When a party or coalition does not get a majority in the Lok Sabha, the President can exercise his discretionary powers.

Question 51.
What is the highest Court in the country called?
Answer:
The Supreme Court.

Question 52.
Where is the Supreme Court located in India?
Answer:
Delhi.

Question 53.
Describe the structure of Indian judiciary.
Answer:
The Indian judiciary consists of a supreme court for the entire nation, High courts in the states, district courts and the courts at local level.

Question 54.
Who controls the judicial administration of the country.
Answer:
The supreme court controls the judicial administration of the country

Question 55.
Whose verdict is required by all the courts of the country?
Answer:
Of the supreme court.

Question 56.
All the courts of the country have to decide whose decision?
Answer:
Of the supreme court.

Question 55.
Which dispute can the supreme court hear?
Answer:
The supreme court can hear any of the following disputes.

1. Between citizens of the country,
2. Between citizens and government,
3. Between two or next more state government, and
4. Between government at the union and state level.

Question 58.
Name the institution where disputes between two or more state governments are finally settled in our country.
Answer:
The disputes between two or more state governments are finally settled in the supreme court.

Question 59.
Which is the highest court of appeal in civil and criminal cases?
Answer:
Supreme court.

Question 60.
Which institution can hear appeal against the decisions of the high courts?
Answer:
The supreme court can hear appeals against the decisions of the high courts.

Question 61.
What does independence of the judiciary means?
Answer:
Indepenence of the judiciary means that it is not under the control of the legislature or the executive.

Question 62.
What is the procedure for the removal of Judges of the Supreme Court ?
Answer:
A Judge can be removed by the President on the grounds of ‘proved misbehaviour or incapacity’ but the resolution for his impeachment should be passed by both the Houses.

Question 63.
Who have the power to interpret the constitution of the country?
Answer:
The supreme court and the high courts have the power to interpret the constitution of the country.

Question 64.
In what ways does the powers and independence of the Indian judiciary give him the ability to function ?
Answer:
The powers and the independence of the Indian judiciary allow it to act as the guardian of the fundamental right.

Question 65.
Why is the Supreme court called the ‘Guardian of the Constitution’?
Answer:
The written constitution of the country is the fundamental law of the land. It is the supreme law, above all men, matters and legislation. The Supreme Court has been given the power to interpret the constitution, declare the law and enforce the principle of and balances, prevalent in the constitution.

Question 66.
‘The Supreme Court is the Guardian of the Fundamental Rights’. Explain.
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Fundamental Rights. A citizen, whose fundamental right has been violated by any individual, government or institution, may move to the Supreme Court for the protection of his Fundamental Rights.

Question 67.
What is PIL?
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) means litigation for the protection of public interest. It is the power given to the public by courts through Judicial activism. Such cases may occur when the victim does not have the necessary resources to commence litigation or his freedom to move court has been suppressed.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do we need the political institutions? Give reasons?
Answer:
We need political institutions for the following:
1. To Take Decisions:
Institutions are required to take decisions regarding the policies, to collect taxes, spending money on administration, defence and development programmes.

2. Implementation of Decisions:
The decisions which are taken by one institution have to be implemented. Most of the decisions are implemented by permanent executives.

3. To Solve the Dispute:
In a democratic country disputes may occur over decisions. So, courts have been established to solve the disputes.

4. Right decisions:
Institutions provide solid base to democracy. They provide an opportunity for a wider set of people to be consulted in any decision. These institutions help the rulers to take right decisions.

Question 2.
Give any two differences between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The differences between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are as follows.

Lok Sabha	Rajya Sabha
1. The members of the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.	1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by the members of the legislative assemblies.
2. The tenure of Lok Sabha is 5 years. The house can be dissolved berfore the expiry of the tenure.	2. The tenure of Rajya Sabha members is 6 years but one-third members retire after every 2 years. It can not be dissolved, it is a parmanent house.

Question 3.
Lok Sabha is more powerful than Rajya Sabha’. Analyse the statement.
Answer:
Lok Sabha is more powerful than Rajya Sabha. This is clear from the following facts.

1. Any ordinary law needs to be passed by both the houses but in case of conflict, view of Lok Sabha prevails because it has large number of members.
2. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget or any other money related law, Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. The Rajya Sabha can delay it for a maximum of 14 days or suggest changes in it which may or may not be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
3. Most importantly, the Lok Sabha controls the Council of Ministers. If the majority of the Lok Sabha members say that they have no confidence in the Council of Ministers, then all the ministers including the Prime Minister have to resign. Thus, it can be concluded that Lok Sabha is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.

Question 4.
Differentiate between a Money Bill and an Ordinary Bill? (Any three)
Answer:

Money Bill	Ordinary Bill
1. A bill deals with income, expenditure, loans, investments and taxes is a Money Bill.	1. Any bill which is not a Money Bill is an Ordinary Bill.
2. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.	2. It may be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
3. Prior permission of the President is sought to introduce this bill.	3. It is not necessary to take any prior permission of the President to introduce this bill.
4. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations for changes in the Bill.	4. It is necessary to pass this bill by Rajya Sabha also. If Rajya Sabha rejects this bill, it can not be passed.

Question 5.
Differentiate between political executive and permanent executives.
Answer:
The following are the differences between a political executive and a permanent executive

Political executive	Permanent executive
1. Elected by the people (voters) for specific period.	1. Appointed a long term basis.
2. Answerable to the people.	2. Answerable to the government.
3. Political leaders are political executives	3. Civil servants are the permanent executives.

Question 6.
Why does the political executive have more power than the non political executive?
Answer:
There are following reasons for this.

1. In democracy, the will of the people is paramount, political executives are the elected representative of the public. Therefore, they use all the power on behalf of the people.
2. Political executives (ministers) are ultimately accountable to the public for their policy and decision.

Question 7.
How is the election of Prime Minister in India?
Answer:
There is no direct election for the post of Prime Minister in India. The President appoints the Prime Minister. The President appoints the leader of the majority party or coalition parties in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.

In case no single party or alliance gets a majority, the president appoints the person most likely to secure a majority support. The Prime Minister does not have a fixed tenure. He continues in power so long as he remains the leader of the majority party or coalitions.

Question 8.
Write any three constraints on the powers of the Prime Minister of a coalition government.
Answer:
Following are the three constraints on the powers of Prime Minister of coalition government.

1. The agenda and policies of the government are usually decided as a common minimum programme which includes all the views and demands of coalition partners.
2. The Prime Minister has to accommodate different groups and fraction in his party as well as his alliance partners.
3. He has to pay attention to the views and positions of his coalition partners for
   the survival of his government.

Question 9.
Briefly describe which classes of ministers are there in the council of ministers.
Answer:
The Council of Ministers consists of three classes of ministers.

1. Cabinet minister: They are usually for leaders of the ruling party or parties who are incharge of the major ministeries.
2. Ministers of state with independent charge: They are usually incharge at smaller ministries. They participate in the cabinet meetings only when specially invited.
3. Ministers of state: They are attached to and required to assist cabinet ministers.

Question 10.
Explain the collective responsibility of fhe Cabinet.
Answer:
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible and accountable to the Lok Sabha. The cabinet owes collective responsibility for all the decisions taken by it. If the Lok Sabha rejects the policy of the government on a particular issue, it is not only the Minister responsible for that subject, but also the whole council of Ministers must accept the responsibility and resign.

Question 11.
The Prime Minister is the line of communication between the Cabinet and the President. Justify by giving two examples.
Answer:

1. The Prime Minister conveys cabinet’s decisions to the the President, and keeps him informed of all national or foreign matters of the government.
2. He advises the President to summon and progue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.

Question 12.
Discuss the relations of the Prime Minister with the Parliament.
Answer:

1. The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Prime Minister is the chief spokesman of the government in the Parliament.
3. The Prime Minister is free to choose ministers as long as they are the members of Parliament.

Question 13.
In recent years the rise of coalition politics has imposed certain constraints on the power of the the Prime Minister. Justify the statement.
OR
Coalition politics has acted to curb the powers of the Prime Minister. Discuss.
Answer:

1. The Prime Minister of coalition government can not take decisions as he likes,
2. He has to accommodate different groups and factions in his party as well as among alliance partners.
3. He has also to need to the view and positions of the coalition partners and other parties, on whose support the survival of the government depends.

Question 13.
Write any three legislative powers of the President of India.
Answer:
Following are the three legislative powers of the President of India.

1. The Presindent is not a member of either house of the parliament. But she is an integral part of the legislative process. He plays an important role in making of laws.
2. The President has the power to dissolved the Lok Sabha. He can summon joint sitting of both houses of parliament.
3. The president has the power to send messages to either house of the parliament either regarding any pending bill or any other matter.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why was the Mandal Commission appointed? What did it recommend to the government?
Answer:
The government of India appointed the second backward classes commission in the year 1979. B.P mandal was the head of Mandal Commission. Thus, it was popularly known as mandal commission.
It was appointed in order to:
1. Determine the criteria to identify the socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs) in India.

2. To recommend steps to be taken for their advancement. The commission gave its report in 1980 and made following recommendations 27% of the government jobs be reserved for the socially and educationally backward classes. The report and recommendations were discussed in the parliament. On 6th August 1990, the government of India took a formal decision to implement the recommendation.

Question 2.
Describe the “Indira Sawhney and others v/s union of India case” along with its major reforms.
Answer:
In 1990, the central government implemented 27% reservation for socially and educationally backward classes in government jobs in accordance with the recommendations of the mandal commission. Some persons and associations opposed the order of government of implementing reservation and filed a number of cases in the courts. People appealed to the courts to declare the order invalid and stop its implementation.

The supreme court of India bunched all these cases together and this case came to be known as the ‘India Sawhney case’. Eleven judges of the Supreme Courts heard arguments of both sides. By a majority, the Supreme Court judges in 1992 declared the order of government was valid.

Supreme Court modified the orginal order and declared. That well to-do persons among the backward classes should be excluded from getting benefit of the reservation. Hence, the department of personnel and Training issued another office memorandum on 8th September, 1993.

Question 3.
Why do we need parliament? Explain in detail.
Answer:
We need parliament for the following reasons.
1. Parliament is the final authority for making laws in any country. This task of law making or legislation is so important that these assemblies are called legislatures. Parliaments all over the world can make new laws, change existing laws, or abolish existing laws and make new ones in their place.

2. Parliament all over the world exercise some control over those who run the government. In same countries like India this control is direct and full. Those who run the government can take decisions only so long as they enjoy support of parliament.

3. Parliament is required to control public money, i.e., treasury. In most countries the public money can be spent only when parliament sanctions it.

4. Parliament is the highest forum of discussion and debate on public issues and national policy in any country. Parliament can seek information about any matter.

Question 4.
What is parliament? Explain the major powers and function of the parliament.
Answer:
Parliament A national assembly of elected representatives of India is called parliament. Following are the major powers and functions of the parliament of India.

1. The parliament elects Presidents, Vice-President, Speaker, Deputy Speaker, ViceChairman of Rajya Sabha, etc. It can also remove President, Vice-President, Judges of the Supreme Court and High courts by passing a resolution of impeachment against them.
2. The parliament is the final authority for making laws in any country. In India, it makes laws on the subjects of union list, concurrent list and in certain cases on state list.
3. The parliament can seek information from and ask questions to the government and its ministers on any matter.
4. The parliament can pass a resolution of no-confidence against the ministry and ask it to resign. Those who run the government can take decision only so long as they enjoy support of the parliament.
5. The parliament is the highest fourm of discussion and debate oh public issues and national policies.
6. The governmental budget is passed in the parliament and it controls all the money that government has.

Question 5.
Distinguish between political and permanent executive. Why does the political executive have more power than the non-political executive?
Answer:
1. The political excecutive consists of the political leaders who have been elected by the people for a specific period. They work till the House is dissolved or their five- year term is over. The permanent executive consists of those persons who have been oppointed on a long term basis. It constitutes of civil servants.

2. In a democracy, the will of the people is supreme. The political executive, i.e. the minister is elected by the people and thus is empowered to exercise the will of the people on their behalf. He is finally answerable to the people for all the consequences of his decisions.

That is why the minister takes all the final decisions. Though, he takes the advice of experts on all technical matters. But very often experts hold different opinions before him, i.e., more than one single option. Depending on what the overall objective is, the minister decides. Therefore, he has more power than the non-political or permanent executive.

Question 6.
Who appoints the Council of Ministers? also explain its composition?
Answer:
Appointment of Council of Ministers:
After the appointment of the Prime Minister, the president appoints the minister of the Council of Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. The ministers are usually from the party or the coalition
that has the majority in the Lok Sabha. In other words, the President appoints the Council of Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Composition of Council of Ministers:
The council of ministers is the official name for the body that includes all the ministers. It usually has 60 to 80 ministers of different ranks. The Council of Ministers have collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha, it includes three types of ministers.

1. Cabinet ministers:
They are usually top leaders of the ruling party or parties who are in charge of the major ministries. They meet to take decisions in the name of the council of ministers cabinet is the inner ring of the Council of Ministers.

2. Ministers of state with independent charge:
They are usually incharge at smaller ministers. They participate in the cabinet meetings only when specially invited.

3. Ministers of state:
They are attached to and required to assist cabinet ministers.

Question 7.
Describe the powers and functions of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
As the head of the government, the Prime Minister has wide ranging powers. The power and functions of the Prime Minister are as follows:

1. He is free to choose ministers. He distributes and redistributes work to the ministers.
2. All ministers work under his leadership.
3. He chairs cabinet meetings.
4. He coordinates the work of different departments. His decisions are “final in case disagreement aries between different departments.
5. He exercises general supervision of different ministers.
6. He also has the power to dismiss ministers. When the Prime Minister quits the entire ministry quits.
7. He communicates to the president all decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of union and proposals of legislation.
8. He is the leader of the nation. People always remain ready to hear his views on all political and economic issues.
9. He is the ex-office chairman of Niti aayog. Which supervises economic policies.
10. When he attends the international meetings, represents his nation and whatever he says there is on behalf of his country.

Question 8.
Explain the election of the President.
Answer:
1. The President is elected indirectly. Ordinary citizens play no part in this election. She is elected by the Electoral College, a joint body of elected M.Ps and M.L.As. It is a temporary body which is dissolved immediately after the election of the President is over.

2. All the members of the Electoral College are expected to indicate their preference by writing 1, 2, 3 against the names Presidential Candidates, according to their choice, on the ballot paper.

3. If any one of the candidates secures more than 50 per cent of the total number of votes polled, she is declared elected.

4. If none of the candidates secures more than 50 per cent of the total number of votes polled, the candidate with the least number of voters is eliminated. His votes are transferred to the candidate for whom the voters have indicated second preference.

Question 9.
Describe the functions and powers of the President.
Answer:
Following are the functions and powers of the President:

1. All governmental activities take place in the name of the President.
2. All laws and major policy decisions of the government are issued in his name.
3. All major appointments are made in the name of the President. These include the appointment of the Chief Justice of India, the judge of Supreme Court and the High courts of the states, the governours of the states, the Election Commissioners Ambassadors to the countries, etc.
4. All international treaties and agreements are made in the name of the President.
5. The president is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India. He appoints to the highest posts of the defence forces.
6. He appoints the Prime Minister and members of the Council of Ministers.
7. Any bill passed by the parliament becomes law only after the signature of the President.
8. Every Union Territory in India is under the President and it is administered by him. He’texercises this power through an administrator appointed by him.

Question 10.
Explain in detail the differences between the presidential system of government and the parliamentary system.
Answer:
The following are the differences between the presdiential system of government and the parliamentary system.

Presidential system	Parliamentary system
1. In the presidential system, the executive is elected by direct voting by the public for a fixed term.	1. In the parliamentary system, the exdhtive is elected indirectly by the public for a fixed period.
2. The executive does not require the support of parliament to remain in power in this system.	2. This system requires the support of the majority of parliament to remain in power.
3. In this system, often the president does not get the support of parliament for his policies. Example—United States of America.	3. In this system the executive gets the support of the parliament for its policies. Example India
4. In this system, there is no difference between the nominal and the real executive of the nation. Both are the same.	4. In this system, the nominal and real executive of the nation are different.
5. The president has a central role in this form of gevernment.	5. The Prime Minister has a central role in this form of government.

Question 11.
Describe the function and powers of the supreme court.
Answer:
Following are the functions and powers of the supreme court:

1. The supreme court is the highest court in the country. If controls the entire judicial administration of the country. Its decisions are binding on all other courts of the country.
2. It hears appeals for criminal and civil matters, it also hears against the decisions of the high courts.
3. If can hear any dispute which is
   (a) Between citizens of the country.
   (b) Between citizens and the government.
   (c) Between the government of India and one or more states.
   (d) Between the government of India and one or more states on one side and one or more states on the other.
4. Betweeen two or more states governments.
5. It interprets the constitution of the country.
6. It protects the fundamental rights of citizens.

Question 12.
What do you mean by the independence of judiciary?
Answer:
By the independence of judiciary we mean that the judiciary should not be under the influence of any individual or authority. This also means a fair, impartial, fearless and honest judiciary. Following points are given below to justify the independence of judiciary :

1. Appointment of Judges:
The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister. But it consults the chief justice of the Supreme Court.

2. Security of Tenure:
A Judge can remain in office till he has attained the age of 65 (in case of supreme court) and 62 years (in case of the High Court). He can be removed by the President on the grounds of “proved misbehaviour or incapacity”. But the resolution of his impeachment should be passed by two-third members of the two houses of the parliament.

3. No Discussion with Respect to the Conduct of Any Judge:
No discussion shall ‘ take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any judge in the discharge of his duties when a motion for this removal is under consideration.

4. Punishment for the Contempt of Court:
Genuine criticism of a judgement is allowed, but nothing should be done to lower the authority or dignity of the court.

Question 13.
“The Indian judiciary is free from legislature and executive control”. Explain.
Answer:
The Indian judiciary is free from legislature and executive control. This is evident from the following points.

1. The judges of the supreme court and high courts are appointed by the president on the advice of the Prime Minister. But it also consults the chief justice of the supreme court.
2. The senior most judge of the supreme court is usually appointed the chief justice.
3. Once a person is appointed a judge at the supreme or high court, it is almost impossible to remove him from his post.
4. A judge can be removed only by an impeachment motion passed separately by two-thirds members of the two houses of the parliament. This is a very difficult task. It has never happened in the history of Indian democracy.

Question 14.
“The judiciary in India is also one of the most powerful in the world”. Explain.
Answer:
The judiciary in India is also one of the most powerful in the world. This is evident from the following points:

1. The supreme court and high courts of India are empowered to interpret the constitution of the country.
2. The judiciary of India can examine the legality of any act done by the executive and any law passed by the legislature.
3. The Indian judiciary can declare any such law or any such function of the executive passed by the legislature at the national or state level as against the provisions of the constitution.
4. The Indian judiciary also acts as protector of fundamental rights. If the public is harm by any act of the government, then any person can go to the court and get justice by presenting a public interest litigation.
5. The judiciary can interfere the government’s decision-making power is misused.
6. The judiciary prevents the corrupt conduct of government officials.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 3 Electoral Politics

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Name the party formed by Chaudhary Devi Lai.
(a) Lok Dal
(b) National Congress
(c) BJP
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Lok Dal

2. Which of the following terms is used when fresh election is held only for constituency to fill the vacancy caused by death or resignation of a member?
(a) By election
(b) General election
(c) Parliament election
(d) Assembly election.
Answer:
(a) By election

3. Which of the following states has the largest number of Lok Sabha seats?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Haryana.
Answer:
(b) Uttar Pradesh

4. What is the minimum age for voting in India?
(a) 18 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years.
Answer:
(a) 18 years

5. What does EVM stand for?
(a) Electronic Volt Machine
(b) Electric Vending Machine
(c) Electronic Voting Machine
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Electronic Voting Machine

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which movement did Chaudhary Devi Lai lead?
Answer:
Chaudhary Devi Lai led a movement called Nyaya Yudh (Struggle for Justice).

Question 2.
What do you mean by Elections?
Answer:
In a democracy, administration is run by the representatives who are elected by the people. The process by which people elect their representatives is called Elections.

Question 3.
What are constituencies?
Answer:
For election, the entire country is divided into fixed electoral areas with a body of registered voters. These areas are called constituencies.

Question 4.
Mention a merit of electoral competition.
Answer:
One merit of electoral competition is that it gives choice to voters to choose best among the contesting candidates.

Question 5.
What is ‘party-politics’?
Answer:
Different political parties and leaders often level allegations aganist one another. Parties and candidates often use dirty tricks to win election. Such malpractices are collectively termed as ‘party-politics’.

Question 6.
What are the ‘two types’ of elections?
Answer:

1. General Election,
2. By-Election.

Question 7.
What do you mean by General Election?
Answer:
Elections to the Lok Sabha and the Vidhan Sabha in the states are normally held every nve years, which is known as General Election. ‘

Question 8.
What do you understand by By-Elections?
Answer:
If a representative from a constituency dies while in office or if the office falls va-cant because of reasons like resignation, fresh elections are held in that particular constituency. Such an election is called by-election.

Question 9.
Into how many constituencies has the country been divided for Lok Sabha elections?
Answer:
The country has been divided into 543 constituencies for Lok Sabha elections.

Question 10.
What is the representative, elected from each parliamentary constitutency called?
Answer:
Member of Parliament (MP).

Question 11.
Differentiate between MP and MLA.
Answer:
For Lok Sabha, the country is divided into various constituencies. The representative elected from each constituency is called Member of Parliament (MP). On the other hand, each state is divided into certain Assembly constituencies. The representative elected from them is called Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA).

Question 12.
What is the motive behind reserved constituencies?
Answer:
The motive behind reserved constituencies is to ensure proper representation of the weaker sections of our society like scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.

Question 13.
How many seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
84 Seats.

Question 14.
How many seats are reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
47 Seats.

Question 15.
What is the official name of voters’ list?
Answer:
Electoral roll.

Question 16.
What is Electoral Roll?
Answer:
The list of eligible voters is known as Electoral Roll and is commonly known as Voters’ List.

Question 17.
Who can be denied the right to vote?
Answer:
Criminals and persons with an unsound mind can be denied the right to vote.

Question 18.
What does‘EPIC’stand for?
Answer:
Election Photo Identity Card.

Question 19.
What is election symbols?
Answer:
At the time of any election, certain symbols are alloted by Election Commission to political parties. They are called election symbols.

Question 20.
What is meant by Model Code of Conduct?
Answer:
Model Code of Conduct is a set of norms and guidelines to be followed by political parties and contesting condidates during election time.

Question 21.
what is ballot paper?
Answer:
A ballot paper is a sheet of paper on which the names of the contesting candidates alongwith party name and symbols are listed.

Question 22.
Nowadays, which machine is used to record votes?
Answer:
Electronic Voting Machine (EVM).

Question 23.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Answer:
The President of India.

Question 24.
What is a turnout?
Answer:
The percentage of eligible voters who cast their votes in an election is known as turnout.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do weneed Elections?
Answer:
We need Elections because:

1. Elec ons give the voters the right to elect their representatives or rulers.
2. Through elections, voters can choose who will form the government and take major decisions. They can choose the party whose policies will guide the government and law-making.
3. Elect ions provide political equality.

Question 2.
“In an election, the voters make many choices.” Explain the statement.
Answer:
in an election, the voters make many choices. This statement can be explained as follows:

1. They can choose who will make laws for them,
2. They an choose who will form the government and take major decisions,
3. They can choose the party whose policies will guide the government and law-making.

Question 3.
What makes an election democratic?
Or
What are the minimum conditions required for democratic elections?
Answer:

1. Everyone should have one vote and every vote should have equal value.
2. Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections and should offer some real choice to the voters. The choice should be offered at regular inter¬vals. Elections must be held regularly after every few years.
3. Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner where people can choose as they wish.

Question 4.
Mention any four demerits of electoral competition.
Answer:
Following are the four demerits of electoral competition:

1. An electoral competition creates a sense of disunity and ‘factionalism’ in every locality.
2. Different political parties and candidates often use dirty tricks to win elec-tions.
3. The pressure of winning electoral fights does not allow sensible long-term policies to be formulated.
4. Some good people who wish to serve the country do not enter this arena as they do not like this unhealthy competition in politics.

Question 5.
Distinguish between general election and by election.
Answer:
Differences between general election and by election are as follows:

General Election	By Election
1. Elections are held in all constituencies at the same time either on the same time either on the same day or within a fear days. This is called a general election.	1. Election is held only for one constituency to fill the vacancy caused by death of resignation of a member. This is called a by election.
2. This election are held regularly after every five years.	2. This election is held before the expiry of six months from the date of the seat falls vacant.
3. By this elections, the representatives are elected for a full term of five years.	3. By this election the representative is elected for the remaining period of the house and not for five years.

Question 6.
What is an Election Photo Identity Card?
Answer:
Every eligible voter whose name appears in the voters’ list, is issued an identity card by the government. This contains the photograph of the voter. The card serves , as a mark of identification at the time of polling of votes. Such card is called as an Election Photo Identity Card.

Question 7.
Who can contest an election? What is the procedure for the nomination of candidates?
Answer:
Any citizen over 25 years of age can file his nomination. Filing the nomination means he can present himself as a candidate. Every person who wishes to contest an election has to fill a ‘nomination form’ and give some amount as ‘security deposit’.

Recently, a new system of declearation has been introduced at the direction of the Supreme Court, according to which, every candidate has to make a legal declaration, giving full details of their assets and liabilities, their family and their educational qualifications. This information has to be made public. This provides an opportunity to the voters to make their decision on the basis of the information provided by the candidates.

Question 8.
What is the importance of symbols in elections?
Answer:
Political parties have usually well-known symbols. Normally, a person recognises a party instantly from its symbol. Symbols are allotted by the Election Commission so that every condidate has a different symbol and the voters do not get confused.

Question 9.
What details are needed to be given by the candidates in a legal declaration?
Answer:
The candidates in a legal declaration are expected to give full details of:

1. Serious criminal cases pending against them.
2. Assets and liabilities of the candidates and their families.
3. Educational qualifications of the candidates.

Question 10.
What are the corrupt election practices forbidden by law?
Answer:
Corrupt election practices forbidden by law are as follows:

1. To bribe or threaten the voters.
2. Using government money or other public resources to aid an election campaign.
3. Spending more than the allowed amount of money for a Lok Sabha or Assembly election, and appeal to voters in the name of religion or caste.

Question 11.
Mention the norms of a Model Code of Conduct for election campaigns.
Answer:

1. Use any place of worship for election propaganda;
2. Use government vehicles, aircrafts and officials for elections;
3. Once elections are announced, ministers shall not lay foundation stones of any projects, take any big policy decisions or make any promises of providing public facilities.

Question 12.
How are votes casted?
Answer:
On the election day, every person whose name is on the voters’ list can go to a nearby ‘polling booth’, situated usually in a local school or a government office. Once the voter goes inside the booth, the election officials identify him, put a mark on his finger and allow him to cast his vote. An agent of each candidate is allowed to sit inside the polling booth and ensure that the voting is taking place in a fair way.

Earlier the voters used to indicate who they wanted to vote for by putting a stamp on the ballot paper. Nowadays, Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) are used to record votes. The machine shows the names of the candidates and the party symbols. Independent candidates too have their own symbols, alotted by the election officials. All the voters has to do press the button against the name of the candidate he/she wants to give his/her vote.

Question 13.
How are the votes counted?
Answer:
Once the polling is over, all the EVMs are sealed and taken to a secure place. A few days later, on a fixed date, all the EVMs from a constituency are opened and the votes secured by each condidate are counted. The agents of all candidates are present there to ensure that the counting is done properly.

The candidate who secures the highest number of votes from a constituency is declared elected. In a general election, usually the counting of votes in all the constituencies takes place at the same time, on the same day. Television, radio and newspapers report this event. Within a few hours of counting, all the results are declared and it becomes clear as to who will form the next government.

Question 14.
Write any four allegations about unfair practices on election, reported in newspapers and television.
Answer:
Newspapers and television generally report the following four allegations about unfair practices in elections.

1. Inclusion of false names and exclusion of genuine names in the voters’ list.
2. Misuse of government facilities and officials by ruling party.
3. Excessive use of money by rich candidates and big parties.
4. Intimidation of voters and rigging on the polling day.

Question 15.
Explain any two provisions which ensure the independency of the Election Commission.
Answer:
Following are the two provisions which ensure the independency of the Election Commission.

1. The members of the Election Commission are appointed by the President of India, but the members are not answerable to the President of India.
2. It is virtually impossible for the government to remove the members even if their work is not liked by the government.

Question 16.
Explain any four functions of the Election Commission of India.
Answer:
Following are the four functions of the Election Commission of India:

1. Election Commission take decision on every aspect of conduct and control of elections.
2. It implements the code of conduct and can punish any candidate or party that violates it.
3. It controls the government officers who are rooted on the election duty.
4. During the election period, the Election Commission can order the govern-ment to follow some guidelines.

Question 17.
What are the measures taken by the Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections?
Answer:
The Commission takes many measures. Some of these are as follows:

1. It sends central observers to sensitive constituencies;
2. The Commission prescribes the code of conduct for the election campaign, and
3. The Commission creates conditions for a free and fair poll.

Question 18.
What factors affect citizens’ participation in electoral politics?
Answer:
The factors affecting citizens’ participation in electroal politics are:
1. The Literacy Factor:
A vast majority of voters may not be welleducated, but they have plenty of common sense and enthusiastically cast their vote.

2. Economic, Regional and Ethnic Factors:
Unemployment and poverty have made low-income groups conscious of their voting right. In western democracies, especially in the United States, the better educated and the rich, vote more than those having lower status, such as the blacks and the poor persons. In case of India, the situation is exactly opposite of that. The regional and ethnic factors considerably helped the DMK, ALA DMK, Shiv Sena, Akali Dal, Assam Gana Parishad and the Bahujan Samaj Party in India.

3. Participation of Women:
Women, as compared to men, are politically less informed but their participation has increased steadily election after election. The number of women candidates has also shown a rising trend. This is in contrast to western democracies where men vote more than women.

Question 19.
How has the interest of the voters in the election-related activities increased in recent years in India? Explain.
Answer:
The interest of the voters in the election related activities has been increasing over the years. During the 2004 election, more than one third voters took part in a campaign-related. activity. More than half of the people identify themselves as being close to one or the other political party. One out of every seven voters is a member of a political party.

Question 20.
“If elections are not free or fair, the outcome always favours the powerful.” Does the outcome of elections in India justify this statement?
Answer:
The outcome of elections in India speaks for itself:

1. The ruling parties routinely lose elections in India both at the national and state level. In fact, in every two out of the three elections held in the last 25 years, the ruling party lost. In India, about half of the sitting MPs or MLAs lose elections.
2. Candidates who are known to have spent a lot of money on ‘buying votes’ and those with known criminal connections, often lose elections.
3. Barring very few disputed elections, the electoral outcomes are usually accepted as ‘people’s verdict’ by the defeated party.

Question 21.
Explain any four challenges and limitation to free and fair elections in India.
Answer:
Following are the four challenges and limitation to free and fair elections in India:

1. Candidates and political parties with a lot of money enjoy a big and unfair advantage over smaller parties or independent candidates.
2. Candidates with criminal records have been able to push others out of electoral race and secure a ticket from major parties.
3. Some families tend to doominate political parties and secure tickes for their own family members.
   (iv) Smaller parties and independents suffer a huge disadvantage compared to bigger parties.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are reserved constituSncies ? Why are they required?
Answer:
A true democracy provides equal opportunity to all the individuals and sections of the society to take part in elections, get elected and share the responsibility of gov-ernance of the country. In our country, the weaker section constitutes, by and large, Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), Other Backward Castes (OBCs) and Women.

For elections to be meaningful, a level playing field is to be provided to both the weakers and the powerful sections of the society. With this in view, our constitution contains the provision of reserved constituency. By reserved constituency, we mean a constituency in which only a person belonging to that particular group can contest an election for which the seat has been rserved. For example, in a SC constituency, only a person belonging to one of the SCs can contest elections. Similarly, for a ST constituency, only a ST person can be the candidate.

Question 2.
Explain the entire election process.
Answer:
The entire election process can be briefy stated as follows:
1. Notification of Election Dates:
The elections process begins with the notifica¬tion of the election dates by the Election Commission.

2. Prepareation of Electoral Rolls:
Once the constituencies are decided the next step is to decide the voters who can vote. In a democratic elections, the list of those who are eligible to vote is prepared much before the elections. The list of eligible voters is known as Electoral Roll and is commonly known as Voters’ List.

3. Nomination of Candidates:
Political parties nominate their candidates who get the part}- symbol and support. Every person who wishes to contest an election has to file a ‘Nomination form’ and deposit some amount as security deposit.

4. Scrutinising of Nomination Papers:
The nomination papers are scrutinised on the fixed date. Incomplete or incorrect papers are rejected by the Commission.

5. Withdrawal of Nominations:
The candidates are given a date for withdrawal of their names after the withdrawal, the final list is printed. Election symbols are alloted to the candidates.

6. Election Campaign:
When the final list gets printed by the Returning Officer,
different political parties launch their election campaigns to canvass for their candidates. The political parties issue their election manifestos and propagate their programmes to the people through public meeting, processions, rallies, newspapers, booklets and radio etc.

7. Polling:
Public holiday is declared on the election day, so that each voter may exercise his/her vote.

8. Counting of Votes: After the election is over, the counting personnels are appointed by the Election Officer, who, at a fixed place and at the fixed time, start their counting work in the presence of the Returning Officer.

9. Declaration of Results: After the counting of votes is over, the election officer declares the candidate getting the maximum votes, elected.

10. Election Petitions:
After the declaration of election results, the defeated candidate of the constituency can file an election petition against the successful candidate within a fixed period to the concerned court or election tribunal. If the allegations are proved true, the court declares the election of the successful candidate invalid and it declares the defeated candidate as successful.

Question 3.
Why slogan are used by political parties? Mention any four successful slogans given by different political parties in various elections.
Answer:
In election campaign, various political parties use slogans to attract the voters and get them to vote for their party on that basis:
Following are the four successful slogans given by different political parties in various elections:
1. The congress party led by Indira Gandhi gave the slogan of Garibi Hatao (Remove poverty) in the Lok Sabha election of 1971. The party promised to reorient all the policies of the government to remove poverty from the country.

2. The Janata Party gave the slogan of Save Democracy in the Lok Sabha election of 1977, under the leadership of Jaya Prakash Narayan. The party promised to undo the atrocities committed during emergency and restore civil liberties.

3. The Left Front gave the slogan of land to the tiller in the West Bengal Assembly elections of 1977.

4. ‘Protect the Self Respect of the Telugus’ was the slogan used by N.T. Rama Rao, the leader of the Telugu Desam Party in Andhra Pradesh Assembly elections in 1983.

Question 4.
What maks elections in India democratic?
1. Independent Election Commission:
In our country the elections are conducted by an independent body, i.e., Election Commission. It enjoys same kind of independence that the judiciary enjoys. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President but once appointed he/she is not answerable to the President or the Government.

2. Popular Participation:
People’s participation in election is usually measures by voter turnout figures. Turnout indicates the percent of eligible voters who actually cast their vote. Over the last fifty years, the turnout in Europe and North America has declined. In India, the turnout has either remained stable or actually gone up.

3. Paticipation of Underprivileged:
In India, the poor, illiterate and under-privileged people vote in larger proportion as compared to the rich and privileged section. This is in contrast to western democracies.

4. Participation of People in Election-Related Activities:
It is not only the turnover and casting of votes but the people are also taking a lot of interest in election-related activities. According to a survey, one out of every seven voters is a member of a political party. During the general elections of 2004, more than one-third voters took part in campaign-related activities.

5. Acceptance of Election Outcome:
One final test of the free and fairness of election has in the outcome itself. If elections are not free and fair, the outcome
always favours the powerful ruling party. Usually, the ruling party does not accept the outcome of a rigged elections.

Question 5.
Mention the functions of Election Commission.
Answer:
1. Conduct of Elections:
The Election Commission is obliged to conduct all elec¬tions to the Parliament and State Assemblies. It also supervises and directs the elections to the office of the President and Vice-President of India.

2. Recognition of Political Parties:
The Election Commission grants recognition to political parties. For this purpose, it has evolved its own procedure.

3. Allotment of Symbols:
The Election Commission allots symbols to political parties and to independent candidates.

4. Ensuring Free and Fair Elections:
To ensure free and fair elections is one of the major functions of the Election Commission.

5. The Model Code of Conduct for Elections:
Another important function of the Election Commission is to prescribe a Model Code of Conduct for the candidates and political parties, which is ought to be followed by them.

6. Preparation of Electoral Rolls:
The Election Commission prepares electoral rolls and includes the names of the valid voters in the electoral rolls.

7. Appointment of Electoral Staff:
The Election Commission appoints Chief Electoral officers for every state and one Returning Officer for every constituency. These officers appoint several other officers to make arrangement for the elections.

Question 6.
State the limitations and challenges to the elections in India.
Answer:
The limitations and challenges to the elections in India are as follows:

1. Candidates and parties with a lot of money may not be sure of their victory, but they do enjoy a big and unfair advantage over smaller parties and independents.
2. In some parts of the country, candidates with criminal connection have been able to push others out of the electoral race and to secure a ‘ticket’ from major parties.
3. Some families tend to dominate political parties; tickets are distributed to relatives from these families.
4. Very often, elections offer little choice to ordinary citizens, for both the major parties are quite similar to each other, both in policies and practice.
5. Smaller parties and independent candidates suffer a huge disadvantage compared to bigger parties.
6. These deeper issues are matter of concern for those who believe in democracy. That is why, citizens, social activists and organisations have been demanding reforms in our electoral system.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 Constitutional Design

I. Objective Type Questions

1. On which island Nelson Mandela was kept in prison?
(a) Andman and Nicobar island
(b) Robben island
(c) Greenland island
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Robben island

2. The constitution of India was framed by:
(a) British Parliament
(b) Indian Parliament
(c) A Constituent Assembly
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) A Constituent Assembly

3. When was first meeting of the Consitituent Assembly held?
(a) 1946
(b) 1940
(c) 1935
(d) 1949.
Answer:
(a) 1946

4. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

5. In 1931, who wrote about his expectation from the constitution in his magazine “Young India’?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Motilal Nehru.
Answer:
(b) Mahatma Gandhi

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who said these words “I have fought against white domination and I have fought against black domination”?
Answer:
Nelson Mandela.

Question 2.
For what crime did the white government of South Africa prosecute Nelson Mandela?
Answer:
For the crime of demanding freedom.

Question 3.
Name the leader who led the struggle against racial discrimination?
Answer:
Nelson Mandela.

Question 4.
What is Apartheid?
Answer:
The official policy of racial separation and illtreatment of blacks followed by the government of South Africa between 1948 and 1989.

Question 5.
On the basis of what did the system of apartheid divide people?
Answer:
On the basis of skin colour, the system of apartheid divided people.

Question 6.
Name the umbrella organisation that led the struggle against the policies of segregation.
Answer:
African National Congress (ANC).

Question 7.
On which day did South Africa gain independence from the rule of the white minority?
Answer:
South Africa gained Independence from the rule of the white minority on 26th April, 1994.

Question 8.
Which constitution has inspired democrats all over the world?
Answer:
The constitution of South Africa has inspired democrats all over the world.

Question 9.
What is Constitution?
Answer:
The constitution is a fundamental legal document according to which the government of a country functions.

Question 10.
Which national leader tried to draft a constitution for India in 1928?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly adopted the constitution on 20th November, 1949.

Question 11.
Define the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
The drafting of the document called the constitution was done by an assembly of elected representatives called the Constituent Assembly.

Question 12.
Name the body which prepared the constitution of India.
Answer:
Constituent Assembly.

Question 13.
When were the elections to the Constituent Assembly held?
Answer:
The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July, 1946.

Question 14.
How many members of the Constituent Assembly wrote the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
299 members.

Question 15.
When did the Constituent Assembly adopt the constitution of India?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly adopted the constitution on 26th November, 1949.

Question 16.
When was the Indian constitution came into effect?
Answer:
The Indian constitution come into effect on 26th January, 1950.

Question 17.
Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 18.
Who was the Chariman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar.

Question 19.
What is meant by the term‘Preamble’?
Answer:
The Preamble is an introduction to the constitution which contains the ideals and . basic principles of the Indian Constitution.

Question 20.
Which part of the Indian constitution is called soul of the constitution?
Answer:
The preamble of the Indian constitution is called soul of the constitution.

Question 21.
Which guiding value of the constitution of India means people have the supreme right to make decision?
Answer:
Sovereign.

Question 22.
What is meant by the term ‘socialist’?
Answer:
The term ‘socialist’ in the contect of the Indian constitution means a person who believes that the wealth generated by society should be shared equally by all members of the society.

Question 23.
What is meant by declaring India as a Sovereign State?
Answer:
A sovereign state means that Indian people have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters. No external power can dictate the government of India.

Question 24.
“India is a secular country.” Justify.
Answer:
In India, there is no official religion. All citizens have the right to follow any religion. The Indian government treats all religious beliefs and practices with equal respect.

Question 25.
What proves that India is democratic? Give two points.
Answer:

1. India is democratic, as the government is elected by the people directly after every five years.
2. People enjoy equal political rights and hold their rulers accountable.

Question 26.
What is meant by the term ‘Republic’?
Answer:
If the head of the state is an elected person and not a hereditary position, then it is called as Republic.

Question 27.
Why is India called a Republic?
Answer:
India is called a Republic because the head of the state is an elected person and not from a hereditary position.

Question 28.
What does the term ‘liberty’ signify as mentioned in the preamble of the Indian constitution?
Answer:
It signifies that the citizens are free to express their opinions and there are no unreasonable restrictions on their liberty.

Question 29.
What do you mean by constitutional amendment?
Answer:
A change in the constitution made by the supreme legislative body in the country is known as constitutional amendment.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the ‘Policy of Apartheid’? Explain.
Or
What do you understand by the ‘Policy of Apartheid’? How did this policy come to an end?
Answer:
Policy of Apartheid: The policy of apartheid was a system of racial discrimination unique to South Africa. It was imposed on the black by the white Europeans. In this system, the blacks were forbidden from living in white areas. They could work in white areas only if they had a permit.

Trains, buses, taxis, hotels, hospitals, schools, colleges, libraries, cinema halls, theatres, beaches, swimming pools, public toilets, etc. were all separate for the whites and the blacks. This policy came to an end on 26th April, 1994, when the Republic of South Africa was bom with a multifacial government.

Question 2.
“The partheid system in South Africa was particularly oppressive for the blacks”. Justify the statement with arguments.
Answer:
The following arguments are presented in support of this statement:

1. The blacks were forbidden from living in white areas. They could work in white areas only if they had a permit.
2. Trains, buses, taxis, hotels, hospitals, schools and colleges, libraries, cinema halls, theatres, beaches, swimming pools, public toilets, churchs, etc. were all separate for the whites and blacks.
3. Blacks could not form associations or protest against their terrible treatment.

Question 3.
Explain any three efforts made by the people of South Africa to struggle against the apartheid system :
Answer:
The following three efforts were made by the people of South Africa to struggle against the apartheid system.

1. From 1950 onwards, the blacks, coloured and Indians fought against the apartheid system. They launched protest marches and strikes.
2. The African national congress led the struggle against this policy of segregation. Many workers’ unions and the Communist Party joined this movement.
3. Even many sensitive whites joined the African National Congress and played a leading role in this movement.

Question 4.
Explain the role of Nelson Mandela in the struggle against apartheid.

1. Nelson Mandela was one of the most able, efficient and far-sighted leaders of the African National Congress (ANC).
2. It was under his leadership, that the struggle against apartheid reached its climax.
3. Due to the participation in the movement against apartheid, he was sentenced to life imprisonment in 1964. He spent the next 28 years in prison.
4. In the 90’s due to activities of the ANC and the support it got from other countries of the world, South African regime was completely isolated from the world.
5. In order to create a favourable atmosphere, Nelson Mandela was released in 1990.
6. In 1994, the first democratic elections were held and Nelson Mandela was elected the President of South Africa.

Question 5.
South Africans call themselves a ‘rainbow nation’. Can you guess why?
Answer:
South Africans call themselves a ‘rainbow nation’ because there are whites, blacks, coloured people and Indians in South Africa who have different skin colours. But they are living and working together as one people, unified like the colours of a rainbow.

Question 6.
What is the constitution? What does it explain?
Answer:
The constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living together in a country. Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among citizens and also the relationship between the people and government. The constitution explains:

1. the organisation and structures of the three organs of the government, namely, the Legislature, the Executive and the Judiciary.
2. their powers and functions.
3. their mutual relations.
4. their limitations, and
5. the rights and duties of the citizens.

Question 7.
What functions does the constitution perform?
Answer:
The constitution performs the following functions:

1. It generates a degree of trust and cordination that is necessary for different kind of people to like together.
2. It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions.
3. It lay down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the right of the citizens are.
4. It expresses the aspirations of the people about creating a good society.

Question 8.
‘Formation of Indian constitution was no less difficult than that of South Africa.’ Do you agree ? Explain with five arguments. What were the difficulties faced during the making of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The difficulties faced during the making of Indian constitution were as follows:

1. The making of the constitution for a huge and diverse country like India was not an easy task.
2. At that time, the people of India were emerging from the states of subjects to that of citizens.
3. The country was bom through a partition on the basis of religious differences.
4. The British had left it to the rulers of the princely states to decide whether they wanted to merge with India or with Pakistan or remain independent. The merger of these princely states was a difficult and uncertain task.
5. When the constitution was being written, the future of the country did not look as secure as it does today.

Question 9.
“The Constituent Assembly was a galaxy of outstanding leaders”. Explain.
Answer:
It was India’s good fortune that when it emerged as an independent country, it had the benefit of a galaxy of outstanding leaders. Some of these leaders, who were elected to the Constituent Assembly, were fully conscious about the enormity of the task before them.

Great men and women from different communities were entrusted with the momentous task of drafting the constitution of free India. They came to the Constituent Assembly from all parts of the country, making it a miniature India. The Assembly was dominated by the Indian National Congress but with leaders having different opinions.

Question 10.
What was the procedure adopted for making the Indian constitution ?
Answer:
The ‘Drafting Committee’ chaired by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar prepared a draft of the Indian constitution for discussion.
Several rounds of discussion took place on the draft constitution clause by clause. The members worked for 114 days spread over three years. More than two thousand amendments were considered. Every document presented and every work spoken in the Constituent Assembly has been recorded and preserved. These are called Constituent Assembly Debates.

Question 11.
“The working of the Constituent Assembly has given sanctity to the constitution.”Explain.
Answer:

1. The Constituent Assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner.
2. First, some basic principles were decided and agreed upon. Then a drafting committee prepared a Draft Constitution for discussion.
3. Several rounds of through discussion took place on the Draft Constitution, clause by clause. More than two thousand amendments were considered. The members deliberated for 114 days, spread over three years.
4. Every document presented and every word spoken in the Constituent Assembly has been recorded and preserved. These are called the ‘Constituent Assembly Debates’.
5. Though the Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people, its sessions were open to the press and the people.

Question 12.
What is Preamble to our constitution? What is its importance.
Answer:
The Preamble contains the ideals and basic principles of the Indian Constitution. The Preamble is not a part of the constitution, but it has been described as ‘Key to the Constitution.’ It is not enforceable by the court of law. No one can go to the court and say that the Preamble has not been enforced by the government. Still, the preamble serves as the guiding light of the constitution. Importance of Preamble:

1. It contains the philosophy on which the entire constitution has been built.
2. It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of the government, to find out whether it is good or bad. It is the soul of the Indian constitution.

Question 13.
“Indian Constitution is both rigid and flexible.” Explain.
Answer:
Usually the federal constitutions are rigid, but our constitution presents a mixture of flexibility and rigidity. Some parts of it can be amended by parliament by a simple majority, while other parts are less flexible. They require, for their amendment, a special majority, that is two-thirds of the members of both Houses should vote for that legislation. Then there are Articles which fall under the third category. They require for their amendment a two-third majority of both Houses plus ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States.

III. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the struggle of the South African People against apartheid.
Answer:
The policy of’apartheid was imposed by the whites over the blacks. Under this, people of South Africa were discriminated on the basis of colour and race.

1. The African National Congress (ANC) was the umbrella organisation that led the struggle against the policies of segregation. This included many workers’ unions and the Communist Party.
2. Many sensitive whites also joined the ANC to oppose apartheid, and played a leading role in this struggle.
3. Several countries including India denounced apartheid as unjust and racist, but the white racist government continued to rule by detaining, torturing and killing thousands of blacks and coloured people.
4. As protests and struggles against apartheid increased, the government realised that they could no longer keep the blacks under their rule through repression.
5. The white regime changed its policies. Discriminatory laws were repealed. Ban on political parties and restrictions on the media were lifted. After 28 years of imprisonment, Nelson Mandela walked out of the jail as a free man. Finally, at the midnight of 26th April, 1994, the new national flag of the Republic of South Africa was unfurled, making it a newly born democracy in the world.

Question 2.
How did the white minority and the black majority agree to draw up a common constitution for South Africa?
Answer:

1. Finally, at the midnight of 26th April, 1994 the new national flag of the Republic of South Africa was unfurled making the newly born democracy in the world.
2. After the emergence of the new democratic South Africa, black leaders appealed to fellow blacks to forgive the whites for the atrocities they had committed while in power. They said let us build a new South Africa based on equality of all races and men and women, on democratic values, social justice and human rights.
3. The party that ruled through oppression and brutal killings and the party that led the freedom struggle set together to draw up a common constitution.
4. After two years of discussion and debate, they came out with one of the finest constitution the world has ever had.
5. The new constitution gave to its citizens the most extensive rights available in any country.

Question 3.
What is a constitution? Why do we need a constitution?
Answer:
Constitution:
The constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living together in a country. Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens) and also the relationship between the people and government.
Need of Constitution: We need a constitution because:

1. It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kinds of people to live together.
2. It specifies how the government will be constituted and who will have power to take which decisions.
3. It lays down limits to the powers of the government and tells us what are the rights of the citizens.
4. It expresses the aspirations of the people about creating a good society.
5. It grants universal adult franchise to all and establishes equality for all.
6. The Indian constitution safeguards the interests of minorities, the backward classes, poor and weaker sections of our society.

Question 4.
Explain major difficulties faced by the makers of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The following were the difficulties faced by the makers of the Indian Constitution:

1. The Indian people were emerging as free citizens from their earlier status as subjects. The constitution had to ensure that the people were given certain fundamental rights, which had not been provided earlier.
2. The country was born through a partition on the basis of religious differences. This was a traumetic experience for the people. At least 10 Lakh people were killed on the both sides of the border in partition-related violence.
3. The Britishers had left it to the princely states to decide whether to join either country or remain independent. This problem had to be kept in mind while framing the constitution.
4. India was a vast and varied country with diverse languages, religions, culture, customs and beliefs. This factor was a barrier in framing the constitution.
5. The makers of the Indian constitution had to ensure that the country remained united after the constitution came into force. This was another difficulty faced while framing the constitution.

Question 5.
Highlight the constitution assembly.
Answer:
The constitution of our country was framed by the constituent assembly which was constituted in 1946. This assembly originally had 389 members. Of them, most were elected by the provincial assemblies and some were nominated by the rulers of the native states. The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held in December, 1946.

Soon after, the country was divided into India and Pakistan. The Constituent As¬sembly was also divided into the Constituent Assembly of India and that of Pakistan. The Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian constitution had 299 members. The assembly adopted the constitution on 26 November 1949 but it came into effect on 26 January 1950. To mark this day, we celebrate January 26 as Republic Day every year.

The Constituent Assembly included eminent persons, like Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, Jaipal Singh, Baldev Singh, Shyama Prasad Mukheijee, Somnath Lahiri, C. Rajagopalachari and others. Women members, like Sarojini Naidu and C. Durgabai Deshmukh also played an important role in the constituent assembly.

Question 6.
Describe any five major factors which contributed to making of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The following were the major factors which contributed to the making of Indian Constitution:

1. At that time, people of India were emerging from the status of subjects to that of citizens. They had become conscious of their rights.
2. Our leaders gained confidence to learn from other countries, but on our own terms. Many of them were inspired by the ideals of the French Revolution.
3. They were also influenced by the practices of parliamentary democracy in Britain and the Bill of Rights in the United States of America.
4. Social Revolution in Russia inspired many Indians to think of shaping a system based on social and economic equality.
5. The makers of the constitution were not simply coping the constitution of other countries.
   At each step, they were questioning whether the values and ideals they accepted, suited or not suited to our country. We have modified those provisions to suit our needs.

Question 7.
Explain in detail the steps involved in the framing of Indian constitution.
Answer:
The drafting of the constitution was done by an assembly of elected representatives called the constituent assembly. Following were the steps involved in the framing of Indian constitution:
1. Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946 and its first meeting was held in December 1946.

2. After partition, the Constituent Assembly was also divided into the Constituent Assembly of India and that of Pakistan.

3. The Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian constitution had 299 members. The constitution does not only reflect the views of its members, but it also expresses a broad consensus of its time.

4. The Constituent Assembly represented the people of India, i.e., members from different language groups, castes, classes, religions and occupations.
Thus, the constitution written by the constituent assembly covered the interests of the diverse population of our country.

5. Finally, the manner in which the Constituent Assembly worked provided sanctity to the constitution. They worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner. drafting committee chaired by Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar prepared a draft constitution. Several rounds of thorough discussion took place.

The members deliberated for 114 days, spread over almost three years. Every document was recorded and preserved. These are called as ‘Constituent Assembly Debate’ and are printed in 12 volumes. These are used to interpret the true meaning of the constitution.

6. The assembly adopted the constitution on 26th November, 1949 and it came into effect on 26th January, 1950. To mark this day we celebrate 26th January as the Republic Day of India every year.

Question 8.
Why should we accept the constitution made by Constituent Assembly more than six decades ago? Explain.
Answer:
Due to following reasons, we accept the constitution made by the Constituent Assembly more than six decades ago.
1. The constitution of India does not reflect the view of its members alone. It expresses a broad consensus of its time. Many countries of the world have had. to rewrite their constitution afresh because the basic rules were not acceptable to al1 major social groups or political parties. In some other countries, the cons tution exists as a mere piece of paper.

No one actually follows it. The expe ence of our constitution is different. Over the last half century, several grouj have questioned some provisions of the constitution. But no large social group or political party has ever questioned the legitimacy of the constitution itself. This is an unusual achievement for our constitution.

2. The constituent assembly represented the people of India. It was elected mainly by the members of the existing provincial legislatures. This ensured a fair geographical share of members from all the regions of the country. In social terms too, the assembly represented members from different language groups, castes, classes, religions and occupations.

3. The constituent assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner. First, some basic principles were decided and agreed upon. Then a drafting committee chaired by Dr.B. R. Amebedkar prepared a draft constitution for discussion. Several rounds of thorough discussion took place on the draft constitution, clause by clause.

The members worked for 114 days spread over three years. More than two thousand amendments were considered. Every document presented and every word spoken in the constituent assembly has been recorded and preserved. These debates provide the rationale behind every provision of the constitution. These are used to interpret the meaning of the constitution.

Question 9.
Explain the meaning of each key words of the Preamble.
Answer:
1. We the people of India:
The constitution has been drawn up and enacted by the people through their representatives and not handed down to them by a king or any outside power.

2. Sovereign:
People have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters. No external power can dictate the Government of India.

3. Socialist:
Wealth is generated socially and should be shared equally by society. The government should regulate the owemship of land and industry to reduce socio-economic inequalities.

4. Secular:
Citizens have complete freedom to follow any religion, but there is no official religion. The government treats all religious belief and practices with equal respect.

5. Democratic:
A form of government where people enjoy equal political rights, elect their rulers and hold them accountable. The government runs according to some basic rules.

6. Republic:
The Head of the State is an elected person and he does not come from a heriditary position.

7. Justice:
Citizens cannot be discriminated on the grounds of caste. The government should work for the welfare of all, especially of the disadvantaged groups.

8. Liberty:
There are no unreasonable restrictions on the citizens in what they think, how they wish to express their thoughts and the way they wish to follow up their thoughts in action.

9. Equality:
All are equal before the law. The traditional social inequalities have to be ended. The government should ensure equal opportunity for all.

10. Fraternity:
All of us should live like members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions Civics Chapter 1 What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by:
(a) the people
(b) rich people
(c) the king
(d) all of the above.
Answer:
(a) the people

2. In which year, General Pervez Musharraf held a referendum which granted him five years’ extension as a President?
(a) 2005
(b) 2008
(c) 2002
(d)2010.
Answer:
(c) 2002

3. Since its independence in, Mexico holds elections after every six years to elect its President.
(a) 1938
(b) 1930
(c) 1935
(d) 1947.
Answer:
(b) 1930

4. Which form of government requires all citizens to take part in politics ?
(a) Democracy
(b) Monarchy
(c) Dictatorship
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Democracy

5. Democracy is better than other forms of government because:
(a) people are given opportunities to participate directly in government
(b) democratic governments prepare annual budget
(c) it is a more accountable form of government
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(c) it is a more accountable form of government

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State the definition of democracy given by Abraham Lincoln.
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln, the President of the United States from 1861 to 1865, defined democracy as “Government of the people, for the people and by the people.”

Question 2.
From which Greek word democracy has been derived?
Answer:
Democracy has been derived from the Greek word ‘Democratia’.

Question 3.
What do you mean by the term ‘Democracy’?
Answer:
The term democracy is derived from two Greek words ‘Demos’ which means people and ‘Kratia’ ‘meaning the government. Thus, Democracy means “Rule by the people”.

Question 4.
Which Pakistani general led a military coup in October 1999?
Answer:
The Pakistani general who led a military coup in October 1999 was General Pervez Musharaf.

Question 5.
What was the designation taken by General Pervez Musharraf for himself when he overthrew the democratic government of Pakistan in 1999?
Answer:
General Pervez Musharraf declared himself the chief executive of Pakistan when he overthrew the democratic government of Pakistan in 1999.

Question 6.
What is a Referendum?
Answer:
A Referendum is a vote in which the electorate can express a view on a particular issue of public policy.

Question 7.
With what motive did General Pervez Musharraf issue a ‘legal framework order’ in August 2002?
Answer:
The motive was to ensure that he had the ultimate power to decide how he wanted Pakistan to be ruled.

Question 8.
Mention one of the important features of democracy.
Answer:
One important feature of democracy is that the final decision-making power rests with those elected by the people.

Question 9.
What is the name of the Chinese parliament?
Answer:
The name of the Chinese parliament is Quanguo Renmin Daibiuo Dahui (National People’s Congress).

Question 10.
Which party always forms the government in China?
Answer:
The Communist Party of China always forms the government in China.

Question 11.
When did Mexico get independence?
Answer:
Mexico got independence in 1930.

Question 12.
From 1930, which country holds elections after every six years and which has never been under a military or dictator rule?
Answer:
Mexico.

Question 13.
What is the name of famous political party of Mexico?
Answer:
The famous political party of Mexico is Institutional Revolutionary Party (PRI).

Question 14.
Despite having an elected parliament and government under the monarchy and military rule, why can’t they be called democracy?
Answer:
Because the elected Parliament is nominal. Real power rests in the hands of those people, whom the people have not chosen.

Question 15.
Who should have the final decision-making power in a democracy?
Answer:
The power to make the final decisions in a democracy should be in the hands of the elected representatives by the people.

Question 16.
What do you understand by political equality?
Answer:
Political equality means that each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.

Question 17.
When did Zimbabwe get independence?
Answer:
Zimbabwe gained independence inl980.

Question 18.
Which party of Zimbabwe led the struggle for independence?
Answer:
ZANU-PF.

Question 19.
What does the example of Zimbabew tell us?
Answer:
The example of Zimbabew shows that popular approval of the rulers is necessary in a democracy.

Question 20.
Within what limits does a democratic government govern?
Answer:
A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens’ rights.

Question 21.
State any two characteristics of democracy.
Answer:

1. Rulers elected by the people take all the major decisions.
2. Elections offer a choice and fair opportunity to the people to change the current rulers.

Question 22.
Give any two arguments against democracy.
Answer:

1. Leaders keep changing in a democracy. This leads to instability.
2. Democracy leads to corruption.

Question 23.
Give any two arguments for democracy.
Answer:

1. It is a more accountable form of government.
2. It improves the quality of decision-making.

Question 24.
Which governance system is based on the principle of political equality?
Answer:
Democratic governance is based on the principle of political equality.

Question 25.
Mention any four challenges to Democracy.
Answer:

1. Economic Inequalities,
2. Social Inequalities,
3. Leadership and Political Parties,
4. Power-play in ‘Elections’.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How did Musharraf establish his rule in Pakistan?
Answer:
General Pervez Musharraf led a military coup in Pakistan in October 1999. He over-threw a democratically-elected government and declared himself the chief executive of the country. Later, he changed his designation to President. In 2002, he held a refrendum in the country that granted him a five-year extension.

In August, 2002, he issued a legal framework order that amended the constitution of Pakistan. According to this order, the President can dismiss the national or provincial assemblies. After passing the ‘legal framework order’ elections were held to the national and state assemblies. But the final power was in the hands of military officers and General Musharraf. Elected representatives had only some powers.

Question 2.
“In Pakistan people elect their representatives to the national and provincial assemblies but still it cannot be called a democratic country.” Give reasons.
Answer:
In Pakistan, General Parvez Musharraf led a military coup against a democratically- elected government. The work of the civilian cabinet was supervised by a National Security Council which was dominated by military officers. Though, at present, Pakistan has a democratic government under the leadership of Imran Khan, but the government is still a tool in the hands of Pakistani Army and ISI.

Question 3.
“In China, elections are regularly held after 5 years for electing the country’s Parliament, but still it cannot be called a democratic country.” Give reasons.
Answer:
In China, elections are regularly held after every five years for electing the country’s Parliament. Before contesting elections, a candidate needs the approval of theChinese Communist Party. Only those who are the members of the Chinese Communist Party or eight smaller parties allied to it are allowed to contest elections. The government is always formed by the Communist Party. Therefore, China cannot be called a democratic country.

Question 4.
‘Since its independence in 1930, Mexico holds elections after every six years to elect its President. The country has never been under a military or dictator’s rule but still it cannot be called a democratic country’. Give reasons.
Answer:
Since its independence in 1930, Mexico holds elections after every 6 years. The country has never been under a dictator or military ruler. But until 2000 every election was won by a party called PRI (Institutional Revolutionary Party). Opposition parties did contest elections, but never managed to win. The government used all its machinery to win elections.

All those who were employed in goverment offices had to attend its party meeting. Teachers of government schools used to force parents to vote for the PRI. Media used to work under the influence of the government. The PRI spent a large sum of money in the campaign for its condidates. Thus, due to lack of free and fair elections, Mexico cannot be called a democratic country.

Question 5.
Why are Saudi Arabia, Estonia and China non-democratic countries though they declare themselves as democracies ? State one reason for each of the countries.
Answer:
One major demand of democracy is ‘universal adult franchise’, i.e., the right to vote for every adult citizen. But in world politics, there are many instances of denial of equal right to vote.
These are:

1. In Saudi Arabia, women did not have the right to vote until 2015.
2. Estonia made its citizenship rules in such a manner that people be longing to Russian minority find of it difficult to get the right to vote.
3. In China, before contesting the election, the candidate needs the approval of the Chinese Communist Party. Although these countries declare themselves as democracies, the fundamental principle of ‘political equality’ is denied in all the cases. Thus, these are not truly democratic countries.

Question 6.
Why Zimbabwe cannot be called a democratic nation? Give reasons.
Answer:
Since independence in 1980, the country has been ruled by ZANU-PF. Its leader, Robert Mugabe, had been ruling the country since independence. Elections have been held regularly and always won by ZANU-PF. President Mugabe uses unfair practices in elections.

Over the years, his government has changed the constitution several times to increase the powers of the President. Opposition party workers are harassed and their meeting disrupted. Public protests and demonstrations against the government are declared illegal. The courts are there, but most of the time their orders are ignored by the government. Because of all these reasons, Zimbabwe can¬not be called a democratic country.

Question 7.
Which three rights should every citizen of a democratic country get?
Answer:
Following are the three rights should every citizen of a democratic country get

1. Citizens should be free to express their opinion in public, to form associations, to protest and take other political actions.
2. They should be equal in the eyes of the law.
3. These rights must be protected by an independent judiciary, whose orders should be obeyed by everyone.

Question 8.
Explain the major arguments against democracy.
Answer:
The major arguments against democracy are as follows:

1. Leaders keep changing in a democracy. This leads to instability.
2. Democracy is all about political competition and power-play. There is no scope for morality.
3. Elected leaders do not know the best interest of the people. It leads to bad decisions.
4. Democracy leads to corruption, for it is based on electoral competition.
5. Ordinary people don’t know what is good for them; they should not decide anything.

Question 9.
“Democracy improves the quality of decision-making.” Explain.
Answer:
Democracy is based on consultation and discussion.

1. A democratic decision always involves many persons’ discussions and meetings. When a number of people put their heads together, they are able to point out the possible mistakes in any decision.
2. As most of the decisions are taken by discussion, this reduces the chances of irrational or irresponsible decisions.
3. If the decision is not according to the wishes of the people they have the right to protest and they can even force the government to withdraw it.
4. Thus, we can say that democracy improves the quality of decision-making.

Question 10.
“Democracy provides a method to deal with differecences and conflicts.” Explain.
Answer:

1. Democracy provides all the citizens some basic rights through which they can give their opinion.
2. Democracy provides the citizens a right to choose their representatives and change them if they do not work according to their wishes.
3. In the parliament, all the members have the right to give their opinion. Therefore, we can say that democracy provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts.

Question 11.
“Democracy is better than other forms of government because it allows us to correct its own mistakes.” Explain.
Answer:
There is no guarantee that mistakes cannot be made in democracy. No form of government can guarantee that. The advantage in a democracy is that such mistakes cannot be hidden for long. There is a space for public discussion on these mistakes and there is a room for correction. Either the rulers have to change their decisions or the rulers can be changed. While this cannot happen in a non-democratic government.

Question 12.
What is democracy? Which are its four features?
Answer:
Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people. Some features of democracy are:

1. Democracy is a form of government in which the rules are elected by the people.
2. A democracy must be based on a free and fair election, where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing.
3. In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
4. In a democracy, government rulers within limits set by constitutional law and citizens’ rights.

Question 13.
Keeping in mind the features and principles of democracy, can you say that India is a democratic country? Explain by giving examples.
Answer:

1. Decision-making power with the people’s representative: In India, the final decision-making power is with the parliament, whose members are directly elected by the people.
2. Free and fair elections: In India, we have the Election Commision an independent body for conducting elections. Due to this, the party which is in power has a fair chance of losing.
3. One person, one vote, one value: In India, all the adult citizens have one vote and each vote has one value.
4. Rule of law and respect for rights: Indian government rules within limits set up by the constitutional law. All the citizens have been given some basic rights.

Question 14.
Why is democracy better than any other form of government? Write any five argument to support your answer.
Or
Explain any five arguments in favour of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is better than any other form of government Five arguments in favour of democracy are as follows:

1. A democratic form of government is a better government because it is a more accountable form of government. A democracy requires that the rulers have to attend to the needs of the people.
2. Democracy is based on consulation and discussion. Although it takes time, this process reduces the chances of irrational and irresponsible decisions. Thus, democracy improves the quality of decision-making.
3. Democracy provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts in the society. In a diverse country like India, democracy keeps our country united.
4. As democracy is based on the principle of political equality, it enhances the dignity of citizens.
5. Democracy is better than other forms of government because it allows us to correct our own mistakes. In democracy, there is a space for public discussion on these mistakes and there is always a room for correction.

Question 15.
“Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens”. Explain.
Answer:
There is no guarantee that mistakes cannot be made in democracy. No form of government can guarantee that. The advantage in a democracy is that such mistakes cannot be hidden for long. There is a space for public discussion on these mistakes and there is always a room for correction. Either the rulers have to change their decisions or the rulers can be changed. While this cannot happen in a non-democratic government.

Question 16.
Democracy is based on the principle of political equality. Explain.
Answer:
Democracy is based on the principle of political equality due to the recognition that the poor and the least educated have the same status as the rich and the educated. People are not subjects of a ruler, they are the rulers themselves. Even when they make mistakes, they are responsible for their conduct.

Question 17.
Democracy is the government of the people, for the people and by the people. Explain it.
Answer:
Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people. Rulers elected by the people take all the important decisions. The rulers of democracy have to attend to need of the people. Democracy is based on discussion and consultation.

A democratic decision always involves many persons, discussions and meetings. So, democracy improves the quality of decision-making. Democracy recognises the principal of political equality. It recognises that the poor and the least educated have the same status as the rich and the educated. Thus, people are not subjects of a ruler, they are the rulers themselves.

III. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain any five drity tricks used by the Institutional Revolutionary Party (PRI) to win elections in Mexico.
Answer:
The Institutional Revolutionary Party (PRI) of Mexico won all the elections from 1930 till 2000. The opposition parties did contest elections, but never managed to win. The PRI used may dirty triks to win the election. These were:

1. All those who were employed in government offices had to attend its party meetings.
2. Teachers of government schools used to force the parents to’vote for the Institutional Revolutionary Party.
3. Sometimes, the polling booths were shifted from one place to another without prior notice, which made it difficult for people to cast their votes.
4. Media largely ignored the activities of the opposition political parties.
5. Being in power, the PRI spent a large sum of money to manipulate the elections and in campaigning for the candidates.

Question 2.
Explain the major features of democracy.
Answer:
The major features of democracy are as follows:
1. Responsible Government:
A democratic government is a responsible govern¬ment. The reprsentatives elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise remain responsible to the people, and in case they do not remain responsible before the people, the people can change them during the next elections.

2. Free and fair elections:
A democracy is based on free and fair elections, where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing.

3. Based on Liberty and Fraternity:
In democracy, the rights and the liberty of the people are well safe guarded. People are given freedom to express their views without any fear. They can criticise the wrong policies of the government.

4. Respect of the Principle of Equality:
In a democracy, all are equal in the eyes of law, and no discrimination is done on the basis of birth, race, caste, colour, sex, religion, etc. All citizens get equal opportunities to participate in the affairs of the state.

5. Government based on the will of the people:
A democracy is based on the will of the people, and it functions according to their consent. The government cannot ignore the interest of the people.

6. Political Education:
The gretaest merit of a democracy is its educative value. Participation in elections and other political activities, make the people intelligent and politically conscious. They become enlightened citizens.

Question 3.
Explain any five limitations of democracy.
Answer:

1. Instability: Under democracy, leaders and political parties keep changing. This leads to political inslability.
2. Law morality: Democracy is all about political competition and power-play. There is no scope for morality.
3. Delays in decision-making: All the decisions are to be approved and discussed in the Parliament, and many people and institutions are to be consulted. So, it leads to delays in decision-making.
4. Bad decisions: As most of the leaders do not know the best interest of the people, it leads to bad decisions.
5. Corruption: As democracy is based on electoral competition, it leads to corrup¬tion. Many political parties used muscle and money power to come to power.
6. Illiterate and politically unconscious voters: In most of the developing countries, voters are illiterate and politically unconscious, so they elect wrong governance.

Question 4.
Distinguish between democratic and non-democratic conditions.

Democratic	Non-Democratic
1. Government: A democratic government is elected by the people and it works for the people. It is also answerable to the people. People can change it, if it is not working according to the wishes of the people.	1. Government: A non-democratic government is not elected by the people. The ruler may be hereditary or a military general, who has come to power by force. People cannot change it as there are no regular elections.
2. Basic rights: Under democracy, people ( are given basic rights like freedom of speech, freedom of movement, freedom of forming associations or unions, etc.	2. No basic rights: Under non-democratic conditions, peoploe are not given basic rights. Citizens are put behind bars if they try to demand the basic rights.
3. Regular elections: Under this, there (i are regular elections through which people can change their government.	3. No regular elections: Under this, there are no regular elections. Most of the non-democratic rulers have captured the power through military coup.
4. Constitution: Under democracy, the; (i government works within the limits, set up by the constitution. It has different institutions like judiciary which can check the powers of the government. Parliament is supreme 1 Under ( democracy, it is the parliament which is supreme. All the leaders or’ even the govenment is answerable to the parliament.	4. Constitution: Some of the non democratic countries may have a constitution, but it can be changed only according to the wishes of the dictator.
5. Parliament is supreme: Under democracy, it is the parliament which is supreme. All the leaders or’ even the govenment is answerable to the parliament.	5. The ruler is supreme: Under non-democratic conditions, it is the ruler who is supreme. All the political and economi powers are in his/her hand.

 

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 4 Forest Society and Colonialism

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Which transport system was most essential for colonial trade and movement of goods:
(a) Waterways
(b) Railways
(c) Roadways
(d) Airways.
Answer:
(b) Railways

2. When was the Indian forest service set up?
(a) 1864
(b) 1878
(c) 1845
(d) 1947
Answer:
(a) 1864

3. Who was the first Inspector General of Forests in India?
(a) Dietrich Brandis
(b) Gouges
(c) Napoleon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Dietrich Brandis

4. Where is Bastar located?
(a) Northernmost part of Madhya Pradesh
(b) Easternmost part of Chhattisgarh
(c) Southermost part of Chhattisgarh
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Southermost part of Chhattisgarh

5. The Saminist movement was led by:
(a) Suroutiko Samin
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Dietrich Brandis
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Suroutiko Samin

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by deforestation? Why does it take place?
Answer:
Deforestation refers to the cutting of forests. It takes place for:

1. Industrial use
2. Residential use
3. Pastures
4. Wood.

Question 2.
Which transport system was most essential for colonial trade and movement of goods?
Answer:
Railways were most essential for colonial trade and movement of goods.

Question 3.
How many sleepers are required to lay every mile of railway track?
Answer:
Approximately 1760-2000 sleepers are required to lay every mile of a railway track.

Question 4.
Who was Dietrich Brandis? Why was he invited to India?
Answer:
Dietrich Brandis was a German expert who was invited by the Britishers to India for advice regarding the forests. The Britishers made him the first Inspector General of Forests in India.

Question 5.
What was the prime aim of Brandis’s system of Scientific Forestry?
Answer:
The prime aim of Brandis’s system of Scientific Forestry was to restrict felling of trees and grazing, so that forests could be preserved for timber production.

Question 6.
What do you know about Scientific Forestry?
Answer:
It was a system of cutting trees controlled by the forest department. In this system, natural forests which had lots of different types of trees were cut down. In their place, one type of tree was planted in straight rows. This was called as plantation.

Question 7.
in which city of India the Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up?
Answer:
in Dehradun.

Question 8.
Name any two plantation crops.
Answer:
1. Tea, Rubbef.

Question 9.
Give any four local terms for shifting agriculture.
Answer:
Dhya, Penda, Jhum, Kumri.

Question 10.
By which name shifting cultivation is known in Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Chena.

Question 11.
How many tigers were shot dead by a British Officer npjped Jeorge Yule?
Answer:
400 Tigers.

Question 12.
Which place did Birsa Munda belong to?
Answer:
Birsa Munda belonged to Chhotanagpur region.

Question 13.
Who was the leader of rebel foresters in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Alluri Sita Ram Raju was the leader of rebel foresters in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 14.
Where is Bastar located?
Answer:
Bastar is located in the southernmost part of Chhattisgarh.

Question 15.
Name the tribal communities live in Bastar.
Answer:
A number of different communities live in Bastar, such as Maria and Muria Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras and Halbas.

Question 16.
What were ‘forest villages’?
Answer:
Forest villages were those villages which were allowed to stay on in the reserved forests. In return, the people had to work free for the forest department. They had to help in cutting and transporting trees and protecting forests from fires.

Question 17.
Which island is known as the rice producing island?
Answer:
Indonesia.

Question 18.
Who was Surontiko Samin?
Answer:
Surontiko Samin was a villager who lived in Randublatung village, a teak forest in Indonesia. He started questioning state ownership of the forest. Under him, the movement gained momentum, and by 1907, 3,000 families were following his ideas.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe brief any four reasons for the expansion of cultivation by the colonical rulers in India.
Answer:
Following wei the main four reasons for the expansion of cultivation by the colonial rulers in India

1. In Europe foodgrains were needed to feed the growing urban population. The demand for wheat increased largely in the 19th century.
2. The colonial rulers considered the expansion of cultivation as a sign of progress.
3. The British government encouraged the production of commercial crops like jute, sugar, wheat and cotton to get more profit.
4. Europe needed raw materials for industrial production.

Question 2.
Why the ship industry of England was also responsible for deforestation in Indm.
Answer:
Due to the high demand by the early 19th century, oak forests in England, were disappearing. This created a problem of timber supply for the Royal Navy which required it to build ships. To obtain the supply of oak for the ship industry, Britishers started exploring Indian forests on a vast scale.

Within a decade, trees were being felled on a large scale and vast quantities of timber were being exported from India. Thus, it can be concluded that the ship industry of England was also responsible for deforestation in India.

Question 3.
Why did forests around railway tracks in India start disappearing after 1860s?
Answer:
In India the railway network expanded rapidly from the 1860s. Due to following reasons, forest started disappearing around railway tracks at the time.

1. By 1890, about 25,500 knf of track had been laid and in 1946 the length of the
   tracks had increased-to over 7,65,000 km. ,
2. As the railway tracks increased, large number of trees were cut’down.
3. The government provided contracts to private individuals, to supply the required quantity of wpod.
4. These contraetprs begem to cut trees indiscriminately.

Question 4.
Why did the British Colonial Government start commercial forestry in India? Give any two reasons.
Answer:
The British Colonial Government started commercial forestry in India due to following reasons:

1. By the early 19th century, oak forests in England were disappearing. The colonial government needed timber supply for the royal navy and railways which were essential for the movement of imperial troops and commercial trade.
2. The Colonial Government took over the forests in India and gave vast areas to European planters at cheap rates. These areas were enclosed and planted with tea and coffee.

Question 5.
Explain the term ‘Scientific Forestry’.
Answer:
The system of managing forests was termed as Scientific Forestry. “This system includes:

1. Natural forests, which had various types of different types of trees were cut down. In their place, one type of tree was planted in straight rows. This, was called as plantation.
2. Forest officials surveyed the forests, estimated the area under different types of trees, and made working plans for forest management.
3. Forest officials planned how much of the plantation area to be cut every year. The area cut was then to be replanted so that it could be ready to be cut again in the coming years.

Question 6.
What were the defects of‘Scientific Forestry’ technique?
Answer:
Following were the major defects of‘Scientific Forestry’ technique:

1. In this system, natural forest diversity got disturbed because various types of trees were cut down.
2. This system advocated the plantation of only those trees in forests which provied timber. It snatched the different rights of forest dwellers. The forest dwellers wanted a mixture of species of trees for their fuel, fodder and food.

Question 7.
What were the provisions of the Forest Act of 1878?
Answer:

1. The Forest Act of 1878 divided forests into three categories: reserved, protected and village forests.
2. The best forests were called reserved forests. Villagers could not take anything from these forests even for their personal use. They could take wood for building their houses or for fuel from protected or village forests.

Question 8.
How were the forests categorised in India under the Forest Act of 1878?
Answer:

1. The Forest Act of 1865 was amended in 1878. Under the amended Act, the forests in I ndia were divided into three categories:
2. Protected Forests: In these forests, grazing of animals and cultivation was allowed. But these activities were subjected to some restrictions.
3. Village Forests: These were unclassified forests. Villagers had open access to these forests.

Question 9.
Describe the system of shifting cultivation.
Answer:

1. Shifting cultivation or Swidden agriculture is a very old agricultural practice. It is followed in many parts of Asia, Africa and South America.
2. In India, it is known by many names such as dhya, bewar, pPnda, nevad, podu, khandad, kumri, jhum etc.
3. In this kind of cultivation, parts of forest are cut and burnt in rotation. Seeds are sown in the ashes after the first monsoon rains and the crop is harvested by October-November. Such plots are cultivated for two years and then left fallow for 12 to 18 years for the forest to grow back. Different crops are grown in these areas.

Question 10.
Why did the colonial government decide to ban the shifting cultivation?
Answer:
The colonial government decided to ban the shifting cultivation because of the following reasons:

1. European foresters felt that land which was used for cultivation every few years could not grow trees which could provide timber for railway sleepers.
2. When a forest was burnt, there was the added danger of the flames spreading and burning valuable timber.
3. Shifting cultivation also made it harder for the government to calculate taxes.

Question 11.
Describe the common customs and beliefs of the people of Bastar.
Answer:
The common customs and beliefs of the people of Bastar were as follows:

1. The people of Bastar believed that each village was given its land by the Earth and thus they look after the Earth by making some offerings at each agricultural festival. Respect is also given to the spirits of the river, the forest and the mountains.
2. As each village was aware of their boundaries, all the natural resources within that boundary were looked after by the local people.
3. If people from a village want to take some wood from the forests of another village, they have to pay a small fee called devsari, dand or man. Some villages also protect their forests by engaging watchmen and every household contribute some grain to pay them.

Question 12.
Briefly discuss how the Bastar rebellion was organised and financed?
Answer:
The tribals of Bastar were for long plagued by the policies of the British. The British policy of reservations proved the last straw to organise and finance the rebellion.

1. In 1910, mango boughs, a lump of earth, chillies and arrows were circulated between villages. These were actually messages inviting villagers to rebel. Every village contributed to the expenses of the rebellions.
2. Bazaars were looted, the houses of officials and traders, schools and police stations were burnt and robbed and grains were redistributed.
3. Most of those who were attacked in some way or another associated with the exploitative policies of the colonial state.

Question 13.
How was the Bastar rebellion suppressed?
Answer:
The Bastar rebellion were suppressed in the following ways:

1. The British government sent troops to put down these rebellion.
2. The adivasi leaders were ready to talk but the British troops surrounded them and opened fire. Then the soldiers dragged the rebels through the streets, flogging them mercilessly on the way.
3. Naturally, this created panic among tribal people. They ran away to jungles. Only after three months, the British were able to control the area again.

Question 14.
Briefly discuss the features of Dutch Scientific Forestry.
Answer:
Like the British in India, the Dutch in Java were driven to manage forests because they wanted to exploit colonial forest wood for ship-building and railways.

1. Forest laws were enacted in Java, restricting villagers’ access to forests.
2. Wood could only be cut for specified purposes like making river boats or constructing houses from specific forests under close supervisiop.
3. Villagers were punished for grazing cattle in forest areas, transporting wood without a permit or travelling on forest roads with horse carts and cattle.

Question 15.
Who were the Kalangs? Mention any four characteristics of Kalang community.
Answer:
The Kalangs were tribal community of Java. Following were the four characteristics of Kalangs community:

1. They were skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators.
2. They had a great skill in building palaces.
3. The Kalangs worked under the Dutch when the Dutch began to gain control over the forests in the 18th century.
4. They were so valuable that in 1755, when the Mataram kingdom of Java split, the 6000 Kalang families were equally divided between the two kingdoms.

Question 16.
Why were the Kalangs of Java known as a community of skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators ?
Answer:
The Kalangs of Java used shifting cultivation. They harvested teak. They were also skilled forest cutters. Without their expertise, it was difficult to harvest teak and to build the palace for the king of Java. They were so valuable to the king that in 1755, when the Mataram kingdom of Java split, the 6000 Kalang families were equally divided among the two kingdoms.

When the Dutch began to gain control over the forests in the eighteenth century, they tried to make the Kalangs work under them. Thus, the Kalangs were regarded as skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators.

Question 17.
Highlight the new developments in forestry since the 1980s.
Or
What new developments have occurred in forestry in Asia and Africa?
Answer:
Since the 1980s, governments across Asia and Africa have begun to realise that scientific forestry and the policy of keeping forest communities away from forests has resulted in many conflicts.

1. Under the new policy, conservation of forests rather than collecting timber has become a more important goal.
2. The government has recognised that in order to meet this goal, the people who live near the forests must be involved.
3. In many cases, across India, from Mizoram to Kerala, dense forests have survived only because villages protected them in sacred groves known as sarnas, devarakudu, kan, rai etc.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How did the British exploit the forests resources of India for their economic development? Explain it.
Answer:
The British exploited the forests resources of India for their economic development in the manner given ahead :
1. By the early 19th century, Oak forests in England were disappearing. The British needed timber supply for their Royal Navy and they sent search parties to explore forest resources of India. In 1820, within a decade, vast quantities of timber were being exported from India.

2. Not only for Royal Navy and for the movement of imperial troops the Britishers also needed the expansion of railways for their colonial trade. They needed wood to run locomotives and timber to lay railway tracks.

3. Large areas of natural forests were also cleared to make way for tea, coffee and rubber plantations to meet Europe’s growing need for these commodities.

4. In the colonial period, cultivation expanded rapidly for a variety of reasons. The British directly encouraged the production of commercial crops like wheat, jute, cotton and sugar. These crops were demanded for the consumption of urban population and also for the raw-materials needed in industrial production.

5. The British colonial government thought that forests were unproductive, so they tried to expand agriculture by cleaning forests which would increase the revenue of the state. So between 1880 and 1920, cultivated area rose by 6.7 million hectares.

Question 2.
Describe the Brandis’s proposal for the management of forests.
Answer:
Dietrich Brandis was a German expert on forestry. The British feared that the reckless felling of trees by local people and traders would destroy the forests. So, they invited Brandis for advice and made him the first Inspector General of Forests in India. Brandis’s Proposal to Manage Forests :

1. He realised that a proper system would have to be introduced to manage the forests and people would have to be trained in the science of forest conservation.
2. He suggested that this system would need legal sanction. Rules about the use of forest resources had to be framed. Felling of trees and grazing had to be restricted, so that forests could be preserved for timber production.
3. Anyone who cut trees without following the system had to be punished.
4. Brandis set up the Indian Forest Service in 1864 and helped to formulate the Indian Forest Act of 1865.
5. The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at Dehradun in 1906.
6. The system they taught here was called ‘Scientific Forestry’.

Question 3.
How did the Forest Act affect the lives of foresters and villagers?
Answer:
The 1878 Forest Act divided forests in India into three categories-reserved, protected and village forests. Foresters and villagers had a very different idea of ‘a good forest’. The following points show the effect of Forest Act on the lives of foresters and. villagers:

1. Villagers wanted forests with a mixture of species to satisfy their different needs fuel, fodder and leaves. Villagers could not take anything from ‘reserved’ forests. For house building or fuel, they could take wood from protected or villa ge forests. On the other hand, forest department needed trees that could provide hard, tall and straight wood for commercial use. So they encouraged to plant o nly Teak and Sal tress and ordered that other trees should be cut.

2. In forest areas, people use forest products, roots, leaves, fruits and tuber etc. Almost everthing is available in the forest for their livelihood. The Forest act meant severe hardship for them. All their everyday practices cutting wood for their houses, grazing their cattle, collecting fruits and roots, hunting and fishing were declared illegal.

3. Villagers were forced to steal wood and if they were caught, they were at the mercy of the forest guards,who even claimed bribe and free food from th em.

4. Women who collected fuel wood were scared of the forest guards. It became a common practice for police constables and forest guards to demand free food from the villagers.

Question 4.
What is Shifting cultivation or Swidden agriculture? Where is it practised? Explain its main features.
Answer:
Shifting cultivation or Swidden agriculture: Shifting cultivation of Swidden agriculture is a traditional agriculture practice where cultivators used to cut certain parts of the forest in rotation. Then they bum the trees and sow seeds in ashes after the monsoon rains. It is practised in many parts of Asia, Africa and South America.

It has many local names like Ladding in South-East Asia, Milpa in Central America, Chitemene or Tavy in Africa, Chena in Sri Lanka. In India dhya, penda, bewar, navad, jhum, podes, khandad and kumari are some local terms used for shifting or Swidden agriculture. Main Features of Shifting Cultivation or Swidden Agriculture. Following are the salient features of Shifting Cultivation or Swidden Agriculture:

1. The crop is harvested in month of October-November.
2. These crops are cultivated for couple of years and then they are left fallow for 12 to 18 years to allow the forest to grow back.
3. They use the forest in rotation for cropping and bum it after harvesting.
4. A mixture of crops is grown on the plots. So they have diversified source of income and this also replenishes and adds nutrients to the soil.

Question 5.
How did the lives of forest dwellers change significantly after the forest departments took over control of the forests ? Describe.
Answer:
The forests department took control of the forests by introduction of the-Forest Act of 1865 and 1871. In the following ways, life of forest-dwellers changed after the Act:

1. After this, some people benefitted from the new opportunities, they left their traditional occupations and started trading in forest products.
2. From the medieval period onwards, adivasi communities were trading in elephants and other goods like hides, horns, silk cocoons, ivory, bamboo, spices, fibres, grasses, gums, resins etc.
3. The British Government took total control over trade in forest products. They gave many large European trading firms the sole right to trade in the forest products of particular areas.
4. Grazing and hunting by local people was restricted. Many Pastroralist and Nomadic communities like the Korava, Karacha, Yerukula of Madras presidency and Banjaras lost their livelihoods.
5. Some tribals were branded as criminal tribes and they lost their old occupations and were forced to work in factories, mines and plantations under government supervision and were offered a very low wage. In this way, the lives of forest- dwellers were quite changed significantly after the forest department took over control of the forests.

Question 6.
How did the people of Bastar retailiate against the British forest policies? What were its results?
Or
Why did the people of Bastar rise in revolt against the British? Describe.
Answer:
Bastar is located in the southernmost part of Chhattisgarh on the borders of Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Maharashtra. A number of different communities like Maria and Muria Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras and Halbas live in Bastar. They speak different languages, but share common customs and beliefs. They believe that each village was provided its land by the Earth and in return they look after the land and give some offering at each agricultural festival.

Rise of Revolt in Bastar:
When the British colonial government proposed to reserve two thirds of the forest in 1905 and stop shifting cultivation, hunting and collection of forest products, the people of Bastar bacame too worried. Some people were allowed to stay in ‘forest villages’ on the condition that they worked for the forest department and

protected the forest from fires. Other people were displaced without any notice or compensation.
For a long time, the villagers had been suffering from excessive land rents and frequent demand of free labour and goods by the colonial officials. Moreover, there were two terrible famines, one in 1899-1900 and other in 1907-1908.

People began to gather and discuss these issues in their village councils, but the initiative was taken by the Dhurwas of Kangar Forest, where reservation first took place. In 1910, mango boughs, a lump of earth, chillies and arrows started circulating between villagers. The rebels looted the bazaars, the houses of officials and traders. Schools and police stations were burnt and robbed and grains were redistributed.

Result of the Revolt: The British troops suppressed the revolt. Adivasis fled into the jungles, their leader Gunda Dhur could not be captured. In a major victory for the rebels, work on reservation was temporarily suspended and the area to be reserved was reduced to roughly half of that planned before 1910.

Question 7.
Describe the forest transformation in Java.
Or
Discuss the Samin’s movement in Java.
Answer:
Java is a famous island of Indonesia where rice is cultivated. At one time, this island was covered with forests. The Dutch ruled upon Indonesia. They created laws for forest control. They also wanted timber to build ships.

1. The Woodcutters of Java:
There was a community called Kalangs who lived by cutting forests and shifting cultivation. They were considered very helpful in Indonesia. They were needed to get teak wood from the forests to build the palaces of kings.

In the eighteenth century, the Dutch began to gain control over the forests. They tried to make the Kalangs work for them. But the Kalangs resisted by attacking a Dutch Fort at Joana in 1770. This rebellion was, however, put down by the Dutch.

2. Dutch Scientific Forestry:
In the nineteenth century, the Dutch enacted forest laws to control the total territory in Java. According to these laws, the villagers’ access to forests was controlled. They were allowed to get wood from only a few forests for building boats or houses. That too could be done under close supervision.

Villagers were punished for grazing cattle in young stands, transporting wood without a permit or travelling on forest roads with horse carts or cattle. In Java also, forest service could be managed for ship-building and railways. For cutting trees, labour was needed. The Dutch imposed rents on the land being cultivated in the forests.

3. Samin’s Challenges:
Around the year 1890, Surontiko Samin of the village Randublatung challenged the state ownership of forests. By the year 1907, around 3,000 families were following his ideas. When the Dutch officials came to survey, some saminists lay down on their land to protest, while others refused to pay taxes or fines or work free of charge.

Question 8.
How were the forest in India and Java affected by the First and Second world wars?
Or
The First and Second World War had great impact on the forests areas of the world.” Explain.

1. In India, the forest department cut trees freely to meet British war demands.
2. In Java, the Dutch followed ‘a scorched earth’ policy, just before the Japanese occupied the region. They destroyed saw mills and burnt off huge piles of giant teak logs so that they would not fall into Japanese hands.
3.  The  Japanese exploited the forests indiscriminately for their own war industries and forced the forest dwellers to cut down the forests.
4. Many villagers took this opportunity for the expansion of cultivation land by cutting down the forests.
5. After the war, it was difficult for the Indonesian Forest Service to get back this land.
6. In India, people needed more agricultural land for cultivation for its increasing population. Forest departments desired to control the land and excluded people from it. This variation in interests, led to a conflict between them.

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

I. Objective Type Questions

1. Germany, Italy and Japan were jointly known as:
(a) Axis powers
(b) Allied powers
(c) Centralist powers
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Axis powers

2. After the Second World War, International Military Tribunal at Nuremberg was established to prosecute war criminals for :
(a) Crimes against humanity
(b) War crimes
(c) Crimes against peace
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

3. Nazi propaganda skillfully projected Hitler as a:
(a) Saviour
(b) Messiah
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

4. When did Hitler become the Chancellor of Germany?
(a) in 1933
(b) in 1930
(c) in 1937
(d) in 1948.
Answer:
(a) in 1933

5. Nazis wanted only a society of pure and healthy:
(a) citizens
(b) Jews
(c) Nordic German Aryans
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) Nordic German Aryans

6. “In my state, the mother is the most important citizen”. When did Hitler declare it?
(a) In 1933
(b) In 1920
(c) In 1948
(d) In 1942.
Answer:
(a) In 1933

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the work entrusted to the International War Tribunal set up in Nuremberg after the war?
Answer:
International War tribunal was set up to prosecute Nazi war criminals for crimes against peace and humanity.

Question 2.
Which were the Allied Powers in the Second World War?
Answer:
United Kingdom, United States of Soviet Russia, France and USA were the Allied Powers in the Second World War.

Question 3.
Name the countries constituting the Axis Power.
Answer:
Germany, Italy and Japan were the countries constituting the Axis Powers.

Question 4.
What was the German Parliament called?
Answer:
The German Parliament was called Reichstag.

Question 5.
Who were called “November Criminals”?
Answer:
Socialists, Catholics and Democrats, the supporters of the Weimar Republic were called “November Criminals”.

Question 6.
How were the deputies of the Reichstag appointed?
Answer:
The deputies of the Reichstag were elected on the basis of universal adult franchise.

Question 7.
When and between whom was the Treaty of Versailles signed?
Answer:
The Treaty of Versailles was signed on June 28, 1919 between Germany and Britain, France and USA.

Question 8.
What is hyperinflation?
Answer:
Hyperinflation is a situation in which prices is rise very high.

Question 9.
When did the Wall Street Exchange crash?
Answer:
In 1929, the Wall Street Exchange crashed.

Question 10.
In which country was Hitler born?
Answer:
Hitler was born in Austria.

Question 11.
Which party was named as Nazi Party?
Answer:
National Socialist German Workers’ Party was named as the Nazi Party.

Question 12.
What was the symbol of Nazi party?
Answer:
The red banner with Swastika was the symbol of Nazi party.

Question 13.
When was Hitler offered Chancellorship of Germany and by whom?
Answer:
On 30th January 1933, president Hindburg offered the Chancellorship of Germany, the highest position in the cabinet of ministers, to Hitler.

Question 14.
What was Enabling Act?
Answer:
Enabling Act established dictatorship in Germany.

Question 15.
Which was the most feared security force of Nazi Germany?
Answer:
The Gestapo (secret state police) was the most feared security force of Nazi Germany.

Question 16.
Who was Hjalmar Schacht?
Answer:
Hjalmar Schacht was a great economist who was given the responsibility of economic recovery by Hitler.

Question 17.
Which move of Hitler is said to be a historic blunder?
Answer:
Hitler attacking the Soviet Union in June 1941 is said to be a historic blunder.
Answer:

Question 18.
What was Article 48 of Weimar Constitution?
Answer:
Article 48 of the Weimar Constitution gave the President the powers to impose emergency, suspend civil rights and rule by decree in Germany.

Question 19.
What was the theme of the movie ‘The Eternal Jew’?
Answer:
The theme of the movie ‘The Eternal Jew’ was to create hatred for Jews.

Question 20.
Name the Nazi youth organisation that consisted of all German boys of 14 to 18 years.
Answer:
Jungvolk was the organisation that consisted of all German boys of 14 to 18 years.

Question 21.
Who wrote the ‘Third Reich of Dreams’?
Charlotte Beradt wrote the ‘Third Reich of Dreams’.

Question 22.
What was the name given to a gas chamber by Nazis?
Answer:
The name given to a gas chamber by Nazis was Disinfection Area.

Question 23.
What was ‘Holocaust’?
Answer:
The ‘Holocaust’ was a Nazi killing operation which was carried out to kill the Jews.

Question 24.
Who wrote the book ‘Mein Kampf?
Answer:
Adolf Hitler wrote the book ‘Mein Kampf.

Question 25.
Which community Hitler hated the most?
The Jews.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State the verdict of the Nuremberg Tribunal. Why the Allies did not want to impose harsh punishment on defeated Germany?
Answer:
Germany had waged a genocidal war. It resulted in the mass murder of selected groups of innocent civilians of Europe. After the Second World War, the Nuremberg Tribunal against Germany verdicted only eleven leading Nazis to death while many other were imprisoned for life.

The retribution did come but the punishment of the Nazis was far short compared to the brutality and extent of their crimes they had committed against humanity. The Allies did not want to be as harsh on defeated Germany as they had been after the First World War because they realised that the rise of Adolf Hitler was the result of the humiliation Germany faced after the First World War.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Weimar Republic.
Or
Politically, the Weimer was fragile republic. Explain the statement.
Answer:
The Weimar “epublic is the name given by historians to the parliamentary republic established in 1919 in Germany to replace the imperial form of government. In 1919, a national ass mbly was convened in the city of Weimar, where a new constitution for the Germa Reichstag was written.

This liberal democracy eventually lapsed in the early 1930?., leading to the ascent of the NSDAP and Adolf Hitler in 1933. In its 14 years, the Weimar Republic faced numerous problems, including hyper-inflation, political extremists and their paramilitaries and hostility from the victors of the First World War.

Question 3.
Write the main provisions of the Peace Treaty of Versailles.
Answer:
The main provisions of the Peace Treaty of Versailles were as follows:
1. Germany lost its overseas colonies, one-tenth of its population, 13 per cent of its territories, 75 per cent of its iron deposits and 26 per cent of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania. The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its power.

2. The War Guilt Clause held Germany responsible for the war and damages, the Allied countries suffered. Germany was forced to pay war compensation amounting to 6 billion dollars.

3. The Allied armies also occupied the resource rich Rhineland for much of the 1920s. Many Germans held the new Weimar Republic responsible for not only the defeat in the war, but also for the disgrace at Versailles.

Question 4.
Who were called as the November criminals ? Why were they targeted ? Explain.
Answer:
The First World War had a significant impact on Europe, both psychologically and financially. Europe from a continent of creditors turned into one of debtors. Unfortunately, infant Weimar Republic was being made to pay all the remaining debts.

The Republic also carried burden of war guilt and national humiliation. Those who supported the Weimar Republic mainly socialists, Catholics and democrats, came to be know as ‘November Criminals’. They were targeted because they became easy targets of attack in the conservative nationalist circles.

Question 5.
Explain the impact of the First World War on European society and polity.
Answer:
The First World War left a deep impact on European society and polity which were the following:

1. In the society, soldiers were ranked higher than civilians.
2. Trench life of the soldiers was glorified by the media.
3. Politicians and publicists laid great stress on the need for men to be aggressive, strong and masculine.
4. Aggressive war propaganda and national honour occupied centre stage in the public sphere.
5. People’s support grew for the recently-established conservative dictatorships.
6. Democracy as a young and fragile idea could not survive the instabilities of Europe between the two world wars.

Question 6.
Describe the effect on Germany because of her refusal to pay war compensation in 1923.
Answer:
Following were the effects of refusal to pay war compensation in 1923 on Germany :

1. France occupied its leading industrial area, Ruhr, which was rich in coal.
2. Germany retaliated with passive resistance and printed paper currency recklessly. With too much printed money in circulation, the value of the German mark fell drastically, causing the prices of goods to soar high.
3. Eventually, the Americans helped Germany to recover from the crisis by reworking the terms of reparation to ease the financial burden on Germans.

Question 7.
What was the impact of the Great Depression on the United States of America?
Answer:
The Great Depression started when the Wall Street Exchange of USA crashed in 1929. As a result, values of shares dropped significantly and the national income of the USA fell by half. Hundreds of American banks, factories, mining companies and business firms went bankrupt. There was large-scale unemployment, poverty and starvation in the country. The effects of this recession in the US economy were felt worldwide.

Question 8.
When was the Enabling Act passed in Germany? How did this act establish dictatorship of Hitler in Germany? Describe.
Answer:
On 3rd March 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed in Germany. This the Act established dictatorship in Germany. It gave Adolf Hitler all powers to sideline parliament and rule by decree. All political parties and trade unions were banned in Germany, except the Nazi Party and its affiliates.

The new state machinery under Hitler established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary. Exclusive surveillance and security forces like the protection squads, the security service Gestapo and criminal police were created to control and mould society in the way that the Nazis wanted.

Question 10.
Describe the Adolf Hitler’s foreign policy. What did Schacht advise to Hitler?
Answer:
Adolf Hitler’s Foreign Policy: The following were the key elements of Adolf Hitler’s foreign policy :

1. He pulled Germany out of the League of Nations in 1933.
2. Germany reoccupied the Rhindand in 1936.
3. He integrated Austria and Germany in 1938 under the slogan ‘one people, one empire and one leader.’
4. He then captured German-speaking Sudetenland from Czechoslovakia and later the entire country. However, Schacht advised Hitler not to invest hugely in rearmament because the German state was still surviving on deficit financing.

Question 11.
What was the impact of Adolf Hitler’s attack on Soviet Union? Explain.
Answer:
By the end of 1940, Adolf Hitler was at the height of power. He moved ahead to achieve his long term aim of conquering eastern Europe. He wanted to ensure food supplies and living space for Germans. His attack on Soviet Union in June 1941, proved to be a historic blunder.

In this, he exposed the German Western Front to British aerial bombing and the Eastern front to the powerful Soviet armies. The Soviet Red Army defeated Germany at Stalingrad badly. After this, they established Soviet hegemony over the entire Eastern Europe for half a century.

Question 12.
“Nazism was an anti-democratic movement”. How?
Answer:
Nazism was an anti-democratic and imperialistic movement.

1. It was a movement which arose because of peculiar conditions in Germany.
2. Nazism is a sworn enemy of liberalism, democracy and civil liberties.
3. According to Nazism, the leader is always right, individual is nothing, the state is everything. This phenomenon of Nazism is totally opposite to democratic concept. Thus, it was an anti-democratic movement.

Question 13.
How were the Jews the worst sufferers in the Nazi Germany?
Answer:
The Jews were the worst sufferers in the Nazi Germany because:

1. The Nazi hatred for Jews was rooted in the traditional Christian hostility towards them. They had been stereotyped as killers of Christ and usurers.
2. In Nazi Germany, they lived in separately marked areas called ghettos. They were often persecuted through periodically organised violence and expulsion from the land.
3. From 1933 to 1938, the Nazis terrorised, pauperised and segregated the Jews, compelling them to leave Germany.
4. Hitler believed that ‘the Jewish problem’ could be solved only through total elimination. As a result, they were killed on a mass scale in gas chambers.

Question 14.
‘Nazi rule was barbarous’. Explain any three points to prove this statement.
Answer:
The following three points prove that Nazi rule was barbarous :

1. In Nazi Germany, only Nordic German Aryans were considered ‘desirable’, and Jews, Gypsies, Blacks, Russians and Polish people were brutally killed in gas chambers.
2. The Jews and communists were tortured in concentration camps. Even ‘undesirable children’ were segregated and taken to the gas chambers.
3. Special surveillance and security forces were created to control and carry out atrocities against the selected group of innocent people. Extra-constitutional powers were given to these forces which made the Nazi state as the most dreaded criminal state.

Question 15.
Describe the new education policy introduced by Adolf Hitler in Germany.
Answer:
The following were the main points of the new education policy introduced by Adolf Hitler in Germany:

1. School text books were rewritten.
2. Jewish teachers were dismissed from the schools.
3. Racial science was introduced to justify Nazi ideas of race.
4. Children were segregated. Germans and Jew could not sit together or play together.
5. Undesirable children, like the Jews, physically handicapped and Gypsies were thrown out of schools.
6. Stereotypes about Jews were popularised even through math classes.
7. Children were taught to be loyal and submissive, hate Jews and worship Hitler.
8. Sports like boxing, which could make children iron-hearted, strong and masculine, were introduced in schools.

Question 16.
Evaluate the use of media by the Nazis to popularise their ideology in Germany.
Answer:
The following points state the use of media by the Nazis in Germany:

1. Nazi ideas were spread through visual images, films, radio, posters, catchy slogans and leaflets.
2. It posters, enemies of Germany were stereotyped, mocked and abused.
3. Propaganda films were produced to create hatred for Jews.
4. Orthodox Jews were stereotyped and marked, being shown with flowing beards and wearing kaftans. They were referred to as vermins, rats and pests.

Question 17.
HowHow did the common people react to Nazism?
The common people reacted to Nazism in the following ways:

1. Many people saw the world through Nazi eyes.
2. They spoke their mind in Nazi language.
3. They felt hatred and anger when they saw someone looked like a Jew.
4. They marked the houses of Jews and reported about their suspicious neighbours to government.
5. Common men really believed that Nazism would bring happiness and prosperity for them.
6. A large majority of Germans were passive onlookers, as they were scared to act or protest against Nazism.
7. However, many Germans organised active resistance to Nazism, braving police repression and death.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the impact of the Great Economic Depression on Germany.
Answer:
The German economy was the worst hit by the economic crisis caused by the Great Economic Depression (1929-1932) in the USA. German investments and industrial recovery was largely dependent on loans from the USA. When the USA stock market crashed in 1929, the USA withdraw financial support from Germany. The following points state the impact of Great Economic Depression on Germany :

1. By 1932, industrial production was reduced to 40 percent of the 1929 level.
2. The number of unemployed rose to 6 million. People with signboards ‘willing to do any work’, unemployed youths playing cards or simply sitting on the streets were common sights. Unemployed youths were sometimes involved in criminal activities and total despair became commonplace.
3. The economic crisis created deep anxieties and fears in people. As businesses got ruined, small businessmen, self employed and retailors were filled with the fear of being reduced to the ranks of workers or unemployed. Big businessmen were also in crisis.
4. The large mass of peasantry was affected by a sharp fall in agricultural prices.
5. The middle classes like salaried employees and pensioners found their savings diminish due to the currency losing its value.
6. Women unable to feed their children properly were filled with a sense of despair.

Question 2.
What steps were taken by Hitler to militarise Germany?
Answer:
The steps taken by Hitler to militarise Germany were as follows :

1. Special surveillance and security forces were created to control and order society in ways that the Nazis wanted.
2. Apart from the already existing regular police in green uniform and the SA or the Storm Troopers, these included the Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads), criminal police and the Security Service (SD).
3. It was the extra-constitutional powers of these newly-organised forces that gave the Nazi-state its reputation as the most dreaded criminal state.
4. People could now be detained in Gestapo torture chambers, rounded up and sent to concentration camps, deported at will or arrested without any legal procedure.
5. The police forces acquired powers to rule with impunity.

Question 3.
Describe Hitler’s policy of Nazification.
Answer:

1. Gleichschaltung subjected all major German institutions universities, schools, professions, youth organisations to Nazi control. Only the armed forces, the catholic church and some dissenting Lutheran congregations resisted takeover.
2. Trade unions were abolished.
3. In 1934, the German Parliament (Reichstag) voted its powers to Hitler through the Enabling Law. Popular support for Nazism was mobilized by the dramatisation of the leader cult and through mass political spectacles, of which the annual highlight was the party Rally at Nuremberg.
4. A strong appeal to Germanic traditions and false culture was also a major element in Hitler’s Nazification programme.

Question 4.
Who was Adolf Hitler? Trace his rise to power and downfall in Germany.
Answer:

1. Hitler was born in Austria in 1889 and he spent his youth in poverty.
2. During the First World War, he enrolled himself in the German army, acted as a messanger at the front, became a corporal and earned medals for bravery.
3. In 1919, he joined a small group called the German Workers’ Party and subsequently took control of this party, renaming it as the National Socialist German Workers’ Party. This party later came to be known as the Nazi Party.
4. In 1923, Hitler was arrested and tried for treason.
5. By 1932, the Nazi Party had become the largest party in Germany with 37 per cent votes.
6. In 1933, Hitler became the Chancellor of Germany. Having acquired power, Hitler set out to dismantle the structure of democratic rule.
7. Hitler went on to rebuild Germany along his personal preferences and the desires of the Nazi Party.
8. He believed in racial superiority of Nordic German Aryans. He had full faith in the policy of external expansion.
9. Hitler dragged the whole of the world into war once again which came to be known as the Second World War.
10. At the height of the war, when defeat was knocking at his doors, Hitler committed suicide.

Question 5.
Explain the Nuremberg Laws of citizenship.
Answer:
The Nuremberg Laws of citizenship of September 1935 declared the following:

1. Only persons of German or related blood would henceforth be German citizens, enjoying the protections of German empire.
2. Marriages between Jews and Germans were forbidden.
3. Extramarital relations between Jews and Germans were declared a crime.
4. Jews were forbidden to hoist the German national flag. Other legal measures included :
   (a) Boycott of Jewish businesses.
   (b) Expulsion from government services.
   (c) Forced selling and confiscation of their properties.
   (d) Jewish properties were vandalised and looted, houses attacked, synagogues burnt and men arrested and massacred in November 1938, remembered as the night of broken glass.

Question 6.
Explain the crimes against humanity carried out by the Nazis of Germany.
Answer:
Followings were the crimes against humanity carried out by Nazis of Germany:

1. They suspended civic rights like freedom of speech, press and assembly.
2. Concentration camps were established to torture the communists.
3. Hitler banned all political parties and trade unions except the Nazi Party and 4ts affiliates.
4. Special surveillance and security forces were created to control and order society in ways that the Nazis wanted. People could now be detained in Gestapo- .torture” camps.
5. The Jews, Gypsies and Blacks were classified as ‘undersirables’ and they were widely persecuted.
6. Germany occupied Czechoslovakia and Poland. Captured civilians were forced to serve as slave labour.
7. Jewish teachers and ‘politically unreliable’ teachers were dismissed from the schools. Jews, physically handicapped and Gypsies were considered as ‘undesirable children’ and were thrown out of schools.
8. Aryan women who deviated from the prescribed code of conduct were publicly condemned and punished.

Question 7.
Describe Hitler’s Policy towards youth.
Answer:
Hitler’s Policy Towards Youth: Hitler’s policy towards youth can be summarised as below:
1. Total Control over Schools:
Hitler was fanatically interested in the youth of the country. He felt that a strong Nazi society could be established only by teaching children the Nazi ideology. This required a control over the child, both inside and outside the school.

2. Purification of Schools:
All schools were cleansed and purified. This meant that teachers who were Jews or seen as ‘politically unreliable’ were dismissed. Children were first segregated : Germans and Jews could not sit together or play together. Subsequently, ‘undesirable children’ were thrown out of schools, and finally, in the 1940s, they were taken to the gas chambers.

3. New Education Policy:
To popularise his ideology, Hitler announced a New Education Policy. Under this, school textbooks were rewritten. Racial science was introduced to justify Nazi ideas of race. Stereotypes about Jews were popularised even through math classes. Children were taught to be loyal and submissive, hate Jews, and worship Hitler.

4. Division of the Life:
Life of the youth was divided into different stages. At each stage, he had to pass through various training and teaching programmes.

5. Formation of Hitler Youth:
The Youth League of the Nazis was founded in 1922. Four years later, it was renamed ‘Hitler Youth’. To unify the youth movement under Nazi control, all other youth organisations were systematically dissolved and finally banned.

Question 8.
Explain the Nazi’s Art of Propaganda.
Answer:
The Nazi’s Art of Propaganda: The Nazis used language and media with great care. Their art of propaganda can be explained as follows:
1. Various Codes:
Nazis used code language. The terms they coined to describe their various parctices are not deceptive but chilling also. Nazis never used the words, ‘kill’ or ‘murder’ in their official communication. Mass killings were termed special treatment, final solution (for the Jews), euthanasia (for the disabled), selection and disinfection. ‘Evacuation’ meant deporting people to gas chambers. They were labelled ‘disinfection-areas’, and looked like bathrooms equipped with fake showerheads.

2. Use of Mass Media:
Media was carefully used to win support for the regime and popularise its worldview. The Nazi ideas were spread through visual images, radio, posters, catchy slogans and leaflets. In posters, groups identified as the enemies of Germans were stereotyped, mocked, abused and described as evil. Socialists and liberals were presented as weak and degenerate. They were attacked as malicious foreign agents.

3. Films:
Propaganda films were made to create hatred for Jews. The most infamous film was “The Eternal Jew”.

Question 9.
What is Holocaust? How was it practised in Germany?
Answer:
The atrocities and sufferings that the Jews had endured during the Nazi killing
operations is known as the Holocaust. Holocaust was practised in Germany by the Nazis using the following methods:

1. Physically eliminating all those who were seen as undesirable (Jews, Gypsies, Blacks and other ‘racially impure’ people) by killing them in gas chambers by the use of poisonous gas.
2. Making people from Poland and Russia work as slave labour and imprisoning them in concentration camps.
3. Jews were segregated (including Jewish children in school) and pauperised, many of them were forced to leave the country.
4. Jews were victimized through the media by circulating films, pictures, leaflets and slogans. They were stereotyped, mocked, abused and described as evil.
5. Jews were referred to as vermins, rats and pests. Their movements were compared to those of rodents.

MAP WORK

Question 1.
In an outline map of world, locate/label/identify the following:
Major countries of Second World War Axis Powers: Germany, Italy, Japan
Allied Powers: United Kingdom, France, Soviet Union, USA (show with bold colour)
Answer:

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions

JAC Board Class 9th Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

I. Objective Type Questions

1. It is a system under which the means of production are controlled and managed by the people of the government
(a) Capitalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Communalisation
(d) Globalisation.
Answer:
(b) Socialism

2. Suffregated movement means a movement to give women the right to.
(a) property
(b) vote
(c) equality
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) vote

3. Who was Robert Owen?
(a) A socialist who believed in the idea of cooperatives
(b) A leading English manufacturer
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

4. The majority religion in Russian empire was:
(a) Catholics
(b) Orthodox Christianity
(c) Protestants
(d) Muslims.
Answer:
(b) Orthodox Christianity

5. When was the Russian Social Democratic Workers party founded?
(a) In 1895
(b) In 1840
(c) In 1898
(d) In 1820.
Answer:
(c) In 1898

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the views of the liberals regarding universal adult Franchise?
Answer:
The liberals were opposed to universal adult franchise. They felt that only men owning property should have the right to vote.

Question 2.
Mention the objective of the women’s suffragette movement.
Answer:
Objective of the women’s suffrange movement was to get the right to vote for women.

Question 3.
Who opposed the ideas of both radicals and liberals?
Answer:
Conservatives opposed the idea of both liberals and radicals.

Question 4.
By the 19th century, how conservatives wanted a change in the society?
Answer:
By the 19th century, conservatives wanted a gradual change in society. The believed that the change should be done by respecting the past.

Question 5.
Who was Robert Owen?
Answer:
Robert Owen was an English manufacturer who started a cooperative community called New Harmony. It was started in Indiana (USA).

Question 6.
Name any two advocates of co-operatives in Russia.
Answer:

1. Robert Owen, and
2. Louis Blanc.

Question 7.
Name some major socialists of the 19th century Europe.
Answer:
Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels were major socialists of the 19 century Europe.

Question 8.
Who was the rular of Russia at the start of the first World War?
Answer:
Tsar Nicholas II was the ruler of Russia at the start of the First World War.

Question 9.
What was the other name of Commune in Russia?
Answer:
In Russia, the Commune of farmers was known as Mir.

Question 10.
When was the Russian Social Democratic Workers Party founded?
Answer:
The Russian Social Democratic Workers Party was founded in 1898.

Question 11.
What was RSDWP?
Answer:
RSDWP stood for the Russian Social Democratic Workers Party.

Question 12.
How did the Russian Social Democratic Workers Party (RSDWP) enlist support?
Answer:
The RSDWP enlisted support by setting up a newspaper, mobilising workers and organising strikes.

Question 13.
Name the prominent groups into which the Russian Socialist Democratic Labour Party war divided in 1898.
Answer:

1. Bolsheviks, and
2. Mensheviks.

Question 14.
Who led the Bolshevik group in Russia during Russian Revolution?
Answer:
Vladimir Lenin led the Bolshevik group in Russia during Russian Revolution.

Question 15.
What was the outcome of the 1905 revolution in Russia?
Answer:
Tsar allowed the creation of Duma- an elected consultative parliament.

Question 16.
By what name, the event ‘Bloody Sunday’ was called later?
Answer:
The event Bloody Sunday was called as the 1905 Revolution.

Question 17.
After 1905, which elected representative body was formed in Russia?
Answer:
The elected representative body formed in Russia after 1905 was the Duma.

Question 18.
What kind of members were incorporated in the Duma under the Tsar in Russia?
Answer:
Conservatives politicians were incorporated members of Duma under the Tsar in Russia.

Question 19.
What was the new name given to the St. Petersburg?
Answer:
Petrograd was the new name given to the St. Petersburg.

Question 20.
What was called “Russian Steam Roller”?
Answer:
The Imperial Russian army came to be known as the “Russian Steam Roller”. It was the largest armed force in the world.

Question 21.
Who led the February Revolution that brought down the monarchy in February 1917?
Answer:
The Petrograd Soviet led the February Revolution that brought down the Monarchy in February, 1917.

Question 22.
Why is International Women’s Day celebrated on February 23rd?
Answer:
International Women’s Day is celebrated on February 23rd, as a mark of honour, because on this day, in Russia, many women led the way to strikes in factories.

Question 23.
State the three demands of Lenin.
Answer:
In 1917, Lenin demanded that the war be brought to a close, land be transferred to the peasants and banks be nationalised.
These three demands of Lenin were called Lenin’s ‘April Theses’.

Question 24.
Name the ship which played an important role in the assault of the Winter Palace.
Answer:
Aurora.

Question 25.
What was ‘Cheka’ in Russia?
Answer:
The Russian secret poice under Bolshevik rule was referred to by the name ‘Cheka’.

Question 26.
Who succeeded to power after Lenin?
Answer:
Joseph Stalin succeeded to power after Lenin.

Question 27.
What emergency measure did Stalin introduce?
Answer:
Stalin introduced collectivisation measure for emergency.

Question 28.
What was ‘Kolkhoz’?
Answer:
‘Kolkhoz’ was the collective farm in Russia.

Question 29.
Name two Indian reformers who told the importance of Russian Revolution.
Answer:

1. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and
2. Rabindranath Tagore.

Question 30.
What was the new name given to Bolshevik Party?
Answer:
Russian Community Party was the new name given to Bolshevik Party.

Question 31.
Who were the ‘Reds’?
Answer:
The Bolsheviks were called the ‘Reds’.

Question 32.
Who were called ‘Whites’ and ‘Greens’?
Answer:
The Pro-Tsarists were called ‘Whites’ while the socialist revolutionaries were called ‘Greens’.

Question 33.
Who were ‘Kulaks’?
Answer:
Rich farmers of Russia were called ‘Kulaks’.

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between the ideas of liberals and the radicals.

Liberals	Radicals
1. Liberals argued for a represent¬ative, elected parliamentary government, but did not believe in universal adult franchise.	1. They also argued for a represent¬ative, elected parliamentary government, but believed in universal adult franchise.
2. They felt men of property should have the right to vote.	2. They felt all citizens should have the right to vote.
3. They were in favour of giving privileges to the rich or the men of property.	3. They opposed the privileges of the rich or the men of property.

Question 2.
How did the radicals and the liberals wanted to transform the Russian Society?
Answer:

1. They were in favour of industrialisation.
2. They firmly believed in the value of individual effort, labour and enterprise.
3. They were in favour of the freedom of individuals.
4. They were against aristocracy.

Question 3.
Explain the views of different socialists and philosophers regarding the vision of the future or to transform the society.
Answer:

1. Robert Owen, a leading English manufacturer and a socialist, sought to build a co-operative community called the New Harmony in Indiana (USA).
2. Louis Blanc of France wanted the government to encourage co-operative and replace the capitalists.
3. Karl Marx believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist society, where all the properties were socially controlled. Friedrich Engels, a German revolutionary was also against capitalism.

Question 4.
Explain the ideas of Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels about the capitalists.
Answer:
Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels gave an apparent idea about how the society should be structured under socialism. They argued that industrial society was capitalist. Capitalists owned the capital invested in factories. They accumulated wealth by the profit produced by the workers. Workers were not getting any profit for their hardwork.

Marx believed that to free workers from capitalists exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist society where all property was socially controlled. Both Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels believed that workers would triumph in their conflict with capitalists.

Question 5.
Explain the economic condition of Russia at the beginning of the 20th century.
Answer:
At the beginning of this century, about 85 percent of the Russian population was agriculturist which was much higher than other European countries. Industry in Russia was developed in some pockets likest. Petersburg and Moscow. Large factories existed along side craft workshop. Many factories were setup in the 1890s. The reason behind it was the extension of the railway network and the increase in foreign investment.

Coal production doubled and iron and steel output quarupled at that time. Most Industries were the private property of industrial government supervised large factories to ensure minimum wages and limited hours of work. But factory inspectors could not prevent rules being broken.

Question 6.
Differentiate between Bolsheviks and Mensheviks.

Bolsheviks	Mensheviks
1. The Bolsheviks were in majority, They wanted to transform Russian society by uprooting the autocratic ruler.	1. The Mensheviks were in minority. They wanted to transform Russian society through education and revolution reforms among the workers.
2. This party was disciplined and controlled the number and quality of its members.	2. This party was liberal and open to and all.
3. Vladimir Lenin was the leader of the party.	3. Alexander Kerenskii was the leader of the party.

Question 7.
Explain the term ‘Bloody Sunday”.
Answer:
On January 9, 1905, a mass of peaceful workers, with their wives and children, was fired at St. Petersburg while on their way to the Winter Palace to present a petition to the Tsar. More than 100 of them were killed and 300 of others were wounded. The events of the Bloody Sunday provoked unprecedented disturbances throughout Russia. Sections of the army and the navy also revolted.

Question 8.
What was the Duma? To what extent was it successful?
Answer:
The Tsar of Russia allowed the creation of an elected consultative parliament which was known as Duma. Duma had representatives from the third estate. The Tsar dismissed the first Duma within 75 days and reelected second Duma within 3 months. He did not want any questioning of his authority. He changed the voting laws and packed the third Duma with conservative politicians. Thus the Duma was largely unsuccessful.

Question 9.
Describe the condition of Russia during the First World War.
Answer:
In Russia, the war was intially popular and the policies of Tsar Nicholas II were supported by the people. The First World War on the Eastern front differed from that on the western front. In the west, armies fought from trenches, but in the East, armies moved a good deal and fought battles leaving large casualties.

Russia’s F-my lost badly in Germany and Austria between 1914 and 1916. There were over 7 million casualties by 1917. As the German armies moved forward, the Russian army started leaving land. The situation discredited the Russian Government and the Tsar. The Russian soldiers did not wish to fight such a war.

Question 10.
Describe briefly the effects of the First World War on the Russian economy.
Answer:
Following were the effects of the First World War on the Russian economy:

1. Russia had few industries and the country was cut off from other supplies of industrial goods by German control of the Baltic Sea.
2. Industrial equipment disintegrated more rapidly in Russia than elsewhere in Europe. By 1916, railway lines began to break down.
3. Able bodied men were sent to fight war. Thus, labour shortages resulted, shutting down industries and small workshops producing essentials. Large supplies of grain were sent to feed the army. For the people in the cities, bread and flour became scarce.

Question 11.
Who was the ruler of Russia during October Revolution? How and why was the provisional government of Kerenskii overthrown by the Bolsheviks?
Answer:
Alexander Kerenskii was the ruler of Russia during October Revolution.
1. Kerenskii’s government was overthrown because it was unpopular with the people. It failed to meet the demands of the people for peace, land to the tiller, control of industries to workers and equal status to Non-Russian nationalities.

2. It sought to establish political democracy through constitutional means, but the Bolsheviks wanted to establish a socialist state immediately, even if it meant taking recourse to violent means.

3. The Bolsheviks campaigned against the war and for peace, on the basis of no annexations and no indemnities. They successfully staged a coup in October 1917 and overthrew the Provisional Government of Kerenskii.

Question 12.
State any three reasons for the success of socialist economy in post revolution Russia.
Answer:
Following were the reasons for the success of socialist economy in post revolution Russia.

1. The Bolsheviks nationalised industries and banks. A process of centralised planning war introduced. Officials assessed the condition of the economy and made the five year plans on its basis.
2. The government fixed all prices to promote industrial growth during the first two five year plans. It led to economic growth and increase in industrial production, with new industrial cities coming into being.
3. Stalin introduced a collectivisation programme under which the peasants were forced to cultivate in collective farms (Kolkhoz) and the government fixed the prices of grains sold to it.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the ideology of the three power groups present in the Russian society.
Answer:
Following was the ideology of the three power groups present in the Russian society
(a) Liberals:

1. Liberals were one of the groups which looked to change.
2. They wanted a representative elected parliamentary government and a well- trained judiciary that was independent of the ruler and officials.
3. They opposed religious discrimination and uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers. They wanted to safeguard the rights of the individuals.

(b) Radicals:
(i) They wanited a government based on the majority of country’s population. They supported 1 universal adult suffrage, including voting right for women.
(ii) Unlike they opposed the privileges granted to rich landowners and wealthy ictory owners.
(iii) They were not against private property, but Opposed the concentration of property in the lands of a few people.

(c) Conservatives:

1. They opposed liberals and radicals. They generally opposed the idea of change in the 18th century.
2. By the 19th century, they accepted that some change was inevitable, but believed that it had to be brought through a gradual process.
3. They respected past/old traditions and customs.

Question 2.
How did Russia’s involvement in the First World War contribute to the fall of Russian autocracy and the Revolution of 1917?
Answer:
Russian involvement in the First World War contributed to the fall of Russian autocracy in the following ways:

1. The Tsar took Russia into the war. This proved fatal and brought about the final breakdown of Russian autocracy.
2. During the war, Russia lost more than 7 million soldiers. In order to increase the strength of army, farmers and workers were forcibly recruited to the army. So there was discontent among the masses.
3. The war led to the destruction of crops, homes and industries. So, over 3 million people became refugees.
4. Shortage of production gave birth to an economic crisis. Means of transport and communication were also destroyed in the war.
5. There was shortage of workers and food grains in the country. So, the riots at breadshops were common.
6. Because of the above reasons, the Russian people were discontent and opposed against Tsar’s autocracy and led the revolution of 1917.

Question 3.
What was October Revolution? Examine the circumstances that led to a civil war in Russia after the October Revolution.
Answer:
It was the revolution which occured in October 1917. It was led by Petrograd Soviet and the Bolshevik Party under the leadership of Lenin. The uprising began on 24 October. Though Prime Minister Kerenskii resisted, the seizure was complete within a day. When the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution, the Russian army began to break up.

Soldiers and peasants wished to go home for the redistribution and were deserted. Non-Bolshevik socialists, liberals and supporters of autocracy condemned the Bolshevik uprising. Their leaders moved to south Russia and organised troops to fight the Bolsheviks (the Reds). During 1918 and 1919, the ‘Greens’ (Socialist Revolutionaries) and the ‘Whites’ (Pro-Tsarists) controlled most of the Russian empire.

They were backed by French, American, British and Japanese troops. All these forces were worried at the growth of socialism in Russia. Hence, there occurred a civil war amongst all these troops and the Bolsheviks. As a result, looting, banditry and famine became common.

Question 4.
Briefly describe the role of Lenin in Post 1917 Russian reconstruction.
After the civil war ended, Lenin sought to fulfil his priorities to eliminate capitalism and rapidly industrialise Russia through the following ways:

1. He organised the economy like an army. On orders from the high command, state appointed managers who operated various functions of the economy.
2. The New Economic Policy was implemented, whereby peasants were allowed to keep surplus production after payment of tax. Private trade was allowed to a limited extent.
3. While major industries were under government control, small businesses and home industries could be privately owned and operated for profit.
4. Foreign capital was encouraged for the development of state industries. This helped revive the Russian economy and in improvement in the conditions of the common people.
5. On the political front, Lenin banned differences within the communist party. Those who held a different view from the official party line were either expelled or shot dead.
6. Lenin succeeded in destroying the feudal structure of Russia and establishing the World’s first communist state.

Question 5.
Write the impact of the Russian Revolution on Russia.
Answer:
The impact of the Russian Revolution on Russia was as follows:
1. End of Autocratic Rule and Establishment of a socialist government:
The Revolution put an end to the autocratic monarchy in Russia. With the murder of Tsar Nicholas II and his wife, the Romanov dynasty which was in power for the last three centuries came to an end. The most important result of the Revolution was the establishment of a socialist government in Russia. All the means of production were nationalised.

2. Russia’s Withdrawal from the War:
After the revolution, the Russian government decided to withdraw from the war because of the following reasons:
(a) Most of the revolutionaries thought that the war was being fought to satisfy the imperialistic designs of the Tsar.

(b) Russia lost its 700,000 soldiers.

(c) The new government wanted economic development and modernisation of the country. So it was not possible for them to spend money on war.

3. Industrial Growth and Economic Development:
The new government followed socialism. A new Economic Policy was adopted in 1921. Under this policy, it was decided to develop the economy through Five-year plans. With the growth of industrial and agriculture production, poverty started disappearing and the country moved on to the path of prosperity.

4. Equal Rights to all the Nationalities:
The policy of discrimination towards Non-Russian nationalities was abandoned and equality of all the nationalities in the USSR was recognised. The Non-Russian were given freedom to develop their own languages and cultures. –

5. Emergence of Russia as a World Power:
The new government adopted the policy of economic development which promoted modem technology. It gave a boost to industry and agriculture. Economic and social policies adopted by the government made Russia not only a major power of Europe, but also of the whole world.

Question 6.
Describe the international effects of Russian Revolution.
Or
Write in detail the impact of Russian Revolution on the world.
Answer:
Impact of the Russian Revolution on the World:
The Russian Revolution affected the world in the following ways:
1. Promotion of Socialism and Communism:
The Russian Revolution helped in the spread of socialism and communism in the world. The communist parties were formed in most countries of the world. Communist government was established in many countries like Poland, East Germany, Czechoslovakia, Bulgaria and China.

2. Redefinition of Democracy:
After the Revolution, it was felt that mere political democracy had no meaning without social and economic equality.

3. Right of Workers:
It united the workers of the world on the basis of equality. It also enhanced the prestige of workers.

4. Rise of Nationalism:
It revolutionised the minds of people of Asia and Africa who were being exploited by their imperialist masters. The revolution contributed greatly in weakening the policy of imperialism.

5. Encouraged Struggle Between Capitalists and Workers:
It gave birth to direct struggle between Marxism and Capitalism. It terrified the capitalists of the world so much, that they began to give due attention to the welfare of workers.

6. Division of World and Cold War:
It divided the world into two groups, i.e. Socialists and Capitalists. The rivalry between these two blocs posed a great threat to the world peace for a long time.

7. Economic Planning:
The idea of state playing an active role in regulating the economy and planning the economy, to improve the conditions of the people gained wide acceptance.

Question 7.
Some developments in USSR were not in conformity with the ideals of Socialism. Discuss.
Answer:
It is true that some developments in USSR were not in conformity with the ideals of socialism. The following points favoured this view:

1. The social and economic developments in USSR were accompanied by many serious failures. Within a few years of the Revolution, political power came to be concentrated in the hand of a single man Stalin. Russia became a one-party state.
2. Discussion and debate over policies within the ruling party had ceased. Critics within the party were charged withconspiracy against socialism and sent to labour camps or prisons.
3. Civil liberties were curbed. A large number of people, many talented professionals were forced to make false confessions under torture and executed.
4. Some economic policies of the government brought terrible misery to the people especially peasants.
5. Russian revolution led to establishment of totalitarianism and regimentation of life. Life of an individual came to be controlled by the state.
6. Dictatorship of the Tsar came to be replaced by tyranny of the State.

MAP WORK

Question 1.
On an outline map of world, locate /label/identify the following: Major countries of First World War (Central Powers and Allied Powers)

1. Central Powers: Germany, Austria-Hungary, Turkey (Ottoman Empire)
2. Allied Powers: France, England, Russia, America.

Answer:

JAC Class 9 Social Science Important Questions